Anatomical planes are depictions of four nonexistent planes (middle, sagittal, coronal, level) going through the body in the physical position.
Anatomical Planes in a Human: There are three fundamental planes in zoological life structures: sagittal, coronal, and cross-over. A human in the physical position can be portrayed utilizing a direction framework with the Z-pivot heading from front to back, the X-hub going from left to right, and the Y-hub going from up to down.
There are three planes of the body: The coronal (front-facing) plane: isolates the front (foremost) and back (back) of the body. Sagittal (longitudinal) plane: isolates the left and right sides of the body.
The five districts of the body are the head, neck, middle, furthest points, and lower limits. The body is additionally partitioned by three nonexistent planes known as the sagittal plane, coronal plane, and cross-over plane. The sagittal plane runs upward and partitions the body into both ways segments.
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You will frequently be looking at the flat surface of a slice created by cutting through the body or a body portion when studying the body or organs. These portions are created along predetermined planes.
The transverse, sagittal, and frontal planes are well defined and are perpendicular to one another. Body planes are hypothetical surfaces that go through the body and divide it into various pieces (a plane is a flat, two-dimensional surface). Using the planes as anchor points within the anatomical position, we can discuss a specific area. The human body contains an endless number of planes that extend in all directions.
In an upright human, the transverse plane is parallel and the median and coronal planes are at right angles to it.
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Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages
Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health
Option D, The Energy Policy Act of 1992 required the federal government to list stationary or mobile energy usage source pollutants that could endanger public health. This statement is true.
The Energy Policy Act of 1992 was a federal law that aimed to reduce the country's dependence on foreign oil, increase the use of alternative energy sources, and improve the efficiency of energy usage. The act set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels. Energy Policy Act of 1992 also established a reserve of oil in the United States energy usage in order to prevent gasoline shortages. However, it did not require the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project. The Energy Policy Act of 1992 had a wide range of provisions that aimed to address various aspects of the energy usage industry and it's consumption.
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Answer:
Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health
Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project
Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
Explanation:
Answer:
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
Which of the following would be active if you have just had an automobile accident?
sympathetic nervous system will be active if you had an automobile accident.
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system and also parasympathetic nervous system, it also consists of nerve fibers leading to or originating from the brain and spinal and has neuronal cell bodies in form of ganglia.
location is near the thoracic and lumbar regions in the spinal cord.
They provide localized adjustments such as the sweating of a person as response to heat, they also control voluntary and automatic physical reactions.
under stress condition, responsible for flight and fight response for an individual and also releases epinephrine from adernal cortex.
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Which statement about the relationship between economics and the
environment is true?
O Long-term effects often receive more weight than short-term effects.
O Internal and external environmental costs are usually considered equally.
OHarm to the environment can harm economies.
O The relationship usually receives serious consideration.
if we consider all the given options, the third one suits much above all as we all know the economy is run by the environment directly or indirectly.
the economy is run by the products we get from the environment so both have interrelation between them if the environment is harmed it will affect the economy because we get everything from the environment that we introduce to the economy so they have a link between them .environment fulfills our basic to professional needs we must keep the environment safe and maintain the balance among both of them.
ppplleaseee answerrr
Answer:
The answer is B!
Explanation:
The autonomic nervous system, also called the visceral efferent nervous system, supplies motor impulses to cardiac muscle, to smooth muscle, and to glandular epithelium.
Alzheimer's disease is a degenerative brain disorder that affects more than 4 million
Americans. Neuroscientists have many theories about the causes of Alzheimer's and are
searching for clues as to causes of the neuronal destruction of the brain in this disease.
Which of the following factors would not contribute to a loss of brain function?
A. stroke
B. aging
C. head trauma
D. arthritis
E. clogged arteries
Answer:
D . arthritis.........
Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following EXCEPT:
Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following except sodium metabisulfite test
Hb electrophoresis is a blood test performed to check the types of hemoglobin in the blood. The purpose of Hb electrophoresis is to diagnose hemoglobin disorders. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that functions to transport oxygen to all organs and tissues of the body. This blood test is done by taking a blood sample and then analyzing it in the laboratory.
The sodium metabisulfite test is used to determine the content of sodium metabisulfite in the blood. Sodium metabisulfite is an inorganic food preservative and water-soluble anti-oxidant for food to inhibit browning reactions. These preservatives can cause digestive problems, such as diarrhea, stomach cramps, nausea, and skin allergies. .
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Which feature is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor? a. The genetic code b. The machinery of replication and protein synthesis c. Basic metabolic reactions d. The use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins e. All of the above
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The feature that is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor, is The genetic code (Option A)
The genetic code is the set of rules by which DNA and RNA translate into the amino acid sequences of proteins. This code is universal, meaning that the same sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA will always code for the same amino acid sequence in a protein, regardless of the organism in which it is found. This universality is strong evidence for a common ancestor from which all living things have evolved.
The machinery of replication and protein synthesis, basic metabolic reactions, and the use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins also support the idea of a common ancestor but are not as strong evidence as the genetic code.
TRUE OR FALSE when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms producer and primary consumer are interchangeable as long as the organisms both produce and consume biomass.
The statement given is False. It's false that when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass.
When modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass. The trophic structure is principally defined as biomass partitioning between trophic situations. Biodiversity is the principle of all the different kinds of life we will find in one area — the variety of creatures, shops, fungi, and microorganisms like bacteria that make up our natural world.
Primary consumers produce the alternate trophic position. They also eat primary directors — shops or algae — and nothing differently. Hence, it's false that when modeling a trophic structure in a region of great biodiversity, the terms patron and primary consumer are exchangeable as long as the organisms produce and consume biomass.
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looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above, which of the following is a true statement?
Looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above this is the statement, a backbone is a shared ancestral character in mammals (leopard).
phylogeny can be defined as the evolutionary history of a species or group of species and a phylogenetic tree will give an idea out the history and classification of an organism.
A character which is originated in an ancestor of the taxon, the shared character itself describes the relationship between the ancestor and the current generation, in the same way mammals share the backbone among themselves.
shared character means, they are excellent traits to use in developing a phylogeny and a phylogenetic tree from the ancestors
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if no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?
Option E is correct: 1, 2, 3, and 4 will all expand. Because the plasmid conferred ampicillin resistance and allowed the bacteria to utilize lactose.
The presence of a functional +lac gene on the plasmid was irrelevant because glucose was present in all cases, hence lactose was not exploited as a tool of selection. In this experiment, only ampicillin resistance was used as a mechanism of selection, which is why #5 and #6 were susceptible.
There are no significant effects on final protein function or final characteristic. This, in turn, has neither negative or good consequences for the organism's general well-being or survival.
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Full Question ;
If no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?
1. 4 and 6 only
2. 4, 5 and 6 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 2 only
5. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Over time, bacteria have become increasingly resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following best explains this in terms of natural selection?Bacteria that happen to have natural resistance to antibiotics survived and reproduced.
The survival and reproduction of bacteria that have a built-in resistance to antibiotics. When bacteria, fungus, and other microorganisms learn to resist the medications meant to kill them, its antimicrobial resistance.
Because of this, the bacteria survive and develop. Treatment options for resistant illnesses can be limited or perhaps unavailable. Antimicrobial resistance mechanisms can be divided into four major groups: (1) reducing drug uptake; (2) altering drug targets; (3) inactivating drugs; and (4) active drug efflux. Use of antibiotics is the primary contributor to antibiotic resistance. Some bacteria die when we take antibiotics, but bacteria that are resistant can live and even proliferate. Antibiotic resistance microorganisms are more prevalent as a result of misuse.
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two genes, a and b, assort independently. what will be the most likely genotype proportions of the progeny from the following cross? a/a b/b x a/a b/b (capital letters represent the dominant phenotype conferred by each gene.)
The genes or alleles that sort into newly produced gametes independently of one another are referred to as independent assortment. The autonomous division of chromosomes into different gametes results in this independent assortment.
Keep in mind that crossing over occurs when genes on each chromosome are altered. According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles from two (or more) distinct genes are sorted into gametes independently of one another. In other words, the allele received by a gamete for one gene has no effect on the allele received for another gene. When genes are discovered on multiple chromosomes or at different locations on the same chromosome, they assort independently and are referred to as unlinked.
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which of the following correctly identifies the difference between the offspring of prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic cells?
The difference between the offspring of prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic cells is that Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bounded nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do not have such a nucleus.
On Earth, there are two distinct types of cells: prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The primary difference between the two is that eukaryote have a distinct nucleus that houses the cell nucleus.
In contrast, prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and have genetic material that is free to move around the cell. The ribosomes are larger, more complex, and membrane-bound in eukaryotic cells.
They can be present in various locations, such as the nuclear membrane, the endoplasmic reticulum, and occasionally in the cytoplasm (covering the nucleus).
Ribosomes are dispersed and free to float in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells have ribosomes containing smaller subunits as well.
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Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bounded nucleus, whereas eukaryotic cells do not have such a nucleus. This is the distinction between prokaryotic cells and their offspring.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are the two main types of cells found on Earth. Eukaryotes have a unique nucleus that houses the cell nucleus, which is the main distinction between the two.Prokaryotic cells, in contrast, are devoid of a nucleus and have freely movable genetic material. In eukaryotic cells, the ribosomes are bigger, more intricate, and membrane-bound.They can be found in a variety of places, including the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and the nuclear membrane (covering the nucleus). The cytoplasm of ribosomes is scattered and free to float. bacterial cells. Ribosomes in prokaryotic organisms also contain smaller subunits.
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Turtles are not shown on this tree. Turtles are evolutionarily more closely related to lizards than they are to frogs.
Select the phylogenetic tree that best represents the position of turtles relative to the other taxa shown.
As turtle more closely related to lizard it will have most recent common ancestor with lizard, chimps and humans and hence it will form monophyletic group with them. So, Pic 4 is correct.
A taxonomy is a system of categorization, particularly one that is hierarchical and divides objects into categories or types. A taxonomy can be used, among other things, to index and organise knowledge, such as in the form of a search engine taxonomy or a library categorization system, so that users can more quickly discover the material they're looking for. Although not all taxonomies are hierarchies, many are.
As members of the Testudines order of reptiles, turtles are distinguished by a distinctive shell that was mostly constructed from their ribs. The two main subgroups of modern turtles, the Pleurodira and Cryptodira, are distinguished by the manner in which the head retracts.
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7. Which statement BEST explains why enzymes bind to
specific substrates?
A. An enzyme can be inhibited so its active site is
altered.
B. An enzyme folds differently in the presence of
different substrates.
c. Different amino acid sequences cause variations in
the shapes of an enzyme's active sites.
D. Enzyme-substrate binding is based on size so only
large enzymes can bind to large substrates.
An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.
Why do enzymes bind to specific substrates?An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.A protein molecule known as an enzyme serves as a catalyst in biological processes.It accomplishes this by operating on a substrate unique to its form.The enzyme-substrate complex is created when the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.The product then separates from the enzyme molecule, signaling the end of the process.After that, the enzyme is free to interact with new substrate molecules. Having an active site that only permits specific substrates to bind to it, enzymes are specific to the substrates they bind to.The active site's design prevents other substrates from attaching to it, which is why this occurs.The shape of the enzyme modifies somewhat as substrate molecules bind to its active site.To learn more about enzymes refer
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All life begins as ______ cell.
For ____________ organisms, this single cell will undergo rapid ____________ and divide over and over again until it becomes an adult body.
As the cells divide, these replicates of the original cell will receive signals from the environment and turn on ____________ pathways that instruct the cells to turn on certain sets of genetic instructions and turn off others.
In doing so, the cells become ____________ , which allows tissues and organs to form and have specific roles within the body.
All life begins as a single cell.
For multicellular organisms, this single cell will undergo rapid cell division and divide over and over again until it becomes an adult body.
As the cells divide, these replicates of the original cell will receive signals from the environment and turn on differentiation pathways that instruct the cells to turn on certain sets of genetic instructions and turn off others.
In doing so, the cells become specialized, which allows tissues and organs to form and have specific roles within the body.
Thus, the cells proceed to divide and differentiate, and they ultimately form the complex structures and systems of the adult organism, such as the nervous system, the circulatory system, and the immune system.
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Place the following steps in order to describe gene expression in cellsDrag the text blocks below into their correct order.The protein chain and mRNA molecule break off from the ribosomeThe amino acids bond together to form a growing protein chain.The protein chain is further modified and the mRNA strand is used again.DNA within the nucleus serves as a templatemRNA is processed before leaving the nucleus to a ribosome within the cytoplasmtRNAs carry amino acids to the mRNA
The steps in order to describe gene expression in cells:
1. DNA within the nucleus serves as a template.
2. mRNA is processed before leaving the nucleus to a ribosome within the cytoplasm
3. tRNA carries amino acids to mRNA
4. The amino acids bond together to form a growing protein chain
5. The protein chain and mRNA molecule break off from the ribosome.
6. The protein chain is further modified and the mRNA strand is used again.
Most genes contаin the informаtion needed to mаke functionаl molecules cаlled proteins. А few genes produce regulаtory molecules thаt help the cell аssemble proteins. The journey from gene to protein is complex аnd tightly controlled within eаch cell. It consists of two mаjor steps: trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion. Together, trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion аre known аs gene expression.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.
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What was Dr. Kettlewell's conclusion on his experiment with bird predation on the moths?
He discovered that birds were twice as likely to eat a bright moth as a dark insect on dark tree trunks.
Who was Dr. Kettlewell?If the tree's bark was light, the same birds would notice the dark moth twice as frequently. This provided evidence in favor of the hypothesis that dark moths would fare better in a dark forest.
In the middle of the 1950s, Kettlewell conducted a biological experiment to investigate the peppered moth's industrial melanism's evolutionary mechanism.
The investigation revealed that birds hunt on peppered moths selectively depending on their body color in relation to their background surroundings.
Therefore, He discovered that birds were twice as likely to eat a bright moth as a dark insect on dark tree trunks.
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PLEASE HELP I HAVE A PICTURE
Answer:
RISES ABOVE
Explanation:
When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the oceanic crust will always subduct under the continental crust; this is because oceanic crust is naturally denser. Convergent boundaries are commonly associated with larger earthquakes and higher volcanic activity.
PLEASE MARK ME AS A BRILLIANT
1. If you started with a fossil sample that has 2000 grams of potassium 40, how much would be left after 4 half-lives?
My answer: After 1st half-life: 1000 after a 2nd: 500 after a 3rd: 250 after a 4th: 125
2. How many years would you need to wait for those 4 half-lives to occur in problem a?
3. Scientists found a layer of rock with a very old trilobite fossil. They tested the rock layer and found that there was only 12.5% of the original Uranium-235 in it. How old is this trilobite?
A fossil has the sample that containing 2000 grams of k+ 40 in the beginning will contain 12.5 grams or potassium 40 during four half lifetimes, or 5200 million years.
What is fossil?The preserved remnants of the organisms and plants that has submerged in the sediments like the sand and the mud just beneath the ancient seas, lakes, as well as the rivers are known as fossils.
Any preserved sign of the life that has seems to be typically older than 10,000 years is considered a fossil. Erosion, which is made up of tiny rocks, bury this.
Therefore, A fossil has the sample that containing 2000 grams of k+ 40 in the beginning will contain 12.5 grams or potassium 40 during four half lifetimes, or 5200 million years.
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Choose the statement that best describes the method of cytotoxic T cell-mediated killing of a target cell. a.) agglutination b.) Opsonization c.) Apoptosis
Apoptosis best describes the method of killing a target cell by cytotoxic T cells.
Cytotoxic T cells use their effector chemicals to kill infected host and tumor cells. As a result, the statement best describes the functions of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. A cytotoxic T cell is activated by interacting with antigen-presenting cells and receiving signals from helper T cells.
(A-pop-TOH-sis) A type of cell death in which a cell dies as a result of a series of molecular steps. This is one way the body gets rid of unwanted or abnormal cells. Cancer cells may be unable to undergo apoptosis. Also known as programmed cell death. In multicellular organisms, apoptosis is a type of programmed cell death. Biochemical events cause distinct cell changes and death. Blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, DNA fragmentation, and mRNA decay are examples of these changes.
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If a person had mutation which caused a shape and function change of DNA polymerase so that it had decreased repair activity, which of the following would y expect to happen? More: A. mutations B. free radicals C. gene expression D. replication
If a person had mutation which caused a shape and function change of DNA polymerase so that it had decreased repair activity, option A: mutations would consequently be likely to happen.
Mutations occur as a result of either errors in DNA replication or the harmful effects of mutagens, such as chemicals and radiation, which react with DNA and change the structures of individual nucleotides. So, if a person who had mutation it its DNA polymerase, DNA replication would not occur effectively, leading to mutations. Therefore, option A is the right choice.
Each organism's DNA sequence is unique. Its base-pair sequence can change from time to time. It is known as a mutation. A mutation can cause changes in the proteins that are translated by the DNA. Cells can usually recognize and repair any mutation-induced damage before it becomes permanent. A mutation is a sudden, heritable change in an organism's characteristics. Mutagens are factors that contribute to mutations.
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How did Jenner form his hypothesis?
Jenner formed his hypothesis by basing his hypothesis on prior knowledge of smallpox which is therefore denoted as option B.
What is Hypothesis?This is part of the scientific process which is denoted as being a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
Edward Jenner's smallpox inoculation experiment was based on an observation by a dairymaid that she could not get smallpox because she already had it and Jenner's knowledge of the virus made him to propose a hypothesis stating what would happen if he deliberately innoculated someone with cowpox fluid from another person.
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The question is:
How did Jenner form his hypothesis?
He based his hypothesis on prior knowledge of smallpox.
He based his hypothesis on a statement made by a dairymaid.
He based his hypothesis on an observation made during a prior experiment.
He based his hypothesis on the relationship between cowpox and smallpox.
which of the statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis? mitosis usually produces two daughter cells while meiosis usually produces four cells. in mitosis there is one cell division while in meiosis there are two cell divisions. homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis but not in mitosis. the products of mitosis are usually genetically identical but the products of meiosis are genetically different. sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not duri
Sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not during meiosis. this statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis.
In cell biology, the division of replicated chromosomes into two new nuclei occurs during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. Mitosis is a process of cell division that creates genetically identical cells with a constant chromosome count. Thus, equational division is another name for the process of mitosis. Typically, cytokinesis, which splits a cell's cytoplasm, organelles, and cell membrane into two new cells with nearly equal amounts of these biological components, happens after telophase and before mitosis, which is preceded by S phase of interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. The division of the mother cell into two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another defines the mitotic (M) phase of the animal cell cycle, which is defined by the several mitotic stages.
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which of the following conditions are characterized by the flattening of the hemidiaphragms and widening of the intercostal spaces?
a. Pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Emphysemsa d. Pneumonia.
Pneumothorax is characterized by the flattening of the hemidiaphragms and the widening of the intercostal spaces.
Pneumothorax is a condition where air or gas leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse. This results in the flattening of the hemidiaphragm, the muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, on the affected side. It also causes the intercostal spaces, the spaces between the ribs, to widen.
Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, the space between the lung and the chest wall. This can also cause the hemidiaphragm to become flattened, but it is not characterized by the widening of the intercostal spaces.
Emphysema is a lung disease characterized by the destruction of the air sacs in the lungs and the loss of elasticity of lung tissue. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that cause inflammation in the lung tissue and the buildup of fluid in the air spaces.
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what are some bone markings of the human arm?
The trochlear notch on the ulna, radial notch on the ulna, suprasternal notch, and mandibular notch are all examples.
What is bone marking?Bone markings are projections and depressions found on bones that aid in locating other body structures such as muscles. Their significance arises when we attempt to describe the shape of the bone or comprehend how muscles, ligaments, and other structures influence this bone and vice versa.
Bone markings are very important because they allow for the identification of bones and bony pieces, the formation of joints, the sliding of bones past each other, the locking of bones in place, and the attachment of muscle and connective tissues to provide structural support.
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Based on the information provided, which of the following statements is true about the 400,000 people living with hemophilia?
They are all males because females can only be carriers of the trait.
The males with the disorder can’t pass the trait to their daughters.
Due to the method of inheritance, the majority of those with the disorder are males.
The females affected with the disorder inherited the trait from their father.
The true statement about hemophilia is that it is passed down through the genes from parents to children.
What is hemophilia?Hemophilia is described as an inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of one of the following two blood clotting factors: factor VIII or factor IX.
Hemophilia is passed down through the genes from parents to children However, about 30% of cases occur without a previous family history. This can happen due to a genetic change that can occur at the time of conception.
The main concern for people with hemophilia is bleeding in the joints.
Hemophilic arthropathy happens when there is repeated bleeding in the same joint which causes severe pain, stiffness and weakness.
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You read about soapberry bugs and select the correct statement describing relative fitness in these individuals.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness feeds more successfully on fruits than do other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has more mates than other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
Relative fitness is defined as the reproductive success of an organism within a population.
The survival of the fittest genotype or phenotype in the population.
survival of the fittest concept is given by the Darwin, where various examples are given to explain how the fittest and most adaptative organism survives it all and increase its population.
The soapberry bugs being the fittest, will be dominant on the rest of the population and will be produce high number of offsprings.
Relative fitness is used to calculate the change in genotype frequency is of a particular genotype.
The genotype of the fittest will always be 1.
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what does it mean for a gene to be turned off or not expressed
Answer:
gene regulation
Explanation:
each cell expresses only a fraction of it's genes.expresses or turns on means that protein is being produced from that gene.the rest of the genes are turned off or repressed meaning that no protein is being produced from those genes.
FILL IN THE BLANK During , _______ _______ an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the ____________ produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.
An organism emits operant behaviour based on its genetic endowment during operant conditioning. The operant produces an effect which increases or decreases the frequency of responses in given situations.
Operant conditioning is a study of the reversible behaviour of reinforcement schedules. It studies different behaviours and the consequences of those behaviours.
The four types of operant conditioning include positive and negative reinforcements and positive and negative punishments. It also indicates the possibility of repetition of behaviours with positive consequences, while those with negative consequences are not much repeated.
An operant is an object that operates according to the environment.
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During ,operant conditioning an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the operant produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.
During operant conditioning, an organism produces operant behavior depending on its genetic endowment. The operant generates a result that alters the frequency of reactions in particular circumstances.
Studying the reversible behavior of reinforcement schedules is known as operant conditioning. It investigates various behaviours as well as their effects.
Positive and negative reinforcements as well as positive and negative punishments are two of the four forms of operant conditioning. Additionally, it shows that behaviours with favorable outcomes are more likely to be repeated whereas those with unfavorable outcomes are less likely. An operant is a thing that responds to its surroundings in order to function.
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