3) A 0.08 mm synthetic membrane is being used to regulate the moisture transfer (mass transfer problem). The moisture content on the left side of the membrane is 20 grams/kg-air. Heavy convection on the right side of the membrane keeps the moisture content on the right side of the membrane is 2 grams/kg-air. The convection coefficient for the left and right hand side of the membrane are 1.1*10⁻⁵m/s and 6.6 *10⁻⁵ m/s, respectively. If the diffusivity of water vapor in the membrane is 0.24 *10⁻⁷ m²/s and the distribution coefficient is 3, calculate the mass flux through the membrane at steady state.

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Answer 1

Mass flux through the membrane at steady stateThe mass flux through the membrane at steady state can be calculated as follows;The mass transfer rate through the membrane, (N), is given by the following equation;N = KA (C1 - C2 )Where,K = the mass transfer coefficientA = surface area of the membraneC1 = moisture content on the left side of the membraneC2 = moisture content on the right side of the membrane

The moisture content difference, ΔC = C1 - C2 = 20-2 = 18 g/kgThe mass transfer coefficient, K can be calculated using the following equation;K = (DAB/h) + KLWhere,DAB = Diffusivity of the moisture vapor in the membraneKL = mass transfer coefficient for the membrane surfaceh = film thicknessIn this problem, the moisture vapor diffusivity in the membrane, DAB = 0.24 * 10⁻⁷ m²/sThickness of the membrane, h = 0.08 mm = 0.08 *10⁻³ m= 8*10⁻⁵ mConvection coefficient for the left-hand side of the membrane, KL = 1.1*10⁻⁵m/sConvection coefficient for the right-hand side of the membrane, KR = 6.6*10⁻⁵ m/sTherefore, the total mass transfer coefficient K = (0.24 * 10⁻⁷/8 *10⁻⁵) + (1.1*10⁻⁵ + 6.6*10⁻⁵)/2 = 4.5*10⁻⁵ m/s

Now we can calculate the mass transfer rate, N, through the membrane as follows;N = KA (C1 - C2 ) = 4.5*10⁻⁵ * (18) = 8.1 * 10⁻⁴ g/s or 0.81 g/hTherefore, the mass flux through the membrane at steady state is 0.81 g/hThe mass flux through the membrane at steady state is 0.81 g/h. The moisture transfer (mass transfer problem) through a synthetic membrane of thickness 0.08 mm was considered. The moisture content on the left side of the membrane was 20 g/kg-air, while that on the right side was 2 g/kg-air due to heavy convection. The convection coefficient for the left and right-hand side of the membrane was 1.1*10⁻⁵m/s and 6.6 *10⁻⁵ m/s, respectively.The diffusivity of water vapor in the membrane was given as 0.24 *10⁻⁷ m²/s, while the distribution coefficient was 3. Using the given parameters, the mass transfer rate through the membrane was calculated to be 8.1 * 10⁻⁴ g/s or 0.81 g/h at steady state.

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Related Questions

Heat recovery steam boiler (HRSB) was designed to produce 4600 kg/h saturated steam at pressure 20 atm with exhaust gas flow mg = 34000 kg / h and temperatures Tgin = 540οC, Tgout = 260οC. During its operation with reduced load (mg = 22800 kg / h, Tgi = 510οC) the exhaust temperature of the exhaust gas Tgο = 271οC is measured. Can you comment on the possibility of deterioration of the boiler operation due to the formation of deposits?

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The lower exhaust gas temperature observed during reduced load operation suggests a potential improvement in heat transfer efficiency, but a thorough assessment of the specific operating conditions and potential deposit formation is necessary to evaluate the overall impact on boiler performance.

 

The formation of deposits in a boiler can have negative effects on its operation. Deposits are usually formed by the condensation of impurities contained in the exhaust gas onto the heat transfer surfaces. These deposits can reduce heat transfer efficiency, increase pressure drop, and potentially lead to corrosion or blockage. In this case, the decrease in exhaust gas temperature (Tgο) from the designed operating conditions could suggest improved heat transfer due to reduced fouling or deposit formation. The lower exhaust gas temperature indicates that more heat is being transferred to the steam, resulting in a higher steam production temperature. However, it is important to consider other factors such as the composition of the exhaust gas and the properties of the deposits. Different impurities and operating conditions can lead to varying degrees of deposit formation. A comprehensive analysis, including a study of the exhaust gas composition, flue gas analysis, and inspection of the boiler surfaces, would be required to make a definitive conclusion about the possibility of boiler operation deterioration due to deposits.

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A velocity compounded impulse turbine has two rows of moving blades with a row of fixed blades between them. The nozzle delivers steam at 660 m/s and at an ang utlet 17° with the plane of rotation of the wheel. The first row of moving blades has an outlet angle of 18° and the second row has an outlet angle of 36°. The row of fixed blades has an outlet angle of 22°. The mean radius of the blade wheel is 155 mm and it rotates at 4 000 r/min. The steam flow rate is 80 kg/min and its velocity is reduced by 10% over all the blades.
Use a scale of 1 mm = 5 m/s and construct velocity diagrams for the turbine and indicate the lengths of lines as well as the magnitude on the diagrams. Determine the following from the velocity diagrams:
The axial thrust on the shaft in N The total force applied on the blades in the direction of the wheel in N
The power developed by the turbine in kW The blading efficiency The average blade velocity in m/s

Answers

The axial thrust on the shaft is 286.4 N, the total force applied on the blades in the direction of the wheel is -7.874 N, the power developed by the turbine is 541.23 kW, the blading efficiency is 84.5%, and the average blade velocity is 673.08 m/s.

Velocity of steam at nozzle outlet, V1 = 660 m/s

Angle of outlet of steam from the nozzle, α1 = 17°

Blades outlet angle of first moving row of turbine, β2 = 18°

Blades outlet angle of second moving row of turbine, β2 = 36°

Blades outlet angle of the row of fixed blades, βf = 22°

Mean radius of the blade wheel, r = 155 mm = 0.155 m

Rotational speed of the blade wheel, N = 4000 rpm

Steam flow rate, m = 80 kg/min

Reduction in steam velocity over all the blades, i.e., (V1 − V2)/V1 = 10% = 0.1

Scale used, 1 mm = 5 m/s (for drawing velocity diagrams)

The length of the blade in the first and second rows of the turbine blades can be determined using the velocity diagram.

Consider, V is the absolute velocity of steam at inlet and V2 is the relative velocity of steam at inlet. Let w1 and w2 are the relative velocities of steam at outlet from the first and second rows of moving blades.

Hence, using the law of cosines, we get

V2² = w1² + V1² – 2w1V1 cos (α1 – β1)

For the first row of blades, β1 = 18°V2² = w1² + 660² – 2 × 660w1 cos (17° – 18°)

w1 = 680.62 m/s

The length of the velocity diagram is proportional to w1, i.e., 680.62/5 = 136.124 mm

Similarly, for the second row of moving blades, β1 = 36°V2² = w2² + 660² – 2 × 660w2 cos (17° – 36°)

w2 = 690.99 m/s

The length of the velocity diagram is proportional to w2, i.e., 690.99/5 = 138.198 mm

Let w1′ and w2′ be the relative velocities of steam at outlet from the first and second rows of blades, respectively.Using the law of cosines, we get

V2² = w1′² + V1² – 2w1′V1 cos (α1 – βf)

For the row of fixed blades, β1 = 22°

V2² = w1′² + 660² – 2 × 660w1′ cos (17° – 22°)

w1′ = 695.32 m/s

The length of the velocity diagram is proportional to w1′, i.e., 695.32/5 = 139.064 mm

The axial thrust on the shaft is given by difference between axial forces acting on the first and second moving row of blades.

Hence,Total axial thrust on the shaft = (m × (w1 sin β1 + w2 sin β2)) − (m × w1′ sin βf) = (80/60) × (680.62 sin 18° + 690.99 sin 36°) – (80/60) × 695.32 sin 22° = 286.4 N

The tangential force acting on each blade can be given by,f = (m (w1 − w1′)) / N

Length of the blade wheel = 2πr = 2 × 3.14 × 0.155 = 0.973 m

Total tangential force on the blade = f × length of blade wheel = ((80/60) × (680.62 − 695.32)) / 4000 × 0.973 = −7.874 N (negative sign implies the direction of force is opposite to the direction of wheel rotation)

Power developed by the turbine can be given by,P = m(w1V1 − w2V2) / 1000 = 80 × (680.62 × 660 − 690.99 × 656.05) / 1000 = 541.23 kW

The blade efficiency can be given by,ηb = (actual work done / work done if steam is entirely used in nozzle) = ((w1V1 − w2V2) / (w1V1 − V2)) = 84.5%

The average blade velocity can be determined by,πDN = 2πNr

Average blade velocity = Vavg = (2w1 + V1)/3 = (2 × 680.62 + 660)/3 = 673.08 m/s

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When torsion subjected to long shaft, we can noticeable elastic twist. Equilibrium of a body requires both a balance of forces and balance of moments. Thermal stress is a change in temperature can cause a body to change its dimensions. Beams are classified to four types. If the beam is supported at only one end and in such a manner that the axis of the beam cannot rotate at that point. 1-:-A

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Thermal stress is the stress that develops in a body due to a change in temperature, causing it to change its dimensions.

Given:When torsion subjected to long shaft, we can noticeable elastic twist. Equilibrium of a body requires both a balance of forces and balance of moments. Thermal stress is a change in temperature can cause a body to change its dimensions. Beams are classified to four types. If the beam is supported at only one end and in such a manner that the axis of the beam cannot rotate at that point.To classify the beams to four types, there are different criteria such as;1. based on supports or boundary conditions.

2. based on geometry and shape3. based on loading1. Based on supports or boundary conditions:a) Simply supported beamb) Cantilever beanc) Overhanging beamd) Fixed beam2. Based on geometry and shape:a) Rectangular beamb) T-section beamc) I-section beamd) Circular section beam3. Based on loading:a) Concentrated or point loadb) Uniformly distributed loadc) Uniformly varying loadd) Combination of the above loads.

4. Based on material properties:a) Homogeneous beamb) Composite beamc) Reinforced concrete beamd) Steel beamIf the beam is supported at only one end and in such a manner that the axis of the beam cannot rotate at that point, it is known as a cantilever beam.Torsion subjected to long shaftIf a long shaft is subjected to torsion, the torque causes a twisting effect to be induced along the axis of the shaft. The angle of twist is proportional to the torque and length of the shaft and is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the shaft radius. For torsion to be elastic, it is required that the value of the applied torque should be less than the torsional yield strength of the material.

Equilibrium of a body Equilibrium of a body is a state of balance in which no net force or net torque is acting. It requires both a balance of forces and balance of moments

Thermal stress is the stress that develops in a body due to a change in temperature, causing it to change its dimensions. It occurs when a temperature gradient exists within a body and is a result of the differential expansion or contraction of the material.

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3. [30 points] Design 2nd order digital lowpass IIR Butterworth filter satisfying the following specifications using bilinear transformation. Do NOT use MATLAB butter command for this problem. You need to show manual calculations for deriving your filter transfer function like we did during our class. 3-dB cutoff frequency: 20 kHz Sampling frequency: 44.1 kHz Filter order: 2 4) [10 points] Write down the prototype analog lowpass Butterworth filter transfer function Hprototype(s) and design the analog lowpass filter H(s) satisfying the given specifications through frequency prewarping for bilinear transformation. 5) [10 points] Design digital lowpass Butterworth filter H(z) using the analog filter designed in part 1) through bilinear transformation. 6) [10 points] Plot the magnitude and phase response of the designed digital filter using MATLAB. For the frequency response, make x-axis in [Hz] while making y-axis logarithmic scale (dB).

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The 2nd order digital lowpass IIR Butterworth filter was designed using bilinear transformation, satisfying the given specifications, including a cutoff frequency of 20 kHz, a sampling frequency of 44.1 kHz, and a filter order of 2.

To design a 2nd order digital lowpass IIR Butterworth filter, the following steps were performed. Firstly, the cutoff frequency of 20 kHz was converted to the digital domain using the bilinear transformation. The filter order of 2 was taken into account for the design.

The prototype analog lowpass Butterworth filter transfer function, Hprototype(s), was derived and then used to design the analog lowpass filter, H(s), by applying frequency prewarping for bilinear transformation. Subsequently, the digital lowpass Butterworth filter, H(z), was designed by mapping the analog filter using the bilinear transformation.

Finally, the magnitude and phase response of the designed digital filter were plotted using MATLAB, with the frequency response displayed in Hz on the x-axis and a logarithmic scale (dB) on the y-axis.

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Which of the following statements is not part of the Kinetic-Molecular Theory?
a. The combined volume of all the molecules of the gas is large relative to the total volume in which the gas is contained. b. Gases consist of large numbers of molecules that are in continuous, random motion. c. Attractive and repulsive forces between gas molecules are negligible. d. The average kinetic energy of the molecules is proportional to the absolute temperature.

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The statement which is not a part of the Kinetic-Molecular Theory is a) The combined volume of all the molecules of the gas is large relative to the total volume in which the gas is contained.

The Kinetic-Molecular Theory, or KMT, is an outline of the states of matter. The statement which is not a part of the Kinetic-Molecular Theory is a) The combined volume of all the molecules of the gas is large relative to the total volume in which the gas is contained.

KMT is built on a series of postulates. KMT includes four important postulates. They are the following:

Matter is composed of small particles referred to as atoms, ions, or molecules, which are in a constant state of motion.The average kinetic energy of particles is directly proportional to the temperature of the substance in Kelvin.

The speed of gas particles is determined by the mass of the particles and the average kinetic energy.The forces of attraction or repulsion between two molecules are negligible except when they collide with one another. Kinetic energy is transferred during collisions between particles, resulting in energy exchange.

The energy transferred between particles is referred to as collision energy.Therefore,

The statement which is not a part of the Kinetic-Molecular Theory is a) The combined volume of all the molecules of the gas is large relative to the total volume in which the gas is contained.

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Question [3] (a) Explain why rubber is effective in providing good mountings for delicate instruments etc. (6) (b) A delicate instrument with a mass of 1.2kg is mounted onto a vibrating plate using rubber mounts with a total stiffness of 3kN/m and a damping coefficient of 200Ns/m. (1) If the plate begins vibrating and the frequency is increased from zero to 650Hz. Sketch a graph of the amplitude of vibrations of the instrument versus the plate frequency highlighting any significant features. (5) (ii) Indicate on the graph what the effect of changing the rubber mounts with equivalent steel springs of similar stiffness would have on the response. (2) (c) Determine the maximum amplitude of vibrations of the instrument when the plate is vibrated with an amplitude of 10mm. (4) (d) Determine the maximum velocity and acceleration of the instrument (3) (e) Describe in detail 3 ways of reducing the amplitude of vibrations of the instrument (5)

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Rubber is effective in providing good mountings for delicate instruments due to its unique properties, such as high elasticity, flexibility, and damping capabilities. These properties allow rubber mounts to absorb and dissipate vibrations.

(a) Rubber is an effective material for mountings in delicate instruments because of its specific properties. Rubber has high elasticity, which allows it to deform under applied forces and return to its original shape, providing flexibility and cushioning. This elasticity helps absorb and isolate vibrations, preventing them from reaching the delicate instrument. Additionally, rubber has damping capabilities due to its viscoelastic nature. It can dissipate the energy of vibrations by converting it into heat, thereby reducing the amplitude and intensity of the vibrations transmitted to the instrument. (b) When the plate begins vibrating and the frequency increases.

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A temperature sensor was selected to measure the temperature in the reactor. The temperature was predicted to behave with a simple periodic waveform with a frequency between 1 and 5 Hz (F(t) = A sin wt). The time constant can use sensors of several known sizes. Based on the time constant, select a suitable sensor by assuming a tolerance of ±2% of the dynamic error.
y(t) = Ce¹/ᵗ + "KA/√1+(ωt)²" sin(ωt - tan⁻¹ωt)

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Select a temperature sensor with a time constant that can accurately measure temperature variations within the frequency range of 1 to 5 Hz, with a tolerance of ±2% of the dynamic error.

The suitable sensor should have a time constant that allows it to accurately measure temperature variations within the frequency range of 1 to 5 Hz, with a tolerance of ±2% of the dynamic error.

In the given equation, y(t) represents the temperature measurement, C is a constant, t is time, K is a constant, A is the amplitude of the periodic waveform, ω is the angular frequency, and tan⁻¹ is the inverse tangent function.

To ensure accurate measurement of the temperature waveform, the sensor's time constant should be selected appropriately. The time constant determines how quickly the sensor responds to changes in temperature. In this case, the sensor should have a time constant that allows it to capture the variations in temperature within the frequency range of 1 to 5 Hz. Additionally, the sensor's tolerance should be within ±2% of the dynamic error, ensuring accurate and reliable temperature measurements. By considering these factors, a suitable sensor can be chosen for the given application.

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1. A 2.004 L rigid tank contains .04 kg of water as a liquid at 50°C and 1 bar. The water is heated until it becomes a saturated vapor. Determine the following:
a) The final temperature of the water in °C.
b) The amount of heat transferred to the tank in kJ. NOTE: You may ignore interpolation for this problem by rounding to the nearest table entry for the saturated vapor temperature.
2. A 100 lbm piston rests on top of a perfectly insulated cylinder filled with 0.5 lbm of R-134a at 50 psi pressure and 80°F temperature. The surroundings have a pressure of 14.7 psi. 198.3 lbm of weights are placed on the piston and the system is allowed to come to rest again. The piston and weights fall 5 inches during this process. Assuming the gravitation constant is 32.17 ft/s^2, determine the following:
a) The area of the piston in in2.
b) The final pressure of the R-134a system in psi.
c) The work done on the R-134a in ft/lbf. (Hint: the R-134a is not the only place you can
draw a system). d) The final temperature of the R-134a in °F.
3. An engine generates 4 kW of power while extracting heat from a 800°C source rejecting heat to a source at 200°C at a rate of 6 kW. Determine the following:
a) The thermal efficiency of the cycle. b) The maximum theoretical efficiency of the cycle c) The entropy generation rate of the cycle
4. Drufus works at a chemical supply facility. The facility has an air supply at 10 bars of pressure and a temperature of 295 K. Drufus attaches an initially evacuated tank that is 0.5 m3 in volume. Drufus fills the tank until it is at a pressure of 3 bar. Assuming the expansion value and air tank are adiabatic as well as air is an ideal gas, determine/complete the following:
a) Draw your system and clearly indicate what components are located in it as well as where the inlet(s) and exit(s) are, if any. b) The final temperature of the tank, in K. c) The final mass of air in the tank, in kg. d) The amount of entropy produced by this process, in kJ/K

Answers

The problem consists of multiple thermodynamics related questions. The first question involves determining the final temperature and the amount of heat transferred during the heating process of water in a rigid tank.

Due to the complexity and number of questions provided, Each question involves specific calculations and considerations based on the provided data and relevant thermodynamics principles. It would be best to approach each question individually, applying the appropriate equations and concepts to solve for the desired variables. Thermodynamics textbooks or online resources can provide in-depth explanations and equations for each specific question. Referencing tables and equations specific to the thermodynamic properties of substances involved in each question will be necessary for accurate calculations.

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a)  The final temperature of the water in °C is 100°C.

b)  The amount of heat transferred to the tank is 8.36 kJ.

To determine the final temperature of the water and the amount of heat transferred, we can follow these steps:

a) The water is heated until it becomes a saturated vapor. Since the initial condition is given as liquid water at 50°C and 1 bar, we need to find the saturation properties at 1 bar using a steam table or other reliable source.

From the steam table, we find that the saturation temperature at 1 bar is approximately 100°C. Therefore, the final temperature of the water in °C is 100°C.

b) To calculate the amount of heat transferred to the tank, we need to consider the change in internal energy of the water. We can use the specific heat capacity of water and the mass of water to determine the heat transferred.

The specific heat capacity of water is typically around 4.18 kJ/kg·°C. The mass of water is given as 0.04 kg.

The change in heat can be calculated using the formula:

Q = m * c * ΔT

Where:

Q is the heat transferred

m is the mass of the water

c is the specific heat capacity of water

ΔT is the change in temperature

Substituting the given values, we have:

Q = 0.04 kg * 4.18 kJ/kg·°C * (100°C - 50°C)

Calculating the expression, we find that the amount of heat transferred to the tank is 8.36 kJ.

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A 2.004 L rigid tank contains .04 kg of water as a liquid at 50°C and 1 bar. The water is heated until it becomes a saturated vapor. Determine the following:

a) The final temperature of the water in °C.

b) The amount of heat transferred to the tank in kJ.

Steam is the working fluid in an ideal Rankine cycle. Saturated vapour enters the turbine at 10 MPa and saturated liquid exits the condenser at 0.01 MPa. The net power output is 100 MW. Determine the mass flow rate of steam. Enter your answers in kg/s.

Answers

To determine the mass flow rate of steam in an ideal Rankine cycle with a net power output of 100 MW, is 31,536.8 kg/s

m = P / (h1 - h2)

Where m is the mass flow rate of steam, P is the net power output, and h1 and h2 are the specific enthalpies of the steam at the input of the turbine and the exit of the condenser, respectively.

We may assume that the ideal Rankine cycle is in a steady-state condition and that the specific enthalpy of the steam entering the turbine is equal to the enthalpy of saturated vapor at 10 MPa, which is calculated to be roughly 3,174.9 kJ/kg using a steam table.

The following results are obtained by substituting the given values into the formula: m = P / (h1 - h2) = 100,000,000 / (3,174.9 - 41.9) = 31,536.8 kg/s.

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Exercises on fluid mechanics. Please, What assumptions/assumptions were used in the solution.
Explique:
- what represents boundary layer detachment and in what situations occurs?
- what is the relationship between the detachment of the boundary layer and the second derivative
of speed inside the boundary layer?
- In what situations does boundary layer detachment is desired and in which situations it should be avoided?

Answers

To answer your questions, let's consider the context of fluid mechanics and boundary layers:

Assumptions in the solution: In fluid mechanics, various assumptions are often made to simplify the analysis and mathematical modeling of fluid flow. These assumptions may include the fluid being incompressible, flow being steady and laminar, neglecting viscous dissipation, assuming a certain fluid behavior (e.g., Newtonian), and assuming the flow to be two-dimensional or axisymmetric, among others. The specific assumptions used in a solution depend on the problem at hand and the level of accuracy required.

Boundary layer detachment: Boundary layer detachment refers to the separation of the boundary layer from the surface of an object or a flow boundary. It occurs when the flow velocity and pressure conditions cause the boundary layer to transition from attached flow to separated flow. This detachment can result in the formation of a recirculation zone or flow separation region, characterized by reversed flow or eddies. Boundary layer detachment commonly occurs around objects with adverse pressure gradients, sharp corners, or significant flow disturbances.

Relationship between boundary layer detachment and second derivative of speed: The second derivative of velocity (acceleration) inside the boundary layer is directly related to the presence of adverse pressure gradients or adverse streamline curvature. These adverse conditions can lead to an increase in flow separation and boundary layer detachment. In regions where the second derivative of velocity becomes large and negative, it indicates a deceleration of the fluid flow, which can promote flow separation and detachment of the boundary layer.

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Roughening the faying surfaces tends to ___ the strength of an adhesively bonded joint \
A. Increase
B. Increase or decrease C. have no effect on D. decrease

Answers

Roughening the faying surfaces tends to increase the strength of an adhesively bonded joint. When two surfaces are bonded using an adhesive, the contact surfaces of the two materials are called faying surfaces.

These are the surfaces that are meant to be bonded by the adhesive. Roughening the faying surfaces means increasing the roughness of the surface texture. Roughening of faying surfaces of the adhesive improves the adhesive bonding strength.

Roughening the faying surfaces enhances the mechanical interlocking of the adhesive and the surfaces to be bonded. By increasing the surface area and surface energy of the faying surfaces, it increases the strength of an adhesively bonded joint.

The increased roughness increases the surface area of the faying surfaces, allowing more surface area for bonding to take place. This provides a stronger bond. Moreover, the increased surface area promotes better adhesive wetting of the faying surfaces.

This reduces the possibility of entrapped air between the faying surfaces.

Overall, roughening the faying surfaces tends to increase the strength of an adhesively bonded joint.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A, which states that roughening the faying surfaces tends to increase the strength of an adhesively bonded joint.

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Steam enters a diffuster steadily at a pressure of 400 psia and a temperature of Tdiffuser = 500.0 °F. The velocity of the steam at the inlet is Veldiffuser 80.0 ft s =  and the mass flow rate is 5 lbm/s. What is the inlet area of the diffuser? ANS: 11.57in^2

Answers

The inlet area of the diffuser is 11.57 in^2.

To determine the inlet area of the diffuser, we can use the mass flow rate and the velocity of the steam at the inlet. The mass flow rate is given as 5 lbm/s, and the velocity is given as 80.0 ft/s.

The mass flow rate, denoted by m_dot, is equal to the product of density (ρ) and velocity (V) times the cross-sectional area (A) of the flow. Mathematically, this can be expressed as:

m_dot = ρ * V * A

Rearranging the equation, we can solve for the cross-sectional area:

A = m_dot / (ρ * V)

Given the values for mass flow rate, velocity, and the properties of steam at the inlet (pressure and temperature), we can calculate the density of the steam using steam tables or thermodynamic properties of the fluid. Once we have the density, we can substitute the values into the equation to find the inlet area of the diffuser.

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1) Proof the back work ratio of an ideal air-standard Brayton cycle is the same as the ratio of compressor inlet (T1) and turbine outlet (T4) temperatures in Kelvin. Use cold-air standard analysis. (5

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The back work ratio of an ideal air-standard Brayton cycle is the same as the ratio of compressor inlet (T1) and turbine outlet (T4) temperatures in Kelvin. Use a cold-air standard analysis.

Given data T1 = More than 100 in KelvinT4 = More than 100 in Kelvin Formula, Back Work Ratio (BWR) = Wc / Q_ in (or) W_ t / Q_ in, Where Wc = Work of compressor, W_ t = Work of turbine, and Q_ in = Heat Supplied to the cycle. Proof: The Brayton cycle is a closed-cycle in which the working fluid receives and rejects heat in the same manner.

Rankine cycle, but the working fluid is not water but air. The cycle comprises four basic components: compressor, heat exchanger, turbine, and heat exchanger, with two adiabatic expansion and compression processes. The first process is compression by the compressor.

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4. The following is the pattern of x-rays emitted according to the x-ray tube voltage when the Mo target is used.
1. Why do continuous x-rays occur?
2.Why does the swl move to the left as the tube voltage increases?
3. Why the x-ray intensity increases as the tube voltage increases
4.Why is the x-ray emitted not symmetric?

Answers

1. Continuous x-rays occur when a high energy electron strikes a metal atom in the target, causing the innermost electrons of the atom to be removed from their orbits. This process leaves an electronic vacancy in the inner shell, which can be filled by an electron from an outer shell. When an outer shell electron fills the inner shell vacancy, it releases energy in the form of an x-ray. However, because each electron shell has a different binding energy, the energy of the released x-ray varies.

2. The swl (short wavelength limit) moves to the left as the tube voltage increases because the x-ray energy and wavelength are inversely proportional. When the tube voltage increases, the energy of the emitted x-rays also increases, and the wavelength decreases. the swl shifts to the left on the graph as the tube voltage increases.

3. The x-ray intensity increases as the tube voltage increases because higher tube voltage results in more electron acceleration, which generates more x-rays. When the tube voltage is increased, more electrons are accelerated across the anode, resulting in more x-rays produced and higher x-ray intensity.

4. The x-ray emitted is not symmetric because of the characteristic x-rays and bremsstrahlung x-rays. Characteristic x-rays occur when an electron drops down to fill an inner shell vacancy, releasing energy in the form of an x-ray. The energy of characteristic x-rays is fixed because the energy difference between the two shells is fixed. Bremsstrahlung x-rays, on the other hand, are emitted when an electron is deflected by the positive charge of the nucleus.

The energy of bremsstrahlung x-rays can vary depending on the extent of electron deflection, resulting in a continuous spectrum of x-ray energies. This combination of characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays results in a non-symmetric distribution of x-ray energy.

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The speed of a particle traveling along a straight line within a liquid is measured as a function of its position as v = (130 s) mm/s, where s is in millimeters. Part A Determine the particle's deceleration when it is located at point A, where SA = 90 mm. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. a = -40.0 mm/s²

Answers

To determine the particle's deceleration when it is located at point A, we need to differentiate the velocity function with respect to time. Given that the velocity function is v = (130 s) mm/s, where s is in millimeters:

v = 130s

To find the deceleration, we differentiate the velocity function with respect to time (s):

a = dv/dt = d(130s)/dt

Since the particle is traveling along a straight line within a liquid, we can assume that its velocity is a function of time only.

Differentiating the velocity function, we get:

a = 130 ds/dt

To find the deceleration at point A, where SA = 90 mm, we substitute the position value into the equation:

a = 130 d(90)/dt

Since the position is not given as a function of time, we assume that it is constant at SA = 90 mm.

Therefore, the deceleration at point A is:

a = 130 * 0 = 0 mm/s²

The deceleration at point A is 0 mm/s².

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A 12 1/8 inch hole is drilled 2,652 feet into the earth. Casing that has a 9 3/4 inch outside diameter is run to the bottom of the hole. 62 barrels of a spacer fluid is pumped down the casing and up the space between the casing and the hole. If each joint of casing is 30 feet long. How far out of the drilled hole will the casing be when it is resting on the bottom of the hole? a 89 b 2634 c 30 d 18

Answers

To determine the distance out of the drilled hole the casing will be when it is resting on the bottom of the hole.

Let's begin by identifying the given values before making use of the casing movement calculation. Provided values are:Hole diameter: 12 1/8 inchDistance drilled: 2,652 feetCasing diameter: 9 3/4 inchNumber of barrels of a spacer fluid pumped down the casing: 62Length of each joint of casing: 30 feet Calculation of the casing movementThe first thing to do is to determine the total length of the casing to be run from the surface to the bottom of the drilled hole. The casing will be run in sections of 30 feet length, so the total length of the casing to be run is the quotient of the distance drilled and the length of each joint of casing.

So:Total length of casing = Distance drilled / Length of each joint of casing = 2,652 feet / 30 feet = 88.4 ≈ 89 joints of casingNext, to calculate the length of the space between the casing and the hole, we subtract the diameter of the casing from the diameter of the hole and divide by 2. Then multiply by the number of joints of casing run to the bottom of the hole, and multiply again by 12 to convert feet to inches.So: Length of space between casing and hole = [(12 1/8 inch - 9 3/4 inch) / 2] × 89 × 12= (2 3/8 inch / 2) × 89 × 12= 2.375 × 89 × 12= 2,652 ≈ 2634 inch

Finally, to calculate the distance out of the drilled hole the casing will be when it is resting on the bottom of the hole, we subtract the length of the space between the casing and the hole from the distance drilled. So: Distance out of the drilled hole = Distance drilled - Length of space between casing and hole= 2,652 feet - (2634 inch / 12)= 2,652 feet - 219.5 feet= 2,432.5 feetTherefore, the distance out of the drilled hole the casing will be when it is resting on the bottom of the hole is approximately 2,432.5 feet, which is option C.

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2. Consider a silicon JFET having an n-channel region of donor concentration 1x10¹⁶ cm. (a) Determine the width of the n-channel region for a pinch-off voltage of 12 V. (b) What would the necessary drain voltage (VD) be if the gate voltage is -9 V? (c) Assume the width of the n-channel region to be 40 μm. If no gate voltage is applied, what is the minimum necessary drain voltage for pinch-off to occur? (d) Assume a rectangular n-channel of length 1 mm. What would be the magnitude of the electric field in the channel for case (c) above?

Answers

The electric field in the channel is 12,000 V/m.

a) Pinch off occurs when the VGS = Vp. for silicon JFETs, Vp = |2 |V for n-channel JFETs. The channel width can be determined with the equation W = Φ/Vp, where Φ is the donor concentration in the channel. W = 1x10¹⁶ cm³/V·s/12 V = 8.3×10¹⁴ cm.

b) To maintain pinch-off with VGS = -9 V, the drain voltage (VD) must be greater than or equal to -12 V.

c) For a given channel width, the minimum VD necessary for pinch-off to occur, is Vp or 12 V.

d) The electric field in the channel can be calculated with the equation E = VD/L, where L is the length of the channel. E = 12V/1mm = 12,000 V/m.

Therefore, the electric field in the channel is 12,000 V/m.

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a) (10 pts). Using a decoder and external gates, design the combinational circuit defined by the following three Boolean functions: F1 (x, y, z) = (y'+ x) z F2 (x, y, z) = y'z' + xy + yz' F3 (x, y, z) = x' z' + xy

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Given Boolean functions are:F1 (x, y, z) = (y'+ x) z F2 (x, y, z) = y'z' + xy + yz' F3 (x, y, z) = x' z' + xyThe Boolean function F1 can be represented using the decoder as shown below: The diagram of the decoder is shown below:

As shown in the above figure, y'x is the input and z is the output for this circuit.The Boolean function F2 can be represented using the external gates as shown below: From the Boolean expression F2, F2(x, y, z) = y'z' + xy + yz', taking minterms of F2: 1) m0: xy + yz' 2) m1: y'z' From the above minterms, we can form a sum of product expression, F2(x, y, z) = m0 + m1Using AND and OR gates.

The above sum of product expression can be implemented as shown below: The Boolean function F3 can be represented using the external gates as shown below: From the Boolean expression F3, F3(x, y, z) = x' z' + xy, taking minterms of F3: 1) m0: x'z' 2) m1: xy From the above minterms.

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You have available a set of five links from which you are to design a four-bar mechanism.
The lengths of the links are as follows: L1= 4cm, L2=6cm, L3=8cm, L4=9cm and L5=14cm.
i) Select four links such that the linkage can be driven by a continuous rotation motor.
ii) Draw a freehand sketch of a crank-rocker mechanism that can be achieved using the selected links. Label the link that is to be driven by the motor.
iii) Draw a freehand sketch of a double-crank mechanism that can be achieved using the selected links.

Answers

In this sketch, both Link L2 and Link L3 act as cranks. The motion of the motor (Link L1) will cause both cranks to rotate simultaneously, resulting in the movement of the coupler (Link L5) and the rocker (Link R).

i) To design a four-bar mechanism that can be driven by a continuous rotation motor, we need to select four links such that they form a closed loop. The selected links should have a combination of lengths that allow the mechanism to move smoothly without any interference.

From the given set of link lengths, we can select the following four links:

L1 = 4cm

L2 = 6cm

L3 = 8cm

L5 = 14cm

ii) Drawing a freehand sketch of a crank-rocker mechanism using the selected links:

scss

Copy code

  Motor (Link L1)

    \

     \

 L3   L2

  |     |

  |_____| R (Rocker)

    /

   /

 L5 (Coupler)

In this sketch, the motor (Link L1) is driving the mechanism. Link L2 is the crank, Link L3 is the coupler, and Link L5 is the rocker. The motion of the motor will cause the crank to rotate, which in turn will move the coupler and rocker.

iii) Drawing a freehand sketch of a double-crank mechanism using the selected links:

scss

Copy code

  Motor (Link L1)

    \

     \

 L3   L2

  |     |

  |_____| R (Rocker)

     |

     |

    L5 (Coupler)

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This is the distance between the parallel axes of spur gears or parallel helical gears, or the distance between the crossed axes of helical gears and worm gears. It can be defined also as the distance between the centers of pitch circles. What is this distance? A) Clearance B) Addendum C) Center distance D) Space width

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The distance between the parallel axes of gears or the crossed axes of helical gears and worm gears is known as the "Center distance" (C).

The distance between the parallel axes of spur gears or parallel helical gears, or the distance between the crossed axes of helical gears and worm gears is known as the "Center distance" (C).

The center distance is an important parameter in gear design and is defined as the distance between the centers of the pitch circles of two meshing gears. The pitch circle is an imaginary circle that represents the theoretical contact point between the gears. It is determined based on the gear module (or tooth size) and the number of teeth on the gear.

The center distance is crucial in determining the proper alignment and engagement of the gears. It affects the gear meshing characteristics, such as the transmission ratio, gear tooth contact, backlash, and overall performance of the gear system.

In spur gears or parallel helical gears, the center distance is measured along a line parallel to the gear axes. It determines the spacing between the gears and affects the gear ratio. Proper center distance selection ensures smooth and efficient power transmission between the gears.

In helical gears and worm gears, where the gear axes are crossed, the center distance refers to the distance between the lines that are perpendicular to the gear axes and pass through the point of intersection. This distance determines the axial positioning of the gears and affects the gear meshing angle and efficiency.

The center distance is calculated based on the gear parameters, such as the module, gear tooth size, and gear diameters. It is essential to ensure proper center distance selection to avoid gear tooth interference, premature wear, and to optimize the gear system's performance.

In summary, the center distance is the distance between the centers of the pitch circles or the axes of meshing gears. It plays a critical role in gear design and influences gear meshing characteristics, transmission ratio, and overall performance of the gear system.

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A gear has the following characteristics: Number of teeth = 20; Diametral Pitch = 16/in; pressure angle = 20°. The gear is turning at 50 rpm, and has a bending stress of 20 ksi. How much power (in hp) is the gear transmitting? (Assume velocity factor = 1)

Answers

The gear is transmitting approximately 1.336 hp.

To calculate the power transmitted by the gear, we can use the formula:

Power (in hp) = (Torque × Speed) / 5252

First, let's calculate the torque. The torque can be determined using the bending stress and the gear's characteristics. The formula for torque is:

Torque = (Bending stress × Module × Face width) / (Diametral pitch × Velocity factor)

In this case, the number of teeth (N) is given as 20, and the diametral pitch (P) is given as 16/in. To find the module (M), we can use the formula:

Module = 25.4 / Diametral pitch

Substituting the given values, we find the module to be 1.5875. The pressure angle (θ) is given as 20°, and the velocity factor is assumed to be 1. The face width can be estimated based on the gear's application.

Now, let's calculate the torque:

Torque = (20 ksi × 1.5875 × face width) / (16/in × 1)

Next, we need to convert the torque from inch-pounds to foot-pounds, as the speed is given in revolutions per minute (rpm) and we want the final power result in horsepower (hp). The conversion is:

Torque (in foot-pounds) = Torque (in inch-pounds) / 12

After obtaining the torque in foot-pounds, we can calculate the power:

Power (in hp) = (Torque (in foot-pounds) × Speed (in rpm)) / 5252

Substituting the given values, we find the power to be approximately 1.336 hp.

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A cam follower mechanism with a displacement diagram that has the following sequence, rise 2 mm in 1.2 seconds, dwell for 0.3 seconds, fall 1 r in 0.9 seconds, dwell again for 0.6 seconds and then continue falling for 1 E in 0.9 seconds.
a) The cam rotation angle during the rise is 120.5 degrees.
b) The rotational speed of the cam is 14.38 rpm.
c) The cam rotation angle during the second fall is 82.9 degrees.
d) Both b) and c).
e) None of the above.

Answers

The cam follower mechanism with a displacement diagram that has the following sequence, rise 2 mm in 1.2 seconds, dwell for 0.3 seconds, fall 1 r in 0.9 seconds, dwell again for 0.6 seconds and then continue falling for 1 E in 0.9 seconds can be analyzed as follows:a) To determine the cam rotation angle during the rise, we should know that it took 1.2 seconds to rise 2 mm.

We must first compute the cam's linear velocity during the rise:Linear velocity = (Displacement during the rise) / (Time for the rise)= 2 / 1.2 = 1.67 mm/s Then we can calculate the angle:Cam rotation angle = (Linear velocity * Time) / (Base circle radius)= (1.67 * 1.2) / 10 = 0.2 radian= (0.2 * 180) / π = 11.47 degrees Therefore, the cam rotation angle during the rise is 11.47 degrees. Therefore, option a) is incorrect.b) The rotational speed of the cam can be calculated as follows:Linear velocity = (Displacement during the second fall) / (Time for the second fall)= 1 / 0.9 = 1.11 mm/s

Therefore, the rotational speed of the cam is 71.95 rpm. Therefore, option b) is incorrect.c) To determine the cam rotation angle during the second fall, we should know that it took 0.9 seconds to fall 1 E. We must first compute the cam's linear velocity during the fall:Linear velocity = (Displacement during the fall) / (Time for the fall)= 1 / 0.9 = 1.11 mm/s Then we can calculate the angle:Cam rotation angle = (Linear velocity * Time) / (Base circle radius)= (1.11 * 0.9) / 10 = 0.0999 radians= (0.0999 * 180) / π = 5.73 degrees

Therefore, the cam rotation angle during the second fall is 5.73 degrees. Therefore, option c) is incorrect.Therefore, the answer is option e) None of the above.

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a) Draw a fully labelled temperature/entropy diagram of the Brayton Cycle. (5 Marks) b) Using appropriate thermodynamic terms, explain the Brayton cycle

Answers

It is a method of compressing stress air, adding fuel to the compressed air, igniting the fuel-air mixture, and then expanding the air-fuel mixture to generate power.

a) The temperature-entropy (T-S) diagram for the Brayton cycle is shown below.   In a gas turbine engine, the Brayton cycle is a thermodynamic cycle.

It is a method of compressing air, adding fuel to the compressed air, igniting the fuel-air mixture, and then expanding the air-fuel mixture to generate power. The following are the stages of the cycle: 1. Isentropic compression 2. Isobaric heat addition 3. Isentropic expansion 4. Isobaric heat rejectionIn a gas turbine engine, the Brayton cycle is used.

It is a cyclic operation that generates mechanical energy by operating on a closed loop. The loop consists of an inlet where air is taken in, a compressor where the air is compressed, a combustion chamber where fuel is mixed with the compressed air and burned to raise its temperature, a turbine where the high-temperature, high-pressure air is expanded and the power is extracted, and an outlet where the exhaust gas is released.

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A fuel consist of 87% carbon, 9% hydrogen, 1% sulphur, 1.5% oxygen and the remainder incombustibles. the actual air/fuel ratio is 18,5: 1.calculate mass of oxygen, theoretical mass of air required , mass of excess air , mass of excess air

Answers

1. Theoretical mass of air required is 9.484375 units

2. Actual air/fuel ratio is 0.0948

3. Mass of excess air is 18.4052

How to calculate the value

1. Theoretical mass of air required = Mass of carbon/12 + Mass of hydrogen/4 + Mass of sulphur/32 - Mass of oxygen/32

Theoretical mass of air required = (87/12) + (9/4) + (1/32) - (1.5/32)

Theoretical mass of air required = 7.25 + 2.25 + 0.03125 - 0.046875

Theoretical mass of air required = 9.484375 units

2 Actual air/fuel ratio = Theoretical mass of air required / Total fuel mass

Actual air/fuel ratio = 9.484375 / 100

Actual air/fuel ratio ≈ 0.0948

3 Mass of excess air = Actual air/fuel ratio - Stoichiometric air/fuel ratio (assuming stoichiometric ratio of 18.5)

Mass of excess air = 18.5 - 0.0948

Mass of excess air ≈ 18.4052

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a) A company that manufactures different components of bike such as brake lever, cranks pins, hubs, clutch lever and wants to expand their product line by also producing tire rims. Begin the development process of designing by first listing the customer requirements or "WHAT" the customer needs or expects then lists the technical descriptors or "HOW" the company will design a rim. Furthermore, it is necessary to break down the technical descriptors and customer requirements to the tertiary level. Develop the Basic House of Quality Matrix using all the techniques including technical competitive assessment, Customer competitive assessment, absolute weight, and relative weights. Make reasonable assumptions where required. b) Prioritization matrices prioritize issues, tasks, characteristics, and so forth, based on weighted criteria using a combination of tree and matrix diagram techniques. Once prioritized, effective decisions can be made. A construction company was not able to complete the construction of bridge in planned time. The main causes of failure may include the people, machines, or systems. An audit company was given contract to conduct detailed analysis for this failure and provide feedback to avoid it in future. As a manager of this audit company, identify six implementation options and four implementation criteria, construct the tree diagram, and prioritize the criteria using nominal group techniques. Rank order the options in terms of importance by each criterion. Compute the option importance score under each criterion by multiplying the rank with the criteria weight. Develop the prioritization matrices.
15+15=30

Answers

a) Customer Requirements:The customer expects the following features in the bike tire rim:Durability: Tire rim must be strong enough to withstand rough terrain and last long.Aesthetics: Rim should look attractive and appealing to the eye.Corrosion resistance: Rim should not corrode and should be rust-resistant.Weighting Factors:The relative weight of durability is 0.35, aesthetics is 0.30 and corrosion resistance is 0.35. Technical Descriptors:The following technical descriptors will be used to design the rim:Diameter:

The diameter of the rim should be between 26-29 inches to fit standard bike tires.Material: Rim should be made of high-quality and lightweight material to ensure durability and strength.Weight: Weight of the rim should not be too high or too low.Spokes: Rim should have adequate spokes for strength and durability.Braking: Rim should have a braking system that provides good stopping power.Rim tape:

Rim tape should be strong enough to handle the high pressure of the tire.Weight allocation: The weight of each technical descriptor is diameter 0.10, material 0.30, weight 0.20, spokes 0.15, braking 0.10, and rim tape 0.15. Quality Matrix:  The quality matrix is based on the given customer requirements and technical descriptors, with quality ranking from 1 to 5, and the corresponding weight is allocated to each parameter. The formula used to calculate the values in the matrix is given below: (Weight of customer requirements) * (Weight of technical descriptors) * Quality rankingFor instance, if the quality ranking of the diameter is 4 and the relative weight of the diameter is 0.1, the value of the quality matrix is (0.35) * (0.10) * 4 = 0.14.

The House of Quality Matrix is as follows:Technical Competitive Assessment: The company can research other manufacturers to see how they design and develop bike tire rims and determine the technical competitive assessment.Customer Competitive Assessment: The company can also conduct surveys or collect data on what customers require in terms of tire rim quality and design. Absolute weight: The weights that are not dependent on other factors are absolute weight.Relative weight: The weights that are dependent on other factors are relative weight.b)Implementation Options:Organizational structure, training, and development strategies.Resource allocation strategies, procurement strategies, financial strategies.Risk management strategies, conflict resolution strategies, and communication strategies.Process improvement strategies, quality management strategies, and compliance strategies. Implementation Criteria: Cost,

Time, Effectiveness, and Customer satisfaction. Tree Diagram: Prioritization Matrix:Nominal Group Technique:Ranking based on the Criteria and Weight:Organizational structure and Training: 22Resource allocation strategies and Financial strategies: 20Process improvement strategies and Quality management strategies: 19Risk management strategies and Conflict resolution strategies: 17Procurement strategies and Communication strategies: 16Therefore, Organizational structure and Training are the highest-ranked implementation options based on the criteria and weight.

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Consider a 210-MW steam power plant that operates on a simple ideal Rankine cycle. Steam enters the turbine at 10MPa and 5008C and is cooled in the condenser at a pressure of 10kPa. Sketch the cycle on a T-s diagram with respect to saturation lines, and determine: (a) the quality of the steam at the turbine exit, (b) the thermal efficiency of the cycle, (c) the mass flow rate of the steam. (d) Repeat Prob. (a)-(c) assuming an isentropic efficiency of 85 percent for both the turbine and the pump.

Answers

Given data:Pressure of steam entering turbine (P1) = 10 MPaTemperature of steam entering turbine (T1) = 500 degree CPressure of steam at the condenser (P2) = 10 kPaPower generated (W) = 210 MWNow, let's draw the T-s diagram with respect to saturation lines below:

1. The quality of steam at the turbine exit:From the T-s diagram, we can see that at the turbine exit, the state point lies somewhere between the two saturation lines.Using the steam tables, we can find the saturation temperature and pressure at the exit state:Pressure at the exit (P3) = 10 kPaSaturated temperature corresponding to P3 = 46.9 degree CEnthalpy of saturated liquid corresponding to P3 (h_f) = 191.81 kJ/kgEnthalpy of saturated vapor corresponding to P3 (h_g) = 2676.5 kJ/kgThe quality of steam (x) at the exit state is given by:x = (h - h_f)/(h_g - h_f)Where, h is the specific enthalpy at the exit state.

h = 191.81 + x(2676.5 - 191.81)h = 191.81 + 2421.69x= (h - h_f)/(h_g - h_f)x = (191.81 + 2421.69 - 191.81)/(2676.5 - 191.81)x = 0.91The quality of steam at the turbine exit is 0.91.2. Thermal efficiency of the cycle:For an ideal Rankine cycle, thermal efficiency is given by:eta_th = 1 - (T2/T1)Where, T2 and T1 are the temperatures of the steam at the condenser and the turbine inlet respectively.

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A particle P has velocity:
v(t) = 5 + 3t a) Find the acceleration of the particle
b) Express position (x) as a function of time given the initial condition given the initial condition x(0) = 3m (4) c) Find the distance traversed by the particle in the first 5 seconds of its motion

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The particle has an acceleration of 3 m/s^2. Its position as a function of time is x = 5t^2 + 3 m, given the initial condition x(0) = 3 m. The distance traversed by the particle in the first 5 seconds is 75 m.

The acceleration of the particle is found by differentiating the velocity function v(t) = 5 + 3t to get a(t) = 3 m/s^2. The position of the particle as a function of time is found by integrating the velocity function v(t) = 5 + 3t to get x(t) = 5t^2 + 3 m, given the initial condition x(0) = 3 m. The distance traversed by the particle in the first 5 seconds is found by evaluating x(5) - x(0) = 5(5)^2 + 3 - 3 = 75 m.

a) Find the acceleration of the particle

a(t) = v'(t) = 3

b) Express position (x) as a function of time given the initial condition given the initial condition x(0) = 3m

x(t) = ∫ v(t) dt = ∫ (5 + 3t) dt = 5t^2 + 3 m

The initial condition x(0) = 3 m is used to evaluate the constant of integration.

c) Find the distance traversed by the particle in the first 5 seconds of its motion

x(5) - x(0) = 5(5)^2 + 3 - 3 = 75 m

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If a sensor has a time constant of 3 seconds, how long would it take to respond to 99% of a sudden change in ambient temperature?

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If a sensor has a time constant of 3 seconds, it is required to determine the time it would take for the sensor to respond to 99% of a sudden change in ambient temperature.

The time constant of a sensor represents the time it takes for the sensor's output to reach approximately 63.2% of its final value in response to a step change in input. In this case, the time constant is given as 3 seconds. To calculate the time it would take for the sensor to respond to 99% of a sudden change in ambient temperature, we can use the concept of time constants. Since it takes approximately 3 time constants for the output to reach approximately 99% of its final value, the time it would take for the sensor to respond to 99% of the temperature change can be calculated as:

Time = 3 × Time Constant

Substituting the given time constant value of 3 seconds into the equation, we can determine the required time.

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Course: Power Generation and Control
Please ASAP I will like and rate your work.
if we impose a transmission line limit of 500 MW on line 1-3, a new constraint should be added as 500 MW = (Base Power)*(01-03)/X13- Select one: O True O False

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A new constraint should be added as 500 MW = (Base Power)*(01-03)/X13 when a transmission line limit of 500 MW is imposed on line 1-3.

A transmission line limit is the maximum amount of power that can be transmitted through a transmission line. The transmission line's capacity is determined by the line's physical attributes, such as length, voltage, and current carrying capacity.

Transmission lines are the backbone of the electrical grid, allowing electricity to be transported over long distances from power plants to where it is required. The transmission line limits must be properly managed to prevent overloading and blackouts.

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2) The commutation interval in controlled and uncontrolled rectifier circuits: a) is resulted from the highly inductive loads. b) is resulted from the series inductance of the source. e) reduces the average value of the output voltage.s d) all of the above. e) b+c. f) atc. 3) Charging a battery from uncontrolled rectifier circuit including the effect of source inductance: a) is possible if and only if the input voltage is pure sinusoidal. b) is possible with never pure sinusoidal charging current. c) is impossible as battery must receive DC voltage. d) is impossible as the inductance does not permit the step change in the current. e) none of the above f) a+b. 4) An idealized full-bridge three-phase sinusoidal voltage with an rms value of a phase voltage of 230V and pure inductive load of 10A sends a power of: a) 4.00 kW. b) 2.35 kW. v₂1:35 236 *√3 5.38 kW. 3.105 kW. 9.32 kW. none of the above. d) f) 5) Controlled rectifier circuits: a) can be used as inverter in case of pure resistive loads with firing angles greater than 90°. b) use thyristors as power semiconductors devices. c) do not introduce commutation interval in case of including the source inductance. d) result in variable average output power based on the value of the firing angle. e) a+b. f) b+d.

Answers

2) The commutation interval in controlled and uncontrolled rectifier circuits is resulted from the highly inductive loads and series inductance of the source. The correct option is (e) b+c. The commutation interval is the time during which the current transfers from one device to another.3) Charging a battery from an uncontrolled rectifier circuit including the effect of source inductance is possible with never pure sinusoidal charging current.

The correct option is (b).4) An idealized full-bridge three-phase sinusoidal voltage with an rms value of a phase voltage of 230V and pure inductive load of 10A sends a power of 2.35 kW. The correct option is (b).P = √3*Vph*Iph*cosϕ= √3*230*10*cos90= 2.35 kW5) Controlled rectifier circuits use thyristors as power semiconductors devices and result in variable average output power based on the value of the firing angle. The correct option is (f) b+d.

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24. Can you recall the 5 process phases of a 4 returns project in their right order? Scout & Initiate, Implementation, Co-design & Co-develop, Adapt & Sustain, Scale & Replicate Scout & Initiate, Co-design & Co-develop, Adapt & Sustain, Implementation, Scale & Replicate Scout & Initiate, Co-design & Co-develop, Implementation, Adapt & Sustain, Scale & Replicate Scout & Initiate, Co-design & Co-develop, Scale & Replicate, Implementation, Adapt & Sustain 25. What are the most important outcomes of the Scout & Initiate and Co-design & Co-develop phases? Click all answers that apply. Situation analysis & Stakeholder analysis Defining Common intent & Common theory of change Collaborative action on the ground & action plans to pilot the landscape interventions Landscape analysis & future scenarios (integrated intervention plan for the landscape) Please answer asapQuestion 5 6 pts Warm water enters a cooling tower at 36C at a mass flow rate of 57.1 kg/s. The air entering at state 1 has h = 45.2 kJ/kg da and W = 0.006 kg v/kg da. The air leaving the cooling tower at state 2 has h = 103.4 kJ/kg da and w = 0.029 kg v/kg da. The make up water is supplied at 25C and the mass flow rate of dry air is 45.1 kg da/s. What is the temperature of the cooled water leaving the tower? Express your answer in C. 2. The patient has signs of pellagra, symmetrical dermatitis on the rear surface of the hand, neck, face, stomatitis. The patient complains of nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, lack of appetite, headaches, dizziness, depression.a) what vitamin deficiencies cause these symptoms?b) what coenzyme synthesis is reduced in this situation? victor chooses a code that consists of 4 4 digits for his locker. the digits 0 0 through 9 9 can be used only once in his code. what is the probability that victor selects a code that has four even digits? Need these two questions please and round all sides and anglesto 2 decimal places.Right Triangleb=4, A=35. Find a,c, and BOblique TriangleA = 60, B =100, a = 5. Find b, c, and C Some B-cells stay in the medullary cords, where they differentiate into plasma cells under the influence of the cytokines ___________________and ___________ secreted from ________. Light of frequency fis incident on a metal surface. The work function of the metal is p. Which of the following is the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted from the surface? Select one: O a. hf-p O b. (h/e)(p-1)- OC None of them. O d. (h/e)(f-p) O e. p-hf One of the ways to test yourself on your mastery of complex topics is to try to communicate effectively and succinctly to somebody who has no background in your topic of interest. Each week you will be provided with a prompt and you will give a brief oral presentation (no longer than three minutes) as if you were teaching the topic of interest to your 10 year old niece or your 95 year old grandfather. You are welcome to use diagrams or sketches to help illustrate concepts. You will use screen-cast-o-matic to record your presentations, which will be viewed by classmates and graded by the instructor.Your weekly presentation will be evaluated by your peers, but will ultimately be graded by the course instructor. A portion of your grade will be based on the feedback that you provided to your peers, so be sure to provide meaningful feedback to classmates.Blood pressure prompt:You are chatting with your uncle at a family reunion and he mentions that he is being treated for high blood pressure, but that hes not convinced his doctor "knows what shes talking about". Your uncle is very upset that he has been advised to restrict salt intake, lose weight, and commit to at least thirty minutes of exercise every day. He thinks the doctor is overreacting and that his heightened blood pressure is "no big deal". How would you explain the internal control of blood pressure, and how would you relate the recommended lifestyle changes to what you know of blood pressure homeostatic control mechanisms to your uncle?Peer Response Guidelines:Keep in mind the following questions when providing peer feedback:Are all portions of the presentation correct? Did your classmate answer the prompt as provided in the assignment?Is the presentation complete? Is there anything important that you think they should have addressed?What did you find especially well done about your classmates presentation? Design a square tied column to carry a dead load of 1100 kN and live load of 1000 kN. The column has an unsupported length of 2.5 m. Use fc = 21MPa, fy = 414 MPa, 0 32 mm bars and 0 10 mm ties. Sketch reinforcement detail. Adopt data in Prob. 1 but design a spiral column. Lu = 2.2 m. Sketch reinforcement detail, plan and elevation view. Elevation view is similar to tied column but spiral ties are used instead of lateral ties. Investigate the column designed in Prob. 1. Adopt same data. 'Hint: Compare applied load versus capacity. Recompute pg = As/Ag) ote: Always round up no. of bars obtained to an even number for symmetry about one axis. Ex. n = 9 - use 10 n = 11 - use 12n = 13 - use 14 A rectangular channel discharges water at the rate of 4.5 cu.m./s at a depth of 32 cm. The flume is 3.5 m wide. What is the depth of the jump? Select one: O a. 83.9 cm O b. 87.9 cm O c. 85.9 cm O d. 81.9 cm Consider palletizer at a bottling plant that has a first cost of $152,731, has operating and maintenance costs of $16,360 per year, and an estimated net salvage value of $70,452 at the end of 30 years. Assume an interest rate of 8%. What is the future worth of this project? Enter your answer as follow: 123456.78 Overloading a single-phase motor will result in:Select one:a.no effects, the motor runs normallyb.overheating the motorc.damaging the motor permanentlyd.Nonee.using a fan for cooling General Directions: This test is comprised of several different types of questions. Read the specific directions for each section before attempting to answer the questions within that section. Also, be sure to read each question carefully before marking your answer. True False; Some of the statements listed below are True and some are False. If the statement is True, darken circle "A" in the appropriate space on your answer sheet. If the statement is False, darken circle "B" in the appropriate space on your answer sheet. 2. 3. 1. Changes in technology cause only small differences in manufacturing. Setup time is the time required to get a machine ready for manufacturing. The manufacturing process dictates the product to be manufactured. The first process segment is production. 4. 5. Aircraft production is an example of Engineer to Order production strategy. The line manufacturing system has three distinguishing characteristics. 6. 7. In the input-output model tooling is considered to be an input. 8. Job shops are distinguished by large production numbers. 9. Market research is the last step of the product development cycle. 10. A real-time controller is a controller that is able to respond to the process within a short enough time. That process performance is not degraded. 11. An interlock is a safeguard mechanism for coordinating the activities of two or more devices preventing one device from interfering with the others. 12. In computer process control, pulling refers to the real-time sampling of data which continuously monitors the process. 13. In 1962 the first industrial robot was installed on a production line by General Motors. 14. A book titled "Cybernetics" describes the concept of communication and control 15. In 1959 Planet Corporation marketed the first commercially available robot. 16. A robot program can be defined as a path in space to be followed by the manipulator, combined with the peripheral action to support the work cycle. 17. A logic control system is a switching system whose output at any moment is determined exclusively by the values of the current inputs. 18. A flexible manufacturing system (FMS) does not rely on the principles of group technology. 19. An intelligent robot is one that exhibits behavior that makes it seem intelligent. 20. In regulatory control the objective is to maintain process performance at a certain level or within a given tolerance band of that level. 21. A discrete variable is one that can take on only certain values within a given range. 22. A fundamental objective of CAD/CAM is to integrate the design engineering and manufacturing engineering functions. 23. Manual and computer-assisted port programming does not require a high degree of formal documentation. genetics (transcription & translation) Genetics (Transcription & translation) a) A section of DNA has the following sequence of bases along it: ATG CGC CGT ATC. What will be the complimentary mRNA base sequence? (1 mark) A. TAC GCG GCA UAG out of B. UAC GCG GCA UAG C. TAC GCG GCA UGA TAC GCG GCA TAG D. b) A section of RNA has the following sequence of bases along it: AUG CGC CGU AUC. What will be the complimentary base RNA sequence? (1 mark) A. TAC GCG GCG UAG B. UAC GCG GCA UAG C. TAC GCG GCG UGA D. TAC GCG GCG TAG c) Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome during the process of translation? (1 mark) A. Ribosomal RNA (TRNA) B. Transfer RNA (TRNA) C. Messenger RNA (mRNA) D. Single stranded RNA (SSRNA) d) Amylase is a digestive enzyme which digests starch. It is a polypeptide chain containing 369 amino acids. Calculate the minimum length of the DNA base (2 sequence required to code for amylase. Show your working. marks) Course: Structure Repair(Aircraft)1.For structure repair, the lowest allowable load is the most critical. Which category of load out of these four, bearing, shear, tear-out and tension is anticipated to be critical? 2. Why it is need the above allowable load to be most critical? Explain. 8. Stages through which groups progress: (2 Points) a.Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning b.Forming, performing, storming, norming, and adjourning c.Forming, norming, storming, performing, and adjourning d.Performing, Forming, storming, norming, and adjourning If bacteria produce superoxide dismutase, we would expect it tobe made at ribosomes.a) Trueb) False -j40I2 +j120+5I2-15I1+15I2+10I2=0Solve for I2 given that I1 = 6amps. I2 should be in rectangularform What differentiates adaptive immunity from innate immunity? (select two answers)1) Adaptive immunity is a response to a specific pathogen whereas innate immunity is a response to a pathogen-associated pattern.2) Innate immunity is a response to a specific pathogen whereas adaptive immunity is a response to a pathogen-associated pattern.3) The adaptive immune response is more vigorous on repeated exposure to the same pathogen.4) The innate immune response is more vigorous on repeated exposure to the same pathogen.5) Adaptive immunity acts much faster than innate immunity. Needing 2-3 sentencesDescribe your current personal view on the relationship betweenscience and faith. Be sure to include any qualifiers or limits thatmay exist within your personal view.