As the bone collar thickens, the ____________ forms, and secondary ossification centers appear in the ____________ .

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Medullary cavity, epiphyses

Explanation:

During the thickening of the bone collar, the penetration of Osteoblasts into the decomposing cartilage occurs thereby replacing it with spongy bone giving rise to a primary ossification center.

Osteoclasts then brings abiut the nreak down of the spongy bone to open up the medullary cavity. The cartilage found in the epiphyses then continue to grow increasing the bone's length.


Related Questions

difference between plant and animal cyanide resistance respiration.

Answers

Answer:

The cyanide resistant respiration differs in plants as oxi­dation of reduced coenzyme continues even in the presence of cyanides.

Explanation:

The mitochondrial is the electrons through which the animals and plants perform the aerobic exercise and is blocked by the release of the cyanides that stops the activity and is known as cyanide sensitive respiration Plant mitochondria is different from the animal as they both have different oxidase system pathways. Cyanide resistant is responsible for the climacteric in fruits and for the generate heat in thermogenic tissues.

why was an Archea considered as a prokaryote ​

Answers

Answer:

Archaea is prokaryotic because it doesn't have a nucleus, nor any membrane-bound organelles. The reason why Archaea is different from Bacteria is it is more prominent, most of them are extremophiles.

because they are composed of cell which doesn't have nucleus and other some cell organelles and also considered as incomplte cell.

A microbiologist would like to use a noncompetent genus of streptococcal bacteria, Enterococcus faecalis, as a cloning host to express genes from Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is naturally competent. Is this possible? Group of answer choices

Answers

Answer:

Yes, with the assistance of electroporation the bacteria Enterococcus can be made competent, and afterward, the Streptococcus bacterial genes can be presented within the Enterococcus with the help of a cloning vector.  

The electropermeabilization or electroporation refers to a microbiology technique in which the permeability of the cell membrane is enhanced with the application of the electric field. This permits drugs, chemicals, or DNA to get presented within the cell.  

The procedure of electroporation is generally used in the field of microbiology to transform yeast, bacteria, or protoplasts of plants by presenting novel coding DNA.  

A circular double-stranded DNA molecule contains 4200 base pairs. In solution, DNA is in a B-form helix, with about 10.5 base pairs/turn. The DNA has 12 superhelical turns. What is its superhelix density

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - 3 × 10⁻²

Explanation:

first find LKo = length of BDNA/ 10.5 bp/turn

= 4200/10.5

= 400

now calculate Δ LK= LK - LKo

ΔLK = 412-400

ΔLK = 12

now, superhelix density  = ΔLK/LKo

⇒ 12/400 = 0.03

= 3×10⁻²

Thus, the correct answer is - 3 × 10⁻²

Which activity involves a chemical change?
A. Ice melting into liquid water
B. A metal rod being bent into a ring
C. Colorless egg becoming a white solid
D. Salt dissolving in water
SUBMIT
Need help now pls!!

Answers

option C is correct........

.. Please follow me and mark as brainliest

Jessica weighs 125 pounds. She rode a bike at 17mph for 25 minutes. What is the calorie cost of this activity?
a. 185 calories
b. 178 calories
c. 180 calories
d. 190 calories
e. 188 calories

Answers

Answer:

b. 178 calories

ok so 17mph is 0.57 weight/min

so what were going to do is multiply 125 times 0.57 which is 7.125

then multiple that answer by 25 mintues: 7.125 x 25 = 178.12...etc

now if we round this up it stays as 178!

List the functions of proteins

Answers

Answer:

Growth and Maintenance.

Causes Biochemical Reactions.

Acts as a Messenger.

Provides Structure.

Maintains Proper pH.

Balances Fluids.

Bolsters Immune Health.

Transports and Stores Nutrients.

Huntington's disease, which causes degeneration of neurons, runs in Mark's family. Huntington's is a heritable autosomal dominant genetic disease, in an autosomal dominant disease, only one abnormal allele is required to cause the disease in offspring. However, it is possible not all offspring will receive the abnormal allele from an affected heterozygous parent.
Family members that have the disease include Mark's maternal grandfather and Mark's maternal aunts. Mark's maternal grandmother does not have the disease.
Because symptoms of Huntington's disease do not appear until later in life, genetic testing is necessary to determine whether a younger individual possesses the allele for the disease. These tests determined that Mark's mother does not carry the allele for Huntington's disease.
Mark's paternal aunt suggested that Mark create a pedigree to track the disease in his family. Use the symbols provided to complete the pedigree. Each symbol may be used more than once.

Answers

Answer:

As it is given that Mark's paternal grandmother and grandfather does not carry the disease. The symbols on the right side of the Punnett represent Mark's paternal family. If both his paternal grandparents are unaffected then his father and paternal aunt are also not affected by the disease.

His maternal grandfather is affected as mentioned and also his maternal aunts are affected. Mark's mother is unaffected as she does not have the disease-causing alleles determined by genetic testing.

Both of the marks parents are unaffected which indicates that marks also do not carry the allele of the disease.

Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder in which the presence of even one dominant allele can cause the disorder.

The autosomal disorder can not skip a generation, have to be present in every generation.

Condition Given:

Affected Member: Mark's Maternal grandfather and Maternal aunts.

Normal: Mark's Maternal grandmother and Mark's Mother.

As MArk's Maternal Grandfather is affected then his genotype must be Aa because Mark's Maternal grandmother is unaffected (aa), this is the only condition where Mark's mother will be normal.

A- Dominant (Huntington)

a- Recessive

Maternal means on the mother's side and paternal means on the father's side.

The diagram is attached below.

I-1: Mark's maternal Grandmother

I-2: Mark's maternal Grandfather

I-3&4: Mark's Paternal Grandparents

II-1&2: Mark's Maternal aunts

II-5: Mark's paternal aunt

II-3&4: Mark's mother and father respectively will not have the disease as both father and mother of Mark are normal.

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What precautionary measure should be taken when storing oil and fats at home?why homogenization and pasteurization of milk are performed at an industrial scale?what are the possible hazards that come across while determining protein content of the meat by kjeldhal appratus?

Answers

Answer:

chutiya bhanchod gand mar du teri

Which statement describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude?
It is measured by the Mercalli scale.
It is based on the size of seismic waves.
O It is not usually affected by the amount of fault movement.
It is used to determine damage caused by earthquakes.

Answers

Answer:

b. It is based on the size of seismic waves

Explanation:

just did the test

The statement that describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude is: "It is based on the size of seismic waves."

What is an earthquake's magnitude?

An earthquake's magnitude is a measure of the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and it is determined by measuring the amplitude (height) of the seismic waves generated by the earthquake. The size of the seismic waves is directly related to the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and this is used to calculate the earthquake's magnitude.

The most commonly used scale for measuring earthquake magnitude is the Richter scale, which is based on the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram. Other scales, such as the moment magnitude scale, are based on the seismic moment, which takes into account the size of the fault rupture and the amount of slip on the fault.

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1.

behavior is inherited and



2. When a deer hears a sound in the forest, such a

then bolts through the bushes. This is an examp

3. Mating rituals or displays can be very complex

4. When animals fight and one wins and one subm

This means that one animal (the winn

behavior is used to intimidate other an

baring teeth or growling.

Answers

Answer:

Behavior is inherited in many animals which helps them to survive.

Explanation:

When animals fight with one another and one wins. This means that one animal (the winner) behavior is used to intimidate other. Two deer fight each other in order to show dominance over each other and to impress the female deer. The winner deer will be the leader and also mate with the females of the group. This is a type of behavior which is inherited in animals through genetics is called instincts.

Humans breathe in oxygen and release ____ gas.

Answers

Answer:

Carbon

Explanation:

Reverse photosynthesis

Answer:

carbon dioxide

Explanation:

our body changes it

As we continue to learn, what allows our brain to reformat and adapt by developing new neural pathways?

Answers

Answer:

Developing new neural pathways

150 ml of 54% CaCI2 solution contains how many grams of CaCI2?

Answers

Answer:

mass of CaCl₂ = 67.4 g of CaCl₂

Explanation:

A 45% CaCl₂ Solution contains 45 g of solute per 100 mL of solution.

mass concentration = mass of solute (g)/ volume of solution (L)

100 mL of solution = 100 * 1L /1000 = 0.1 L

Mass concentration of solution = 45 g/0.1 L = 450 g/L

Molar concentration of solution = mass concentration / molar mass

molar mass of CaCl₂  = 111 g/mol

molar concentration = 450 g/L / 111 g/mol = 4. 05 mol/L

Number of moles of CaCl₂ present in 150 ml of 4.05 mol/L  solution = molar concentration *  volume (L)

number of moles of CaCl₂  = 4.05 * 150 * 1 L/1000 = 0.6075 moles

mass of CaCl₂  present in 0.6075 moles  = number of moles * molar mass

mass of CaCl₂ = 0.6075 * 111 = 67.4 g of CaCl₂

When ______ is released, the subsequent receiving neuron ________ fire because that neurotransmitter is _______.

Answers

Answer:

When a neurotransmitter is released, the posterior receptor neuron has the receptor to bind to it because that neurotransmitter is a stimulator of the postsynaptic membrane.

Explanation:

The neurotransmitters that are released from the motor plate, that is, from the postsynaptic membrane to the presynaptic space, are captured by receptors of the postsynaptic membrane, which can be another neuronal structure to transmit an impulse or a muscle to be able to execute the contraction.

I leave you an image that draws up the stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane by means of a neutrotranismor, these are called as: adrenaline, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, etc.

Number 1 is the presynaptic membrane that releases the neurotransmitter (yellow balls), number 2 is the intersynaptic space, 3 is the postsynaptic membrane that in number 4 can be seen to be activated by relating to the neurotransmitter

Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.

Answers

Complete question:

Part C: Using the Punnett square to make predictions

Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.

Note: You will find the Punnet square in the attached files.  

Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.

1) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random will be yellow?

2)  What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random from along the yellow seeds will breed true when selfed?

3) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include at least one yellow seed?

4) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include one green seed and two yellow seeds?  

Answer:

1) 3/4              

2) 1/3

3) 63/64

4) 27/64

Explanation:

Y is the dominant allele and expresses yellow color y is the recessive allele and expresses green colorSeeds with YY and Yy genotype are yellowSeeds with yy genotype are green

Parental) Yy   x   Yy

Gametes) Y   y   Y   y

Punnet Square)

                      (1/2) Y            (1/2) y

      (1/2) Y    (1/4) YY         (1/4) Yy

      (1/2) y     (1/4) yY          (1/4) yy  

F2)  1/4 YY

      2/4 = 1/2 Yy

      1/4 yy

1) There will be 3/4 of probabilities of getting a yellow F2 seed

   1/4 YY + 2/4 Yy = 3/4 Y-

   The symbol "-" means that in its position there might be either a Y or y allele.

2) As there are only three yellow possible genotypes for yellow seeds, the fourth genotype for green seeds is not considered. Our pool now is only yellow seeds. So the probability of getting a pure breeding yellow seed among all yellow seeds is 1/3.  

   1/3 YY

   1/3 Yy

   1/3 yY

In the pool of yellow seeds, there are three genotypes, and only one of them corresponds to pure breeding yellow seed.

3) To calculate the probability of getting at least one yellow seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we need to multiply and then perform addition. This is, when we take three seeds from the pool, we have different possibilities of getting seeds with different genotypes. So:

the three chosen seeds could be yellow. In this case, we multiply their probabilities. The probability of getting one yellow seed is 3/4, so, the probabilities of getting three yellow seeds are: 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 27/64

There might also be one green sees and two yellow seed, so we multiply their probabilities in the order in which we might get them. This is:

Two yellow seeds and one green seed: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow seed, one green seed, and one yellow seed: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed, and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64

And we could also get two green seeds and only one yellow seed:

Two green and one yellow seed: 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64one green, one yellow and one green: 1/4 x 3/4x 1/4 = 3/64one yellow seed and two green seeds: 3/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 3/64

Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:

27/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 3/64 + 3/64 + 3/64= 63/64.

Note that we did not include the possibility of getting three green seeds (1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4). This is because we were asked to calculate the probabilities of getting AT LEAST one yellow seed.

4) To calculate the probability of getting two yellow seeds and one green seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we should multiply probabilities and then sum them up.

The orders in which we could get the seeds are:

Two yellows and one green: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow, one green, and one yellow: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64

Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:

6/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 = 27/64.

Answer:

1) 3/4

2) 1/3

3) 63/64

4) 27/64

Explanation:

1) yellow seed could either be GG, Gg or Gg from Punnett square, therefore, there is a 3/4 probability

2) true-breeding = either GG or gg. Therefore, out of the 3 yellow seed options, only 1 is true-breeding, therefore, it's a 1/3 probability

3) "there are 7 possible groupings that have at least 1 yellow seed; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 63/64. Note that you could have also calculated this answer by subtracting the probability of the one category that doesn’t fit the criterion (Green, Green, Green) from the total probability (1 – 1/64 = 63/64)"

4) "there are 3 possible groupings that have 1 green and 2 yellow seeds; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 27/64"

**all rights reserved to Pearson Mastering Genetics**

How is the top layer of the ocean different than the deepest layer
A the top layer is colder and doesn’t receive sunlight
B the top layer receives sunlight and is warmer
C the top layer is warmer and doesn’t receive sunlight
D the top layer is colder and receives sunlight

Answers

Answer:

B the top layer receives sunlight and is warmer

Explanation:

Answer:

B. the top layer receives sunlight and is warmer.

What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds

Answers

Answer:

90 percent

Explanation:

Based on average estimated juvenile and adult survival rate for each species

What best describes the behavior of nonconservative elements in seawater?

Answers

The given question is incomplete due to missing options, however, the options for the question as follows:

A. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.

B. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.

C. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.

D. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Explanation:

Non conservative components are components that enter the ocean water and have little concentration in the sea and show spatial variations. These components have short home time that is short replacements time and they are non responsive.

Constituents, for example, phosphate, nitrate, and different supplements, and broke up oxygen, carbon dioxide, and so on are non-conservative on the grounds that their concentrations are later altered by chemical reactions in the ocean.

Thus, The correct answer is option C.

which proteins serves as a chemical messenger

Answers

Answer:

Neuropeptides

Explanation:

They are proteins that function as chemical messengers and are released by neurons. They contain 3 to 36 amino acids.

Hope this helps!!! PLZ MARK BRAINLIEST!!!

You are doing research on nervous system diseases; particularly, one that dissolves lipids. What part of the neuron would you expect to be affected most by this disease? A. Myelin sheath B. Axon C. Synaptic Cleft D. Dendrites

Answers

The answer you are looking for is A

Which structure of a paramecium is analogous to a “reserve copy” of all the cell’s genes

Answers

Answer:

micro nucleus

Explanation:

what is a part of interphase A. cytokinesis B. telophase C. anaphase D. s phase

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

I did it on my own soci know it's the answer

In the context of interphase, the S phase is the specific part where DNA replication occurs, contributing to the overall process of cell division and ensuring the transmission of genetic material to new cells and the correct option is option D.

Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle, and it is divided into three main stages: G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase. Among these stages, the S phase is specifically responsible for DNA replication. It is during the S phase that the cell's DNA is duplicated in order to prepare for cell division.

During the S phase, the DNA helix unwinds, and the two strands separate. Enzymes and proteins then work together to synthesize new complementary strands for each of the separated DNA strands. As a result, two identical copies of the DNA molecule are produced.

The S phase plays a crucial role in maintaining the genetic integrity of the cell. By accurately duplicating the DNA, the cell ensures that each daughter cell formed during cell division receives an identical set of genetic information. This is vital for the proper functioning and development of organisms.

Thus, the ideal selection is option D.

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If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?

Answers

Answer:

The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.

Explanation:

One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.

An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.

Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.

If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel

Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected  it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).

Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .

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Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided

Specialized cells such as white blood cells interact with foreign particles in the body. A particular cell belonging to this category recognizes bacteria and forms a covering around it, pinching off the vacuole. The cell then performs . The foreign particles recognized by the particular type of cells differ from the ones recognized by another type of white blood cell. This situation indicates that the receptors are .

Answers

Answer:

specific

Explanation:

The immune system contains different types of cells that act in both innate and acquired (adaptive) immune responses to destroy pathogenic microorganisms that invade our body. The immune cells include B and T cells, dendritic cells, macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, etc. These cells contain specific receptors that play different roles in the immune response. For example, macrophages and dendritic cells contain receptors required for antigen presentation, while white blood cells (B and T cells) have receptors required for antigen recognition.

Answer: I just took the test

Explanation:

Here's the answer

Why does the pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts

Answers

Answer:

A Because all are complex cells with certain functions that cannot be greatly altered without affecting fitness.

B Because VSG switching may not be restricted to trypanosomes.

C Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.

D None of these answers are correct.

The answer is C .Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.

Explanation:

Pattern recognition strategy employs the use of pattern recognition receptors which are proteins for the recognition of molecules frequently found in pathogens. When they are recognized, the body then marks the cells for destruction.

Pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes and they help in the recognition of pathogens or host for further action on them.

 What is the most likely explanation for how speciation occurs?
A. It occurs by more than one method.
B. It occurs by gradual changes.
C. It occurs only by geographic isolation.
D. It occurs only by natural selection.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is (C) geographical isolation

Explanation:

Speciation is most likely to occur when populations become geographically isolated from one another, and come to inhabit environments that differ significantly from one another.

The mechanism by which proteins synthesized in the cytosol are imported into the mitochondrial matrix is different from the mechanism by which proteins enter the nucleus, yet the two mechanisms do share some features. Indicate whether each of the following statements applies to nuclear import, mitochondrial import, both, or neither. Sort each statement into the appropriate bin.
1. The polypeptide to be transported into the organelle has a specific short stretch of amino acids that targets the polypeptide to the organelle.
2. The imported protein enters the organelle through some sort of protein pore
3. The pore complex consists of more than two dozen proteins and is large enough to be readily seen with the electron microscope.
4. ATP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
5. The signal sequence is always at the olypeptide's N-terminus and is cut off by a peptidase within the organelle
6. The signal sequence is recognized
GTP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
7. There is strong evidence for the involvement of chaperone proteins polypeptide's N-terminus and isctand bound by a receptor protein inrequired for the translocation during translocation of the protein the organelle's outer membrane process.
Nuclear import Mitochondrial import Both Neither

Answers

Answer:

Nuclear import:

1. GTP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process

2. The pore complex consists of more than two dozen proteins and is large enough to be readily seen through electron microscopy

Mitochondrial import:

1. ATP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process

2. The signal sequence is always at the polypeptide's N-terminus and is cut off by a peptidase inside the organelle

3. There is strong evidence for the involvement of chaperones during the translocation process

4. The signal sequence is recognized and bound by a receptor protein in the organelles outer membrane

Both:

1. The polypeptide to be transferred into the organelle has a specific short stretch of amino acids that targets the polypeptide to the organelle

2. The imported protein enters the organelle through some sort of protein pore

Explanation:

Which of the following example(s) does NOT cause bias in a research study.
A) Measuring body temperature with an oral thermometer in half of subjects and an ear thermometer in others
B) Counting the number of firefighters at your house to predict if it will be destroyed
C) Using a set of standardized questions to measure food intake in children
D) Studying workers to see the effects of a new health care law on unemployed

Answers

(A) The internal body temperature can be taken from any area of the body without a difference in the type of temperature, resulting in NO bias. Of course this is completely reliant on the type of illness, but out of all options this is correct.

Illnesses affect the throat/mouth and ear.
checking the thermometer underneath a tongue will result in the same temperature as the ear, in an ill individual.

which type of research study compares disease rates among population groups?

Answers

Answer:

Epidemiological

Explanation:

Epidemiology compares disease rates among population groups, and attempts to identify related conditions or behaviors.

Answer: Epidemiological studies

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The app should save the data back to the same data file when the program exits.What Your Program Should Do:Write an interactive text based menu interface (using a loop) that will allow the user to Enter information for a new song Display information for all the songs in the database with index for each song Remove a song by index Search for songs by a certain artist Search for songs by a certain album QuitFor each song, you need to keep track of:titleartistdurationalbumAllow the program to keep looping until user wants to quit. When the program starts, it should load the tasks from external file ("songs.txt") into memory. When user enters information about the new song, the program needs to read them in, save them in memory and eventually write them to the external data file ("songs.txt"). The file format could look like:Stereo Hearts;Gym Class Heroes;3;34;The Papercut Chronicles IICounting Stars;OneRepulic;4;17;NativeThe ';' is used as a delimiter or field separator. 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