As an exporter, Horizon Trading wants to be paid before a consignment is shipped. Correspondingly, its importer in Italy, Friggo Imports, wants to pay only upon receipt of the consignment. These conflicting preferences of Horizon Trading and Friggo Imports are most likely a manifestation of

Answer:

The answer is explained below

Explanation:

To begin with, the policies that the goverments decide to implement in their countries tend to influece in a huge way the companies decisions and therefore its actions as well. Therefore that as a company manager of an international business he needs to stay very updated about the government policies over the countries where his company works. Moreover, the manager will understand that if there is free trade in a country then there will be no problems for his company to start selling there and obtaining the maximum profits as possible and if there is protectionism then the company will have to deal with the policies that the government implemented there. And that is why that as an international business manager he should really care about the policies of the country's government and if there is free trade of protectionism.

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of each year’s absorption costing net operating income is shown below:-

Particulars                         Year 1           Year 2          Year 3

Beginning inventories       210             150                  200

Less: Ending inventories   150             200                  240

Change in inventories       60               -50                  -40

Fixed Manufacturing Overhead

Beginning Inventory       $115,500      $82,500        $110,000

                             ($550 × 210) ($550 × 150) ($550 × 200)

Less: Fixed Manufacturing

Overhead in ending

inventory                          $82,500     $110,000         $132,000

                             ($550 × 150) ($550 × 200) ($550 × 240)

Fixed Manufacturing

Overhead deferred

in (released from)

inventory                         $33,000     -$27,500         -$22,000

Variable Costing

net Operating

income                             $290,000   $279,000      $260,000

Add (deduct) Fixed MOH cost

deferred in (released from)

inventory under absorption

costing                              -$33,000     +$27,500         +$22,000

Absorption costing net

operating income             $257,000  $306,500         $282,000

Answer:

Process capability index (cp) for the chip filling process is 0.56

Explanation:

Process capability index (cp) = (Upper Specification Limit - Mean) / (3 * standard deviation) = (Mean - Lower Specification) / (3 * standard deviation)

Process capability index (cp) = (10.5 - 10) / (3*0.3)

Process capability index (cp) = 5/9

Process capability index (cp) = 0.56

In the case when an excessive amount should be spending so this represents the problem of the Transaction cost.

Transaction cost is the cost that is typically in money or time format. It is the cost involved in the context of time or money when a decision is made or an agreement has been reached.

So according to the given situation, there is an excessive amount of time or money spent on parties so that it could be reached to an agreement

Therefore it represents the transaction cost.

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Answer:

7.32

Explanation:

Swap rate is fixed rate that swap receiver requires for the paying the uncertain rate. SWAP rate is fixed interest rate that is required by Swap receiver in exchange of floating rate of LIBOR. Swap rate can be calculated by multiple formula using the spreadsheet. The formula listed below is the simplest version;

r = [tex]\frac{1-d (0, 4)} {∑4 d(0, t)}[/tex]

= 1-d (0, 4) /4 T=1 d(0,t) = 0.0732

= 7.32

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

Answer:

b)

Annual Depreciation expense= $58,800

Explanation:

According to International Accounting standards(IAS) 16 property plan and equipment (PPE), the cost of an asset is the purchase cost plus other costs of bringing it to the intended working conditions.

So we will add the purchase cost to installation  , freight charges.

Cost of assets = 300,000 + 14,000 + 40,000 =$354,000

Annual depreciation = (Cost - Scrap Value)/ Number of years

                                   = (354,000 - 60,000)/5

                                 =$58,800

Annual Depreciation expense= $58,800

Answer:

The total investment will be "28".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Total dividend amount

= $85,000

Current earnings per share

= $2.10

Total purchased amount

= $85,000

Currently sell stock

= $45 per share

Now,

⇒  [tex]Dividend \ per \ share=\frac{85000}{5000}[/tex]

                                     [tex]=17[/tex]

⇒  [tex]Total \ investment=currently \ sell \ stock+dividend \ per \ share[/tex]

                                 [tex]=45+17[/tex]

                                 [tex]=62[/tex]

The number of repurchased shares will be:

=  [tex]\frac{total \ repurchase}{currently \ sells}[/tex]

=  [tex]\frac{85000}{45}[/tex]

=  [tex]1889[/tex]

So, Percentage of repurchased will be:

=  [tex]\frac{1889}{5000}[/tex]

=  [tex]37.78 \ percent[/tex]

When the share becomes bought, the overall investment value will be as follows:

=  [tex]45\times ( 1 -0.3778)[/tex]

= [tex]45\times 0.6222[/tex]

= [tex]27.999 \ or \ 28[/tex]

Answer:

$16,125.15

Explanation:

DATA:

Activity Cost Pool       Total Cost           Total Activity

Assembly                   $1,398,250           65,800 machine hours

Processing orders      $ 69,451              2,520 orders

Inspection                   $ 184,800             2,400 inspection-hours

Units produced = 920

Machine hours required = 1290

Processing orders required= 61

Inspection hours required = 40

Direct material cost = 57.55

Direct labor cost = 13.56 per unit

Selling price = 123.50

Solution

Sales Revenue (920 ×$123.5)                                   $113,620

LESS: Costs  

Direct Materials (920 × $57.55)                                $52,946

Direct labor (920 ×$13.56)                                        $12,375.2  

Assembly (1,398,250/65,800) = 21.25 × 1290=       $27412.5  

Processing (69,451/2,520) = 27.55 × 61 =               $1681.15

Inspection (184,800/2,400) = 77 x 40 =                   $3080        

Total Cost                                                               ($97494.65)      

Product margin                                                         $16,125.15

Answer:

Investment D

Explanation:

Effective Rate of Return can be defined as the the rate of interest on an investment either daily, monthly,quarterly or annually when compounding of them occurs more than once which is why effective interest rate is important and vital in helping to figure out the best loan or helping in determining which investment offers the highest rate of return

Therefore based on the information given in the question, the best alternative that will offers me the highest effective rate of return will be INVESTMENT D because the investment has the HIGHEST RATE of interest which is 6.1204% Monthly more than the rest of the listed investment .

Answer:

D. Stockholders' Equity increases

Explanation:

Cost of the share being resale = 400 shares x $27 = $10,800

Proceeds on the resale of shares = 400 shares x $30 = $12,000

Profit / Gain on resale = $12,000 - $10,800 = $1,200

As there is a profit of $1,200 the stockholders equity will be increased on the reselling of share.

As the assets section is increased because more cash is received against the cost of those shares.

Answer:

1. c. Labor

2. a. Hiring and training

3. a. . Blending the use of technology

4. a. Tangible

5. d. Technology

Explanation:

1. IBM wants to create a global reach so that it may be able to take advantage of the talent that is available worldwide signifying that is is Labor that is integral to their new business model.

2. If the organisation requires high-touch relationships with customers then good representatives/employees are needed. Proper employees should be hired and trained to ensure that they relate well with customers.

3. By blending the technology they use around the world, they can standardise the way their employees do things using that technology.

4. Manufacturing firms produce actual goods. These goods can be seen, held, felt etc. They are tangible unlike services which do not have the aforementioned characteristics.  

5. A great deal of knowledge will be required during the conversion stage of the Transformation process because the client's business will have to be blended with information technology. As every business is different, the customisation will take quite a bit of knowledge to accomplish.

Answer:

Explanation:

Joint cost = 80,000

Orapine

cost of 5000 at 20 = 100,000

Incremental Cost of further processing =20,000

Incremental revenue = 5000* (25-20)= 25,000

Incremental income                                   5,000

Banango

cost of 10000 at 15 = 150,000

Incremental cost of further processing =  20,000

Incremental revenue = 10,000*(16-15) = 10,000

Incremental income = (10,000) loss

If  Orapine is processed further , there will be an incremental income of 5,000 compared to Banango that will bring an incremental loss of 10,00 if processed further.

Based on this , it is advised that Orapine be processed further while Banango is not

Answer:

Worth of the offer =$20,000

Explanation:

The worth of this offer is the present value of the annual cash inflow receivable forever discounted at the given interest rate. The cash inflow receivable forever is known as a perpetuity

The present of a cash inflow receivable forever is given below:

PV = A× 1/r

A- annual cash inflow, r- discount rate, PV - Present value of a perpetuity

A- 1,000, r- 5%

PV = 1,000 × 1/0.05

PV = $20,000

Worth of the offer =$20,000

Answer:

An agency relationship has not been formed

Explanation:

An agency relationship has not been formed because the agreement has an illegal purpose. An agency relationship is a situation where one party calling the principal allows another party called agent to act on his or her behalf.

An agency relationship is only formed if the purpose for it's creation is legal. Meryl hired Alex to steal from Nancy, which is an illegal arrangement. Therefore an agency relationship was not formed.

Answer: Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget is the biggest office that is within the Executive Office of the United States President. The Office of Management and Budget is also a member of the President's Executive Office and the main function of the Office of Management and Budget is to help the United States president in budget preparation.

It should also be noted that the office helps in overseeing and monitoring federal agencies performance.

Answer: $13,800,000

Explanation:

Operating Cashflow for the year = EBIT * (1 - tax rate) + Depreciation.

Earnings before Interest and Tax (EBIT) = Revenue - Operating Costs - Depreciation

= 25 - 7 - 6

= $12 million

Operating Cashflow = 12 * ( 1 - 35%) + 6

= 12 * 65% + 6

= $13.8 million

= $13,800,000

Answer:

492.18 million

Explanation:

The computation of the approximate population is shown below:

= Current population × (1 + growth compound rate)^number of years

where,

The Current population is 300 million

Growth compound rate is 2%

And, the number of years is 25

Now placing these values to the above formula

So, the estimated population is

= 300 million  × (1 + 2%)^25

= 492.18 million

Answer:

Determination of Gross Profit and Ending Inventory:

a. First-in, First-out (FIFO)

1. Determination of Gross Profit:

Sales               $118

Cost of Sales    68

Gross profit    $50

2. Determination of Ending Inventory:

Apr. 14  Purchase 1 $73

Apr. 28 Purchase 1  75

Total 2         $148

b. Last-in, First-out (LIFO):

1. Determination of Gross Profit:

Sales               $118

Cost of Sales    75

Gross profit    $43

2. Determination of Ending Inventory:

Apr. 2  Purchase 1 $68

Apr. 14 Purchase 1 $73

Total 2                  $141

c. Weighted average cost methods:

1. Determination of Gross Profit:

Sales              = $118

Cost of Sales =   72

Gross profit  =  $46

2. Determination of Ending Inventory:

Ending inventory = 2 x $72 = $144

Explanation:

FIFO, LIFO, and Weighted Average Cost Methods are different techniques for allocating costs of products to the cost of goods sold and the ending inventory.  They produce different results.  FIFO assumes that units sold are taken from the units purchased first.  LIFO assumes that units sold are taken from the units purchased last.  Weighted Average Method uses the average cost to determine the cost to allocate to cost of sales and ending inventory.  The average cost is obtained by summing the total inventory costs and dividing it by the units available for sale.  Then this average cost is applied to the quantity sold and the quantity remaining to obtain cost of goods sold and value of ending inventory.

Answer:

Sorts of monetary information that would be incorporated and avoided in differential analysis

Differential cost investigation is the expansion or decline in complete expense pf the adjustment in explicit components of cost that outcome from any variety in tasks. It speaks to an expansion or abatement in all out expense coming about out of -  

1. Creating or disseminating a couple of more or barely any less of the items

2. Change in the strategy for creation or of conveyance  

3. An Addition or cancellation of item  

4. Choice of extra deals channel  

In Differential examination increment in incomes, variable expenses and opportunity costs are thought of. Fixed expenses and fixed segment of semi-variable expenses are disregarded.  

differential analysis is utilized:  

1. Dropping or including a product offering  

2. Settle on or purchase choices  

3. Proceed or shutdown item or client and so on.  

Explicit incomes and expenses ought to be considered in an assessment to drop or keep a:  

1. Commitment structure unbeneficial item ought to be thought of  

2. Explicit fixed expenses of the unfruitful item will be thought of  

3. Commitment from other non beneficial items which is proposed to be delivered with the extra limit will be thought of.  

Avoidable fixed expenses are thought of, as these can be stayed away from when item or client is closed down. Avoidable fixed costs partitioned by the pv proportion will give level of deals beneath which it is smarter to close down.  

Unavoidable fixed expenses are overlooked in considering in an assessment to drop or keep. Since these costs will be acquired despite the fact that the item or client is ceased.  

shut down point = avoidable fixed expenses/PV proportion  

Sunk Costs: A sunk expense is a cost that an element has brought about, and which it can not recoup anymore. Sunk expenses ought not be viewed as when settling on the choice to keep putting resources into a progressing venture, since these expenses can't be recouped. As sunk expenses are authentic expenses these are brought about before and notrelavent for dynamic reason. for instance, R&D costs, Feasibility report costs and so on.  

Opportunity Costs: Opportunity costs emerge from inability to unused assets effectively. These are considered in dynamic investigation. in straightforward terms opportunity cost implies the loss of different options when one option is picked.  

Misfortune emerging from picking one option rather than other option will be considered in assessing the task.

Answer:

The market rate of interest is the same as the contract rate of interest.

Explanation:

A bond can be defined as a fixed income instrument that firms use as a source of longer-term funding or loans.

The par value of a bond is its face value and it comprises of its total dollar amount as well as its maturity value. Also, the par value of a bond gives the basis on which periodic interest is paid.

A bond is issued at par value when the market rate of interest is the same as the contract rate of interest. This simply means that, a bond would be issued at par (face) value when the bond's stated rated is significantly equal to the effective or market interest rate on the specific date it was issued.

In Economics, bonds could either be issued at discount or premium.

Hence, a bond that is being issued at a discount has its stated rate lower than the market interest rate, on the specific date of issuance. Also, a bond that is being issued at a premium, has its stated rate higher than the market interest rate on the specific date of issuance.

Generally, bond price is inversely proportional to its interest rate, thus, when interest rates are high, bond prices would be low and when interest rates are low, bond prices are high.

Answer: c. Collude

Explanation:

In order to make the maximum profit, the most important thing that these commercial concrete suppliers can do would be to Collude. While this is against fair market practices in a competitive market, it will ensure that they make enough profits in the industry.

With a 90% market share between them, they could collude to establish a price at which they will all sell at and because of their high market share, this is the price that the market will begin to sell at. That price will be a price that is high enough for them all to make sufficient profits therefore the goal of the collusion will be accomplished.

Answer:

The journal entry that Jepson makes on September 18 is:

Account Payable ; Vander Company $8,600 (debit)

Discount Received $172(credit)

Cash $8,428 (credit)

Explanation:

When Vander Company sales to Jepson Company, the following entries will be recorded :

Cost of Sales $5,400 (debit)

Account Receivable : Jepson Company $8,600 (debit)

Merchandise $5,400 (credit)

Sales Revenue $8,600 (credit)

When Jepson pays the invoice on September 18, they settle their account within the discount period and is granted a Cash discount of 2%.

The Entry to be made is as follows in Vander Company  :

Cash $8,428 (debit)

Discount Allowed $172 (debit)

Account Receivable : Jepson Company $8,600 (credit)

The Entry to be made is as follows in Jepson Company  :

Account Payable ; Vander Company $8,600 (debit)

Discount Received $172(credit)

Cash $8,428 (credit)

Conclusion :

The journal entry that Jepson makes on September 18 is:

Account Payable ; Vander Company $8,600 (debit)

Discount Received $172(credit)

Cash $8,428 (credit)

Answer: $100

Explanation:

Sometimes Debt instruments like Debentures and Bonds are convertible to shares in the company.

To calculate the Conversion Price, the following formula is used;

= Par Value / Conversion Ratio

= 1,000/10

= $100

Par value is usually $1,000 for such instruments.

Answer is given below

Explanation:

S.no Particulars                         Answer

a         Advertisement expense expense

b         rent expense                         expense

c         rent receivable                  Asset

d         Machinery                          Asset

e         Account payable                  Liability

f         Furniture                          Asset

g         common stock                  Equity

h          Utility Expense                  expense

Answer:

The answer is 12.9 percent

Explanation:

This question will be solved using the Dividend Discount Model. It is one of the valuation methods used in valuing price of Equity/stock.

Po = D1/r - g

Po is the current worth of stocks

D1 is the next dividend paid

r is the rate of return

g is the growth rate

$43 = $2.12/ r - 0.08

43r - 3.44 = 2.12

43r = 5.56

r = 5.56/43

=0.129

Expressed as a percentage:

12.9 percent

Answer:

d. quantity demanded will vary inversely with the price of the good.

Explanation:

The law of demand states that when the price of a product increases, the quantity demanded decreases when everything else remains constant as people are less willing to purchase a product when the price is higher. This means that the price and the quantity demanded are inversely related as when one variable increases the other one decreases. According to this, the answer is that the law of demand states that quantity demanded will vary inversely with the price of the good.

The other answers are not right because the law of demand states that the price and the quantity demanded of a good are inversely related, it doesn't refer to the price and sales, consumers don't have unlimited demands for a good as it is affected by the price and the price can be too high for some consumers as when the price increases, the quantity demanded decreases.

Answer:

It is considered a defect

Explanation:

A process defect is When a process  doesn't perform within what is supposed to be its specifications. When a process doesn't satisfy a customer. To manage defects it is defined as a process of detecting bugs and fixing them. A defect is a malfunction which interrupts or changes the normal expected behaviour of an item or a product.

When a process fails to satisfy a customer it is considered a defect. Thus, option B is correct. Process flaws are when a process doesn't operate according to what is intended to be its specs.

When a consumer isn't satisfied with a procedure. It is described as a method of finding faults and repairing them to manage defects. A fault is a failure that prevents or modifies a product's normally anticipated behavior.

When the result of a procedure is not what was anticipated, a flaw is said to have happened. The phrase "expected outcome" in this context refers to the specifications we have made in advance. Defective components may be produced as a result of a process fault or discrepancy.

A flaw is an imperfection or inadequacy that might exist in a good, asset, method, or legal document. Defects in design, manufacture, or marketing are the three main forms of defects recognized under product liability law.

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Answer: $75,000 ordinary income; $3,000 of long-term capital gains.

Explanation:

From the question, we are told that the POD Partnership received revenues of $200,000 and paid $50,000 in rent and utilities, and $20,000 as a distribution to partner Olivia. Also, the partnership earned $6,000 of long-term capital gains during the year and that Partner Donald owns a 50% interest in the partnership.

From the question, the ordinary income of the firm will be the difference between the revenue gotten and the $50,000 paid in rent and utilities which is an expense. This will be:

= $200000 - $50000

= $150000

The income from capital gain = $6000

Since, Donald will get 50% of what the partnership makes, thus will be:

50% of $150,000 ordinary income which is (50/100 × $150,000) = $75,000 and 50% of $6000 capital gain which will be $3,000.

= 50

Therefore, Donald will get $75000 of the ordinary income and $ 3000 of the capital gain.

Question

The question is incomplete, hence the tutor added a piece of information

The Corporation applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours. The predetermined overhead rate is $14 per machine-hour. What amount would be

Assuming the actual machine hours worked is 3,500

Note the actual machine was added by the tutor

Answer:

Applied overhead =$49,000

Explanation:

Overheads are charged to units produced by the means of an estimated overhead absorption rate. This rate is computed using budgeted overhead and budgeted activity level.  

Pre-determined overhead absorption rate (POAR) = Budgeted overhead/Budgeted machine hours

The POAR is given as $14 per machine hour

Applied (absorbed) overhead = POAR × Actual machine hours

Applied overhead = $14 ×  3,500 =$49000

Applied overhead =$49,000