1. What groups listed below have true cell walls?
A. algae
B. mycoplasmas
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. fungi
E. protozoans
Answer:
D. Fungi
Explanation:
The fungal cell walls are made of complex & flexible structure that is made of glycoproteins, pigments chitin and α- and β- linked glucans
how do mutations affect our communications?
Explanation:
When a mutation alters a protein that plays a critical role in the body, it can disrupt normal development or cause a medical condition. A condition caused by mutations in one or more genes is called a genetic disorder. In some cases, gene mutations are so severe that they prevent an embryo from surviving until birth.Over time, a mutation might take place in one of the descendant cells, causing increased activity of a positive cell cycle regulator. The mutation might not cause cancer by itself either, but the offspring of this cell would divide even faster, creating a larger pool of cells in which a third mutation could take place.
In the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrogen
2 points
gas?
Terrestrial
cycling
Animals
68
7
Decomposition
2
Uptake
of amino
acids
ΝΗ,
4
оо
Answer:
The illustration below shows translation in progress. The orange structure represents a ribosome and the dark grey ones labelled A and
B represent 2 tRNA. Fill in the blanks in the next sentence and answer the short essay question that follows.
A
5'-AGGGACUAUGAACAUUUACCAACUACGGUGGCGUUAGAC
Explanation:
A __________________ is a place holder or object where you can store a value or piece of data named by you
what is Janus green b
Answer:
Janus Green B is a basic dye and vital stain used in histology.
Explanation:
what are catabolic reactions
Answer:
which complex molecules are broken down to simpler components, are classified as catabolic reactions. Taken as a group of reactions within a cell or even an organism, they can be referred to as the cell's or organism's anabolism or catabolism.
Explanation:
Which answer best explains how most scientists think that planets form? A. Large chunks of matter break off a star that collides with another star; these chunks then become planets orbiting the star. B. Large chunks of matter break off a planet that collides with a smaller body; these chunks gradually clump together to become a new planet. C. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to flatten and condense, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets. D. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to condense, forming a protoplanet; if the protoplanet is massive enough, its gravity will attract nearby matter until the protoplanet becomes large and round enough to be considered a planet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Thats what the teacher told me
The scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
What is the nebular hypothesis?The nebular hypothesis is the most widely accepted scientific theory for the planetary systems, such that the solar system and, as per this theory, a cloud of gas and dust, called a nebula, collapse due to gravitational forces; the nebula contracts, and it rotates faster, flattening into a disk, which eventually cools and condenses, forming a protoplanetary disk.
Hence, the scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
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which 3 reactions form atp?
Answer:
Answer below
Explanation:
The eight steps of the citric acid cycle are a series of redox, dehydration, hydration, and decarboxylation reactions. Each turn of the cycle forms one GTP or ATP as well as three NADH molecules and one FADH2 molecule, which will be used in further steps of cellular respiration to produce ATP for the cell.
Both strands of the DNA double helix contain nitrogenous bases held together by hydrogen bonds. In DNA, the sequence of nitrogenous bases varies widely. What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases?
A. They determine the amino acids in the proteins synthesized.
B. They prevent mutations from occurring in the process of DNA replication
C. They help complete the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules.
D. The amount of adenine and cytosine determines the length of the gene on a DNA molecule.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Essentially, in the process of protein synthesis, there is first transcription where mRNA is synthesized off of a DNA strand with complementary nitrogenous bases. After processing occurs (in basic terms the mRNA is literally processed) and the mRNA strand leaves the nucleus, it attaches to a large and small ribosomal subunit (a ribosome) where translation occurs. The gist of it is when the mRNA strand is being read by the ribosome. tRNA will come over and bind temporarily bringing with it a specific amino acid, starting the formation of the polypeptide/amino acid chain. Nitrogenous bases play into this as the sequence of the nitrogenous bases is what determines what tRNA will bind onto it which determines which amino acid is brought. More specifically, this deals with the codons of the mRNA and the corresponding anticodons with the tRNA, which is a bit of a more specific topic.
The nitrogenous bases help complete the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules. The correct option is C.
What is DNA?DNA, also renowned as deoxyribonucleic acid, is a complex molecule that includes all of the information required to construct and retain a lifeform.
DNA is found in the cells of all living things. In real sense, as in almost every cell in a multicellular organism contains the entirety of the organism's DNA.
DNA is composed of chemical key components known as nucleotides. These building blocks are composed of three components: a phosphate group, a sugar group, and one of four different types of nitrogen bases.
Nucleotides are linked together in chains, with the phosphate and sugar groups alternating.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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How does a cell deal with the buildup of hydrogen peroxide?
Answer:
They actually have a protein that breaks it down into harmless components: water and oxygen. Enzymes are proteins that speed up the rate of reactions, and there is a particular enzyme that can help break down hydrogen peroxide.
There are many reasons why all humans do not perceive sounds similarly in our environment, including adaptation, hearing loss and/or deafness.
For 2A-2D, first determine whether the scenario is an example of sensory adaptation, conduction deafness, sensorineural deafness, and/or central deafness.
Second, for the scenarios that are examples of deafness, explain briefly how the scenario leads to deafness (i.e., how does the scenario alter normal auditory processing). If you have selected sensory adaptation as an answer, explain briefly why the scenario does not fall under the categorization of deafness. Use your own words to briefly explain - simply listing definitions is not sufficient. (2.5 points each for matching, 5 points each for correct justification)
2A. Listening to excessive loud noises everyday over years that causes loss of stereocilia
2B. Hearing construction outside when it first begins, but no longer noticing the sound minutes later
2C. Difficulty understanding speech, but no damage to ears or ability to understand nonverbal sounds
2D. A hole in the tympanic membrane caused by an ear infection
Answer: 2A Sensorineural deafness
2B Sensory adaptation
2C Central deafness
2D Conductive deafness
Explanation: The human ear is divided into 3 parts:
Outer Ear: auricle, ear canal and tympanic membrane;Middle Ear: eardrum, tympanic cavity and ossicles (malleus, incus and stapes);Inner Ear: oval window, semicircular ducts (attached to cochlea and nerves), cochlea and auditory tube;The Sensorineural deafness is a type of deafness caused by a damage in the inner ear, either the cochlea or the auditory nerve. It can happen because of medicine toxicity, exposure to noise along the years etc.
So, from the scenarios above, 2A is consistent with sensorineural deafness since stereocilia are hair cells of inner ear.
Sensory adaptation is a phenomenom that happens when an individual's sensory receptors is exposed to a stimuli for a prolonged period of time. For example, the situation described in 2B. It is not considered deafness because it is not caused by a damage in any part of the ear.
Central deafness is a very rare case of deafness. The damage in this type of deafness is in the brain and not in any of the 3 parts of the ear. That's why the scenario in 2C is the example of this.
Conductive deafness is the second most common type of ear problem and it occurs in the outer ear. One of the causes is blockage in the ear canal by the ear wax, external bodies, osteomas (bone growth) or otitis (oute ear infection). An example of this type of deafness is scenario 2D.
The majority of pesticides do not have a residual effect (i.e., not persistent; lose chemical activity) in the soil.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
B- False
Explanation:
Pesticides can contaminate soil, water, turf, and other vegetation. In addition to killing insects or weeds, pesticides can be toxic to a host of other organisms including birds, fish, beneficial insects, and non-target plants. Soil can be degraded and the community of organisms living in the soil can be damaged by the misuse or over use of pesticides. Some pesticides are more toxic to soil organisms than others.
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1. Which of the following does not absorb moisture readily ?
a.cotton
b.linen
c.viscose
d.acetate
e.nylon
Nylon does not absorb moisture readily.
What is nylon?Nylon is a synthetic fibre."It is made from reacting carbon-based chemicals found in coal and petroleum in a high-pressure, heated environment."It looks somewhat like silk.It is water repellent.Hence, the correct option is e. nylon.
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why is it important to understand plant physiology in crop/plant production and productivity?in your discussion make sure that you mention related fields/areas in agriculture which specifically require a background of plant physiology
Knowledge of Seed physiology helps in understanding of different physiological and morphological changes that occur during germination. By knowing the different inputs requirement of plants (water, nutrients, sunlight) we can easily manage the plant population to get highest yield.
1. The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on
the-
Answer:
The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on the prey of the animal.
Explanation:
The prey's population will decrease because there are more animals needing it to survive.
What is the keystone species
Answer:
a species on which other species in an ecosystem largely depend, such that if it were removed the ecosystem would change drastically
Explanation:
Answer:a species on which other species in an ecosystem largely depend, such that if it were removed the ecosystem would change drastically.
Explanation:
The American Beaver (Castor canadensis) is one example of a keystone species in North America. In any arrangement or community, the “keystone” is considered one of the most vital parts. In a marine ecosystem, or any type of ecosystem, a keystone species is an organism that helps hold the system together.
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living dead cells.
111. The atom cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry.
MAIN IDEA: Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and most internal structures of
eukaryotic cells.
Question reformatted:
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living / dead cells.
iii. The atom / cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry
Answer:
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living cells.
iii. The cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology
Explanation:
Cell theory is one of the central theories of biology and is universally accepted. It states that all organisms are cellular - that is they are made of cells. It also states that all living things come from other living cells (not spontaneously, or from dead cells). The cell is the most basic unit of life, organisms can be unicellular, but no living thing is 'less' than that.
10. According to Bohr's model of the atom, electrons behave like....
A. Waves on a vibrating string
B.Planets orbiting the
C.sun light energy in a vacuum
B.Planets orbiting hiiiiii
LIQUID DENSITY COLUMN
-Olive Oil
-Vegetable Oil
please help me with this question thanks:)
Answer: Vegetable oil
Chrysanthemum pests and diseases include leaf miners, _____, powdery mildew and leaf spot
Answer:
aphids
Explanation:
it just is trust me
Which letter marks the zone of inhibition?
Answer:
A. B
Explanation:
"B" as labelled in the above is the zone of inhibition.
The Zone of Inhibition is actually a test which is used to assess antimicrobial activities of a material or solution in relation to an micro-organism as a target. It is also known as Kirby-Bauer Test. It measures the antibiotic resistance and also used to inhibit microbial growth.
At the Point B, microbes can not grow in there; they are inhibited.
In the test, if bacterial strain or any other strain is susceptible to the antimicrobial agent, a zone of inhibition appears. If it shows resistance to that agent, then no zone is evidential.
You have been looking at meiosis beginning with a diploid cell that has the genotype AaSs. The alleles in the haploid gametes produced by meiosis are
Answer:
AS, As, aS, as
Explanation:
Meiosis is the cell division that involves the production of daughter cells or gametes with a reduced number of chromosomes. i.e. diploid (2n) - haploid (n).
According to Gregor Mendel in his law of Segregation, the alleles of a gene will separate into gametes in such a way that only one allele will be present in each sex cell. Hence, in this diploid cell with genotype AaSs, the alleles will separate into the haploid cell in the following genotype proportion:
AS, As, aS, and as
Does a parrot eat a grasshopper?
Describe how a rainforest can reach a point when it cannot be restored by secondary ecological succession
Answer:Although the secondary forest will be low in diversity and poorly developed, the forest cover will be adequate for some species to return (assuming they still exist). The solution must be based on what is feasible, not overly idealistic, and depends on developing a new conservation policy built on the principle of sustainable use and development of rainforests. Beyond the responsible development of rainforests, efforts to rehabilitate and restore degraded forest lands along with the establishment of protected areas are key to securing rainforests for the long-term benefits they can provide mankind.
Explanation:
i lloke dit up online because i have not did this yet
A very high damaged leads to no restoration of rainforest by secondary ecological succession.
A rainforest can reach a point when it cannot be restored by secondary ecological succession when the large portion of the rainforest is destroyed and most of diversity is vanished. At this time, restoration is impossible due to very high damages.
Ecological resilience is the ability of an ecosystem to be restored through secondary ecological succession after a severe disturbance. Rainforest have a high biodiversity that helps it to resist damage but at a certain limit so we can conclude that very high damaged leads to no restoration of rainforest by secondary ecological succession.
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QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about graded potentials?
a. They always produce action potentials.
b. They always depolarize a neuron.
c. They change the voltage of a neuron by different amounts.
od. They are "all-or-none."
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4. Which of the following statements BEST explains why you can hear noises
long distances at night?
A. There are fewer other noises at night.
B. Water conducts sound better at night.
C. Sound bounces off water better at night.
D. Sound waves are bent towards the cool air.
i guess its answer is option D
-4. Which of the following correctly traces the path of air after it is inhaled?
A. epiglottis, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
B. bronchioles, alveoli, epiglottis, trachea
C. epiglottis, bronchioles, alveoli, trachea
D. alveoli, epiglottis, trachea, bronchioles
amino acid structure: the only part of the amino acid structure that varies between the amino acids and makes each type unique is
Answer:
The side groups are what make each amino acid different from the others. Of the 20 side groups used to make proteins, there are two main groups: polar and non-polar. These names refer to the way the side groups, sometimes called "R" groups, interact with the environment.
Explanation:
1 Sustainability means: A. Meeting present needs without compromising needs of future generations B. Meeting present needs without the concern for future generations C. Ignoring the needs of current generations to help future generations D. Sustaining fish at a certain depth in the ocean 15 (1 Point)
Answer:
A
Explanation:
When a patient comes to a hospital with severe dehydration, doctors will give
them an IV filled with a salt-water solution called saline, which is isotonic with
the body's blood cells.
Why is the patient not given pure water?
Answer:
The red blood cells could burst.
Explanation:
If they are given pure water, the IV fluid will be hypotonic to the blood cells. That means water will end the red blood cells by osmosis, from a high concentration outside to a lower concentration inside.
This will result in the red blood cells becoming swollen and even potential bursting.
HEYY YOU GUYS AGAIN. I HAVE A COUPLE OF QUESTIONS I NEED HELP ON. IF YOU CAN, PLEASE HELP ASAP.
which moon phase occurs when the moon is between the earth and the sun??
a. full moon.
b. waxing crescent.
c. new moon.
d. waning crescent.
Answer:
New Moon
Explanation:
There are eight phases of the Moon, which repeat every 29.5 days. New Moon. A new moon is usually not visible to the naked eye, as only the unlit portion of the Moon is exposed. This phase occurs when the moon is situated directly between the sun and the Earth. A solar eclipse can only occur during this phase. Waxing Crescent