Arjun, the father of two children, is type A-, and Susanna, the mother, is type 0+. Their daughter Anita is type A+ and son Jay is type o-. Given this information, what are the genotypes of father and mother? What are the possible genotypes of the children? Show work! Arjun: Susanna: Anita: Jay:

Answers

Answer 1

Since the son Jay is type O, he must be homozygous recessive, and thus have the genotype on.

Arjun can be determined using the following punned square where the mother’s genotype is 00,

The parent’s genotype is A0r or A-r.

A+ is dominant over O,

so, the daughter Anita has the genotype A0r.

The genotype of the father,

and the ABO gene has complete dominance where the A allele is dominant over the B allele which is dominant over the O allele.

Arjun:

A0r (heterozygous for A and rhesus-negative).

Susanna:

00 (homozygous for O and rhesus-positive).

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Related Questions

Learning objective: Use a drawing to demonstrate the interactions occurring immunohistochemistry Compare the IHC and ELISA, what is the similarity vs difference? The IHC performed in this research involved the following reagents: Substrate Rat anti-mouse CD45R Rat anti-mouse CD3 Human anti-rat IgG w/enzyme attached Add these reagents, and additional molecules needed, to the tissue/cells below to demonstrate what is actually occurring during the IHC analysis.

Answers

In the immunohistochemistry (IHC) analysis, the reagents used include substrate, rat anti-mouse CD45R, rat anti-mouse CD3, and human anti-rat IgG with an attached enzyme.

Immunohistochemistry (IHC) and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) are both immunological techniques used to detect specific antigens or proteins. They share similarities in their principle and the use of antibodies for detection but differ in their application and format.

Similarity:

Both IHC and ELISA involve the use of antibodies to specifically bind to target antigens or proteins. In both techniques, a primary antibody is used to capture the target, followed by the addition of a secondary antibody conjugated with an enzyme or a detection molecule.

Difference:

1. Application: IHC is primarily used for visualizing and localizing antigens or proteins in tissue sections or cells, providing spatial information. ELISA is commonly used for quantitative measurement of antigens or proteins in solution, providing information on concentration.

2. Format: IHC is performed on tissue sections or cells attached to a solid support, such as a glass slide, while ELISA is typically performed in microplate wells.

3. Detection: In IHC, the presence of the target antigen or protein is visualized using a chromogenic substrate that reacts with the enzyme-conjugated secondary antibody. In ELISA, the detection is typically based on a colorimetric or fluorescent signal generated by the enzyme-substrate reaction.

In the IHC analysis mentioned, the reagents mentioned, including substrate, rat anti-mouse CD45R, rat anti-mouse CD3, and human anti-rat IgG with an attached enzyme, are added to the tissue or cells. These reagents facilitate the binding and detection of specific antigens or proteins, allowing the visualization and localization of the target molecules within the tissue or cells.

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The following diagram represents the semi-permeable plasma membrane of a cell. 0W0W0WOWOWOWOWOWOWOW Molecule K Extracellular space Molecule J Structure X Structure Y Intracellular space MAKAGU_____ KAPORAN 10.04 JWOWOWOWOWOK 22a) a) PE PEN i. Name the process used by Structure Y to transport Molecule J from the intracellular space to the extracellular space. (1 mark) SC ii. Describe the process named in part i above, in relation to the transport of molecule J. (2 marks) ABIU x₂x² # E E ABC DC 123 i. ii. 22b) 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 0-0 b) Describe the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane. (2 marks) hohoh S ------------------------------- ---- ------- -------- ----------- ------------- -------

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The process used by structure Y to transport Molecule J from the intracellular space to the extracellular space is Exocytosis.

The process of exocytosis named in part a above, in relation to the transport of molecule J, is the movement of the materials from the cytoplasm of the cell to the exterior of the cell.

The movement of these materials is achieved through the fusion of secretory vesicles (transport vesicles) with the plasma membrane of the cell, causing the secretion of the contents of the vesicles into the extracellular space.

This process is important in cells that produce and export substances like hormones, enzymes, neurotransmitters, and other secretory products.

The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as being fluid in nature, because the components of the membrane can move laterally within the bilayer.

The model also explains that the membrane is selectively permeable, meaning that it allows certain molecules to enter and leave the cell while preventing others from doing so.

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Which of the following is a negative regulator of B cells? O CD21 O CD80 O CD22 O All of the answers are positive regulators.

Answers

The negative regulator of B cells among the given options is CD22. Among the options provided, CD22 is the negative regulator of B cells. Option c is correct answer.

CD22, also known as Siglec-2, is a transmembrane protein expressed on the surface of B cells. It acts as an inhibitory receptor that regulates B cell signaling and activation. CD22 contains immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitor motifs (ITIMs) in its cytoplasmic domain, which upon phosphorylation recruit phosphatases to inhibit signaling pathways involved in B cell activation. By inhibiting B cell signaling, CD22 plays a role in modulating the immune response and preventing excessive B cell activation.

On the other hand, CD21 and CD80 are positive regulators of B cells. CD21, also known as complement receptor 2 (CR2), is involved in enhancing B cell activation by binding to complement-coated antigens. CD80, also known as B7-1, is a co-stimulatory molecule expressed on antigen-presenting cells and provides a co-stimulatory signal for B cell activation.

Therefore, the correct answer is option c. CD22, as it is a negative regulator of B cells.

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The complete question is

Which of the following is a negative regulator of B cells?

a. CD21

b. CD80

c. CD22

d. All of the answers are positive regulators.

A 21-year-old college student presents to the ER, complaining of urinary urgency and flank pain. Microscopic exam of her urine reveals gram-negative rods. Prior to starting the patient on antibiotics, she abruptly develops fever, shaking chills and delirium. Hypotension and hyperventilation rapidly follow. This young woman is likely responding to: exotoxin lipopolysaccharide hyaluronidase peptidoglycan collagenase

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Based on the given clinical presentation, the young woman is likely responding to endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) produced by the gram-negative rods identified in her urine.

The symptoms of fever, shaking chills, delirium, hypotension, and hyperventilation are indicative of a systemic inflammatory response known as sepsis.

Gram-negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, or Klebsiella pneumoniae, have lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in their cell walls.

LPS is an endotoxin that is released upon bacterial cell death or lysis. It activates the immune system and triggers a cascade of inflammatory responses.

In severe cases, this can lead to sepsis, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by widespread inflammation, organ dysfunction, and low blood pressure.

The abrupt onset of fever, shaking chills, and subsequent development of hypotension and hyperventilation in the young woman suggest a systemic inflammatory response triggered by endotoxin release.

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With Parkinson's Disease, ____________________________.
Select one or more:
a. long-term exposure to pesticides is associated with an increased risk for developing symptoms
b. etiology of early & late-onset forms are primarily genetic in origin
c. cured through treatments combining use of L-Dopa with occupational & electroconvulsive stimulation therapies
d. progressive onset of symptoms include a loss of motor control, shakes, tremors, rigidity, disordered affect and mood, chronic fatigue
e. abnormal clumping of Tau proteins interfere with neurotransmission in the Substantia nigra

Answers

Parkinson's Disease is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system (CNS) that manifests through progressive symptoms such as loss of motor control, shakes, tremors, rigidity, disordered affect and mood, and chronic fatigue.

It is caused by the death of dopaminergic neurons in the brain that synthesize dopamine. As a result, the CNS becomes deficient in dopamine, leading to abnormal movement patterns that resemble the symptoms of Parkinson's Disease. Additionally, Parkinson's Disease is associated with an abnormal clumping of Tau proteins, which interfere with neurotransmission in the Substantia nigra. The etiology of early and late-onset forms of Parkinson's Disease is primarily genetic in origin, but it may also be caused by long-term exposure to pesticides, which is associated with an increased risk for developing symptoms.

While there is no cure for Parkinson's Disease, treatments combining the use of L-Dopa with occupational and electroconvulsive stimulation therapies can help improve symptoms and quality of life for patients. However, the effectiveness of these treatments depends on the severity of the symptoms, age, and overall health of the patient. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are essential for improving the prognosis of Parkinson's Disease patients.

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Genetic information is stored in DNA. DNA consists of four types of [A] joined through a sugar-phosphate backbone. In the process of [B] the information in DNA is copied into mRNA. During [C] the mRNA is a template for the synthesis of protein. A sequence of three bases, called a codon, specifies an [D]. The codons are read by the anti-codons of [E] molecules in the process of translation. Fill in the blanks A. B. C. D. E.

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Genetic information is stored in DNA. DNA consists of four types of nucleotides joined through a sugar-phosphate backbone.

In the process of transcription, the information in DNA is copied into mRNA. During translation the mRNA is a template for the synthesis of protein. A sequence of three bases, called a codon, specifies an amino acid. The codons are read by the anti-codons of tRNA molecules in the process of translation.

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What are monosaccharides?
Select one alternative:
Alcohols or ketones that have one hydroxyl group
Alcohols or ketones that have two or more hydroxyl groups
Aldehydes or ketones that have two or more hydroxyl groups
Aldehydes or ketones that have one hydroxyl group

Answers

Monosaccharides are aldehydes or ketones that have one hydroxyl group.

Monosaccharides are the simplest type of carbohydrate. They are frequently described as basic sugars since they are the basic building blocks of carbohydrates. Because of their simple structure, monosaccharides are sometimes referred to as simple sugars. Monosaccharides are often classified by the number of carbon atoms in their structure.

Monosaccharides are simple carbohydrates with one molecule of sugar that cannot be further broken down into smaller molecules through hydrolysis. Monosaccharides have the chemical formula (CH2O)n, where n can be any number between three and seven.

As a result, the carbon backbone of monosaccharides varies from three to seven carbons in length. Monosaccharides, often known as simple sugars, have a variety of chemical properties and play important physiological roles in both plants and animals.

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There are four main types of brain wave recorded in an EEG (delta: theta; alpha; and beta) True False Which of the following is true concerning cerebral lateralization? we're born with complete cerebral lateralization women are less likely to have severe symptoms from injury to one side of the brain men are less likely to have severe symptoms from injury to one side of the brain O everyone has analytical skills in the left brain and creative skills in the right brain

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The adage "There are four main types of brain waves recorded in an EEG (delta, theta, alpha, and beta)" is accurate. Electroencephalography, or EEG, is a method for measuring and documenting brain electrical activity.

It can identify various kinds of brain waves based on their frequency and amplitude.The idea that "Everyone has analytical skills in the left brain and creative skills in the right brain" is untrue with regard to cerebral lateralization. Brain specialisation in either the left or right hemisphere is referred to as cerebral lateralization. Although it is true that some processes are more strongly associated with one hemisphere, such as language processing being more strongly associated with the left hemisphere for most people, the idea of rigid analytical skills

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If leutenizing hormone were inhibited from being release in a human male, which of the following events would not occur? the development of male secondary characteristics Osperm production and maturation release of GnRH from the hypothalamus release of FSH from the pituitary growth hormone production

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If leutenizing hormone (LH) were inhibited from being released in a human male, the event that would not occur is the release of GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone) from the hypothalamus.

In the male reproductive system, the hypothalamus releases GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to secrete luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). LH plays a crucial role in male reproductive function by stimulating the production of testosterone in the testes, leading to the development of male secondary characteristics such as facial hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle development.

If LH release is inhibited, it would disrupt the hormonal cascade, preventing the release of testosterone and subsequent events dependent on testosterone. However, the inhibition of LH release does not directly affect the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus.

Therefore, the event that would not occur if LH release is inhibited is the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus. The development of male secondary characteristics, sperm production and maturation, release of FSH from the pituitary, and growth hormone production can still occur, but they may be affected indirectly due to the disruption in testosterone production resulting from the inhibited LH release.

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Question 48 Not yet graded / 7 pts Part A about the topic of integration of metabolic pathways. What is the preferred metabolic fuel in most cells, and how does it relate to the "overall reaction of energy metabolism"? And, where (at what point in what pathway) does this compound enter into the energy metabolism process?

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In most cells, glucose is the preferred metabolic fuel, and it relates to the overall reaction of energy metabolism.

It serves as the primary source of energy for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration in organisms. Glucose is a carbohydrate and is the end product of photosynthesis. It provides a source of energy for cellular respiration, which is necessary for the proper functioning of cells.

The breakdown of glucose involves two different types of reactions: catabolic and anabolic. The catabolic reaction involves the breakdown of glucose into smaller molecules that release energy, while the anabolic reaction involves the

synthesis of larger molecules from smaller ones, which requires energy.

Glucose enters into the energy metabolism process through glycolysis, which is the first stage of cellular respiration.

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hydrogen peroxide is associated with a) phagocytosis and the phagosome b) signaling pathways c) physical barrier d) chemical barrier e) inflammation IL-6 is associated with a) phagocytosis and the phagosome Ob) chemical barrier Oc) physical barrier d) inflammation Superoxide anion is associated with a) inflammation Ob) chemical barrier Oc) physical barrier d) phagocytosis and the phagosome e) signaling pathways

Answers

It has a variety of functions, including the regulation of the immune response, inflammation, and hematopoiesis. IL-6 is involved in inflammation, which is the body's response to infection or injury. It induces fever, activates the complement system, and increases the production of acute-phase proteins, among other things.

Hydrogen peroxide is associated with a) phagocytosis and the phagosome. Superoxide anion is associated with d) phagocytosis and the phagosome e) signaling pathways. IL-6 is associated with d) inflammation.What is hydrogen peroxide?Hydrogen peroxide is a chemical compound that is commonly used as an oxidizing and bleaching agent. It is a pale blue liquid that is soluble in water and has a slightly acidic taste. It is utilized in a variety of industries, including paper and textile manufacturing, as well as in the medical field.Hydrogen peroxide's role in phagocytosis and the phagosomePhagocytosis is a process in which cells ingest and destroy pathogens and debris in the body. Hydrogen peroxide is involved in the phagocytic process. Phagocytic cells create hydrogen peroxide and superoxide in response to stimuli from pathogens.The phagosome, which is a cellular organelle that aids in the degradation of pathogens, contains hydrogen peroxide.

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Not all brains are the same. What makes us cognitively superior (smarter) than the other species?
a) Comparatively small areas of the brain dedicated to the association areas.
b) Comparatively large areas of the brain dedicated to the primary cortical areas V1, A1, S1, etc...
c) Comparatively small areas of the brain dedicated to the primary cortical areas in V1, A1, S1, etc...

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The answer to this question is b) Comparatively large areas of the brain dedicated to the primary cortical areas V1, A1, S1, etc...

When compared to other species, human beings can be seen to have a larger brain with greater number of neurons and more complex connections among them. A considerable portion of this large brain is dedicated to the primary cortical areas V1 (visual), A1 (auditory), S1 (somatosensory), including other sensory areas. These areas get information from the environment and process it. This constitutes the groundwork for high-level cognitive processes like perception, attention, memory, and reasoning. This enhanced capacity and complexity of the primary cortical areas allow humans to perceive, analyze, and respond to the environment in more refined ways than other species.

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the longest living immunoglobulins are IgG1 and IgG4 of 21 days and other types of immunoglobulins have even shorter life span. Yet, people who have been vaccinated or recovered from natural infection of COVID-19 have been found to have neutralizing antibodies in circulation for up to 6 months. Can you provide an explanation for this phenomenon

Answers

The phenomenon provided in the question can be explained by multiple factors, including the generation of long-lived plasma cells, the presence of memory B cells, and ongoing antigen exposure or stimulation.

When the body is exposed to a pathogen, such as the SARS-CoV-2 virus, B cells produce antibodies to fight the infection. While most immunoglobulins have relatively short lifespans, the immune response to COVID-19 involves the generation of long-lived plasma cells. These plasma cells are capable of continuously producing specific antibodies for an extended period.

Additionally, memory B cells play a crucial role in maintaining immunity. These cells "remember" the pathogen and can quickly respond to reinfection. Memory B cells can undergo activation and differentiation into antibody-secreting plasma cells when they encounter the virus again. This process helps to sustain the production of neutralizing antibodies over time.

Furthermore, ongoing exposure to viral antigens or periodic booster vaccinations can contribute to the presence of detectable neutralizing antibodies in circulation for an extended period. Continuous antigen exposure can stimulate the immune system to produce new plasma cells, while booster vaccinations can reinforce the immune response and replenish antibody levels.

It's important to note that individual variations in immune responses can also influence the duration of antibody presence. Factors such as age, overall health, and the severity of the initial infection or vaccination can affect antibody production and longevity.

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HDAC's are important enzymes involved in the regulation of Gene expression. This is because
a.
they add methyl groups from histones creating less gene expression.
b.
they create euchromatic structure by adding acetyl groups to cytosine.
c.
They create the Z form of DNA by removing acetyl groups from cytosines.
d.
they add methyl groups onto cytosines on DNA and create a heterochromatic structure.
e.
they remove acetyl groups from histones creating less gene expression.

Answers

HDAC's or histone deacetylases are important enzymes involved in the regulation of gene expression.

These enzymes remove acetyl groups from histones that are bound to DNA, causing the chromatin to become more compact and restrict the transcription machinery, resulting in a decrease in gene expression.

Hence, option E, "they remove acetyl groups from histones creating less gene expression" is the correct answer.

Let us understand the concept of HDAC's and their role in gene expression: Gene expression is the process in which the genetic information present in DNA is converted into functional proteins. The expression of genes can be controlled by several mechanisms, including epigenetic modifications. Epigenetic modifications are changes that occur in DNA and its associated proteins without altering the nucleotide sequence.

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please send the solution for above question in 1 hr . I will upvote
you .
QUESTIONS
2A
An arthropod called a Cyclops has antennae that are either smooth or Rough. The allele for Rough (R) is dominant over smooth (r). In the same organism Non-resistance to pesticides (P) is dominant over resistance to pesticides (p).
i) Pesticide resistant smooth antennae cyclops is crossed to the double heterozygous one. Write the genotypes of the parents, show the crosses with the help of Punnett square and write the phenotype and genotype ratio for the crosses. ii) How many genotypes are possible for pesticide resistance irrespective of the antennae texture? Write all genotypes. 2B
The Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) is an X-linked recessive trait due to deletion or point mutation in the dystrophin gene leading to its defective production.
i) If affected male has a child with a carrier woman, what is the probability that the child will be affected daughter? Show the crosses and Write the genotype for both the cases if she is affected. ii) If unaffected male marries a carrier woman what is the probability that the child will be affected daughter? Show the crosses and write the genotype of the child. 2C
A brown-eyed woman whose father had blue eyes and mother had brown eyes marries a brown-eyed man, whose parents are also brown-eyed. But they have a daughter who is blue-eyed.
i) Draw a pedigree chart for both the family (the two parents) using proper symbol. ii) Indicate each individual's possible genotypes.
iii) Identify the mode of inheritance for the blue eyes

Answers

2A)i) The genotype of pesticide resistant smooth antennae cyclops (RrPp) crossed to double heterozygous (RRPp) is given below

ii) For pesticide resistance, irrespective of the antennae texture, there are four possible genotypes. These are Pp, PP, pp, and pP.

2B)i) If an affected male (XdY) has a child with a carrier woman (XDXd), the probability of having an affected daughter (XdXd) is 50% and the probability of having an affected son (XdY) is 50%.!

ii) If an unaffected male (XDY) marries a carrier woman (XDXd), the probability of having an affected daughter (XdXd) is 25%, the probability of having an unaffected daughter (XDXd) is 25%, the probability of having an unaffected son (XDY) is 25%, and the probability of having an affected son (XdY) is 25%.!

2C)i) The pedigree chart is shown below

ii) Possible genotypes for each individual are shown below:Brown-eyed woman with blue-eyed father and brown-eyed mother: BbBlue-eyed daughter: bbBrown-eyed man: BB or Bb

iii) The mode of inheritance for blue eyes is a recessive trait that is autosomal.

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i
dont remember how to solve this step by step
1) Some studies indicate that Brontosaurus (a very large dinosaur) weighed about 15,400kg. Let's assume μ = 15,400 and o = 1200kg. a) Calculate Pr{Y> 17,000} b) Now assume you have a sample of n = 10

Answers

a) P_r{Y > 17,000} ≈ 0.0918

b) P_r{Y > 17,000} for n = 10 dinosaurs is lower than the probability in part (a).

c) The probability in part (b) is lower because larger sample size reduces variability and provides a more accurate estimate of the population mean.

a) P_r{Y > 17,000} = P_r{(Y - μ) / σ > (17,000 - 15,400) / 1200}

= P_r{Z > 1.33} ≈ 0.0918

b) For a sample of size n = 10, the distribution of the sample mean Y' follows a normal distribution with mean μ and standard deviation σ/√n. Therefore, Pr{Y > 17,000} can be calculated using the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

c) The probability Pr{Y > 17,000} for a single observation is lower than the probability Pr{Y > 17,000} for a sample of size n = 10. This is because when taking a larger sample, the variability decreases and the sample mean becomes a more precise estimate of the population mean. Consequently, the probability of observing extreme values (such as Y > 17,000) decreases as the sample size increases.

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3. 4. 5. 6. List the main products of the light reactions of photosynthesis. Oxygen, ATP, NADPH List the main products of the carbon-fixation reactions of photosynthesis. What are the main events associated with each of the two photosystems in the light reactions, and what is the difference between antenna pigments and reaction center pigments? Describe the principal differences among the C3, C4, and CAM pathways

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The main products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ATP, NADPH, and oxygen. The main products of the carbon-fixation reactions of photosynthesis are G3P and ADP. The main events associated with each of the two photosystems in the light reactions are light absorption and electron transport.

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants and other autotrophic organisms convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. The process of photosynthesis consists of two main sets of reactions: the light reactions and the carbon-fixation reactions.

The main products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ATP, NADPH, and oxygen. In the light reactions, light energy is absorbed by antenna pigments and transferred to reaction center pigments. The excited electrons are then transferred through an electron transport chain, ultimately producing ATP and NADPH.

Oxygen is also produced as a byproduct of the light reactions.The main products of the carbon-fixation reactions of photosynthesis are G3P and ADP. In the carbon-fixation reactions, CO2 is fixed into organic compounds using the energy from ATP and NADPH produced in the light reactions.

The initial product of carbon fixation is a three-carbon compound called G3P, which can be used to synthesize glucose and other organic compounds. ADP is also produced in the carbon-fixation reactions.

The main events associated with each of the two photosystems in the light reactions are light absorption and electron transport. Photosystem II absorbs light with a peak absorption at 680 nm, while photosystem I absorbs light with a peak absorption at 700 nm.

Antenna pigments absorb light and transfer the energy to reaction center pigments. Excited electrons are then transferred through an electron transport chain, ultimately producing ATP and NADPH.Antenna pigments and reaction center pigments differ in their ability to absorb light.

Antenna pigments have a broad absorption spectrum and transfer the absorbed energy to reaction center pigments. Reaction center pigments have a narrow absorption spectrum and are responsible for initiating the electron transport chain.

The principal differences among the C3, C4, and CAM pathways lie in the way that carbon is fixed during photosynthesis. C3 plants fix carbon using the enzyme Rubisco in the Calvin cycle. C4 plants use a specialized mechanism to concentrate CO2 in the vicinity of Rubisco, which reduces photorespiration.

CAM plants open their stomata at night to take in CO2, which is stored as an organic acid. The organic acid is then broken down during the day to release CO2 for use in the Calvin cycle.

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The scientific study of organisms that are too small to be seen by the unaided human eye
Polysaccharide composed of alternating repeats of N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid and cross-linked by peptides that can be broken down by lysozyme in your saliva.
Occurrence, distribution and patterns of health and disease in populations of hosts.
The effects of two chemotherapeutical agents used together is greater than the sum of their effects when used individually.
Symbiosis between one or more species of fungi and a photosynthetic microorganism
Disruption of the normal microbiota within a host
Class for the causative agent for the cholera epidemic
Aligning DNA fragments in the correct order to eliminate overlaps
Genetic content that includes genes shared by all strains within a species and all genes specific to some strains
Quantitative measure of the ability of a pathogen to produce disease

Answers

a. The scientific study of organisms that are too small to be seen by the unaided human eye is known as microbiology. Microbiology involves the investigation of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, which play crucial roles in various biological processes and can have significant impacts on human health, the environment, and industry.

b. The polysaccharide described is known as peptidoglycan, which is a major component of bacterial cell walls. Peptidoglycan provides structural support to the bacterial cell and protects it from osmotic stress. It consists of repeating units of N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM), which are cross-linked by peptides. This network of cross-linked peptidoglycan provides strength and rigidity to the cell wall.

c. The study of the occurrence, distribution, and patterns of health and disease in populations of hosts is known as epidemiology. Epidemiologists investigate various factors, including the spread of diseases, risk factors, transmission routes, and the impact of interventions.

d. The phenomenon described is known as synergism or synergistic effect. When two chemotherapeutic agents are used together, their combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effects. This occurs when the agents interact with each other in a way that enhances their effectiveness against the target organism.

e. The symbiotic relationship between one or more species of fungi and a photosynthetic microorganism, typically a green alga or cyanobacterium, is known as lichen. Lichens are composite organisms where the fungal partner provides a protected environment and nutrients to the photosynthetic partner, while the photosynthetic partner produces organic compounds through photosynthesis.

f. Disruption of the normal microbiota within a host refers to dysbiosis. The human body harbors a complex and diverse community of microorganisms, collectively known as the microbiota, which plays a crucial role in maintaining health and homeostasis. However, various factors such as antibiotics, diet, stress, and disease can disrupt the balance of the microbiota, leading to dysbiosis.

g. The causative agent for the cholera epidemic is a bacterium called Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is a severe diarrheal disease that is primarily transmitted through contaminated water or food. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin known as cholera toxin, which causes the characteristic watery diarrhea associated with the disease.

h. The process of aligning DNA fragments in the correct order to eliminate overlaps is known as DNA sequencing assembly or sequence assembly. In DNA sequencing, the genetic material is fragmented into smaller pieces, and the sequence of these fragments is determined.

i. The genetic content that includes genes shared by all strains within a species and all genes specific to some strains is known as the core genome and the accessory genome, respectively. The core genome refers to the set of genes that are present in all strains within a particular species. These genes typically encode essential functions and are conserved across the species. On the other hand, the accessory genome consists of genes that are present only in some strains within the species. These genes can confer additional traits or capabilities to the specific strains, such as antibiotic resistance, virulence factors, or metabolic adaptations.

j. The quantitative measure of the ability of a pathogen to produce disease is known as virulence. Virulence factors are characteristics or molecules possessed by pathogens that enable them to cause disease in a host.

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A cation nutrient entering an endodermal cell from the soil water must have a positive equilibrium potential. True False Question 8 2 pts A cation nutrient entering an endodermal cell from the soil wa

Answers

A cation nutrient entering an endodermal cell from the soil water must have a positive equilibrium potential is a false statement.

What is a cation? A cation is an ion that bears a positive charge. When a cation nutrient enters an endodermal cell from soil water, it does not always have a positive equilibrium potential. The positive and negative electrical forces within a cell and outside of a cell interact to establish an electrical equilibrium potential. Ions move across the membrane of a cell until the electrical gradient of the ion inside the cell is equal to that outside the cell.

When the electrical gradient is equal, the ion is in equilibrium. Cation nutrients must be balanced to allow a positive equilibrium potential to happen. The false statement is that cation nutrients must have a positive equilibrium potential when entering an endodermal cell from soil water.The main answer to the question is that the statement is false. Cation nutrients must be balanced to allow a positive equilibrium potential to happen. It does not always have a positive equilibrium potential when entering an endodermal cell from soil water.

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Question 1. Explain (between 4-6) the
differences between miRNA and siRNA.

Answers

MiRNA and siRNA are two forms of RNA molecules that play important regulatory roles in gene expression.

Origin: miRNA and RNA are produced differently. MiRNAs are produced from non-coding regions of the DNA while siRNAs are produced from long double-stranded RNA molecules.  Mechanism of action.

MiRNA regulates gene expression by binding to messenger RNA (mRNA) and inhibiting its translation into protein. siRNA, initiates a process called RNA interference (RNAi) which leads to the cleavage and destruction of mRNA. Target specificity.

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a. Describe in detail the process of C4 photosynthesis, including enzymes and cell types. b. Describe how 2 possible environmental changes could lead to a decrease in abundance of C4 plants in Missouri in the future. c. Describe in detail how CAM photosynthesis is different from C4 photosynthesis. d. Give examples of plants used for food production that have C4 and CAM photosynthetic pathways (one example for each).

Answers

a. C₄ photosynthesis involves two cell types (mesophyll and bundle sheath cells) and specific enzymes for efficient carbon fixation. b). Possible environmental changes that could decrease C₄ plant abundance in Missouri: increased atmospheric CO₂ levels and alterations in temperature patterns. c). CAM photosynthesis differs from C₄ photosynthesis by temporal separation of CO₂ fixation and Calvin cycle processes within the same cell. d). Examples of food crops: C₄ - maize (corn), CAM - pineapples and agave.

a. C₄ photosynthesis is a unique adaptation found in certain plants that enables them to efficiently fix carbon dioxide (CO₂) under conditions of high temperature and water stress. The process involves the cooperation of two different types of cells: mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells.

In mesophyll cells, an enzyme called PEP carboxylase captures CO₂ and converts it into a four-carbon compound known as oxaloacetate (OAA). This initial reaction occurs in the presence of high concentrations of CO₂. OAA is then converted into malate or aspartate and transported to bundle sheath cells through plasmodesmata.

In bundle sheath cells, malate or aspartate is decarboxylated, releasing CO₂ that enters the Calvin cycle for further carbon fixation. The decarboxylation process occurs in close proximity to the Rubisco enzyme, minimizing the loss of CO₂ through photorespiration. The released CO₂ is effectively concentrated within the bundle sheath cells, enhancing the efficiency of carbon fixation.

b. Two possible environmental changes that could lead to a decrease in abundance of C₄ plants in Missouri in the future are increased atmospheric CO₂ levels and alterations in temperature patterns.

1) Increased atmospheric CO₂ levels: C₄ plants have a unique advantage in efficiently fixing CO₂ even under low atmospheric CO₂ conditions. However, with the rising levels of atmospheric CO₂, C₃ plants (which do not possess the C₄ pathway) can potentially improve their photosynthetic efficiency. This could lead to increased competition for resources, causing a decline in the abundance of C₄ plants.

2) Alterations in temperature patterns: C₄ plants are well-adapted to warm climates, as their CO₂ fixation process is more efficient under high temperatures. If the temperature patterns in Missouri shift towards cooler conditions, it may favor the growth and proliferation of C₃ plants that are better suited to cooler temperatures. This change could also lead to a decrease in the abundance of C₄ plants.

c. CAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism) photosynthesis is a unique photosynthetic pathway found in certain plants, particularly succulents, that allows them to conserve water in arid environments. CAM plants open their stomata at night and fix CO₂ into organic acids, primarily malate, within specialized cells called mesophyll cells.

During the day, the stomata remain closed to prevent water loss, and the stored malate is decarboxylated, releasing CO₂ for the Calvin cycle. This separation of CO₂ fixation and Calvin cycle processes in time (night and day, respectively) is the primary difference between CAM and C₄ photosynthesis.

CAM plants exhibit temporal separation of processes within the same cell, whereas C₄ plants exhibit spatial separation of processes in different cell types (mesophyll and bundle sheath cells).

d. Examples of plants used for food production that have C₄ and CAM photosynthetic pathways are:

- C4 photosynthesis: Maize (corn) is a prominent example of a C₄ plant used for food production. Other examples include sugarcane, sorghum, and millet.

- CAM photosynthesis: Pineapples are an example of a CAM plant used for food production. Another example is the agave plant, which is used for producing tequila and agave syrup.

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For trpEDCBA operon, is TrpR an acitivator or repressor? O Activator None O Repressor O Both

Answers

1. IP6K1 refers to inositol hexakisphosphate kinase 1, an enzyme involved in the metabolism of inositol phosphate molecules. 2. The global gene deletion of IP6K1 was found to have a beneficial effect on fatty liver in a study by Chakraborty et al. (2010). 3. Pharmacological inhibition of IP6K1 was shown to improve fatty liver in a study by Ghoshal et al. (2016). 4. Ghoshal et al. (2022) investigated the role of IP6K1 in age-induced obesity and fatty liver.

1. IP6K1, or inositol hexakisphosphate kinase 1, is an enzyme involved in the phosphorylation of inositol hexakisphosphate (IP6) to produce inositol pyrophosphates (PP-IP5 and IP7). IP6K1 plays a role in various cellular processes, including signal transduction, cell growth, and metabolism. 2. Chakraborty et al. (2010) conducted a study on IP6K1 global gene deletion in mice and found that the absence of IP6K1 led to a reduction in hepatic lipid accumulation and improved fatty liver. The study suggested that IP6K1 deletion resulted in altered lipid metabolism and improved hepatic insulin sensitivity. 3. Ghoshal et al. (2016) investigated the effect of pharmacological inhibition of IP6K1 using a specific inhibitor in mice with fatty liver. The study showed that IP6K1 inhibition resulted in reduced hepatic steatosis, improved glucose metabolism, and decreased inflammation in the liver. 4. Ghoshal et al. (2022) explored the role of IP6K1 in age-induced obesity and fatty liver. The study demonstrated that IP6K1 deficiency or inhibition protected against age-induced weight gain, adiposity, and hepatic steatosis in mice. The findings suggested that targeting IP6K1 could be a potential therapeutic strategy for age-related obesity and fatty liver.

These studies collectively highlight the significance of IP6K1 in lipid metabolism and the potential of targeting this enzyme for the treatment of fatty liver and related metabolic disorders.

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What is fragile X-syndrome? What are the molecular events that
underlie it?

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Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes intellectual disability.

The underlying molecular events in fragile X syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene.

What is Fragile X syndrome?

Intellectual disability and other behavioral or developmental difficulties are common effects from fragile x syndrome's genetic disorder. It tends to affect both genders equally, although males may display more severe symptoms overall than females do.

Fragile x mental retαrdation 1 (FMR1) gene holds its primary responsibility for molecular conditions behind this syndrome.

The gene is found located on the X chromosome, carrying specific DNA sequences that experience repeat expansion where CGG trinucleotide enlargement frequently occurs across those with diagnosis of this condition.

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can
you help me with thses please
Which of these statements apply to post-translational modifications (PTM)? O a. Glycines can be phosphorylated O b. Membrane proteins always have sugars attached to increase solubility OC. Acetylation

Answers

a. Glycines can be phosphorylated. True. Glycines are the only amino acids that can be phosphorylated. Phosphorylation is a common post-translational modification that can change the activity of a protein.

* **b. Membrane proteins always have sugars attached to increase solubility.** False. Not all membrane proteins have sugars attached to them. Sugars can be attached to membrane proteins, but they are not always present.

* **c. Acetylation can change the activity of a protein.** True. Acetylation is a post-translational modification that can change the activity of a protein. Acetylation can block the activity of enzymes, or it can make proteins more stable.

Here is an explanation of post-translational modifications in 80 words:

* **Post-translational modifications (PTMs) are chemical changes that occur to proteins after they are synthesized.** PTMs can affect the structure, function, and localization of proteins. **PTMs are important for regulating many cellular processes, including cell signaling, protein folding, and protein degradation.** There are many different types of PTMs, and they can be carried out by a variety of enzymes.

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"Based on the information given, are there toxicologu studies that
may he avioded because of special circumstances. three situations
are listed below, please list the rationale of they exist and any
sp
8 Here are some descriptions of a few molecules. Based on the information given, are there toxicology studies that may be avoided because of special circumstances. If so, then the cost and perhaps time of development may be reduced. Discuss these special dispensations, if they exist and the rationale why those studies may not be necessary; that is, everybody-even the risk averse deem these studies not useful in risk assessment. Large peptide molecule for the treatment of pruritus (itch) The therapeutic is applied topically and studies have shown that no measurable drug reaches the systemic circulation. The intended patient population includes adult and elderly males and females. Large protein molecule (human-specific) administered intravenously for the treatment of Inflammatory Bowel Disease. The intended patient population includes males and females above the age of 18 years. A small peptide (arginine-histidine-alanine-tyrosine) for the topical treatment of decubitus ulcers. When applied to dermal ulcers, some drug does reach the systemic circulation. The intended patient population is typically the elderly, though a lot of off label use is included in younger patients (eg. Quadriplegic or persistent coma).

Answers

Non-clinical systemic toxicity testing is required as the systemic exposure is anticipated.

There are toxicology studies that may be avoided because of special circumstances for the three molecules. Here are the reasons:For a large peptide molecule for the treatment of pruritus (itch):It is applied topically and studies have shown that no measurable drug reaches the systemic circulation. The intended patient population includes adult and elderly males and females. Therefore, non-clinical systemic toxicity testing is not required.For a large protein molecule (human-specific) administered intravenously for the treatment of Inflammatory Bowel Disease:Since the intended patient population includes males and females above the age of 18 years and the molecule is human-specific, non-clinical systemic toxicity testing can be avoided.

Moreover, animal studies may not be necessary.For a small peptide (arginine-histidine-alanine-tyrosine) for the topical treatment of decubitus ulcers:When applied to dermal ulcers, some drug does reach the systemic circulation. The intended patient population is typically the elderly, though a lot of off label use is included in younger patients (eg. Quadriplegic or persistent coma). Therefore, non-clinical systemic toxicity testing is required as the systemic exposure is anticipated.

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You have been given the accession no NM_003183.6. a. List the name of protein domain(s) coded by this gene. b. Delete the exon which starts from 456 to 586 nucleotides. Find out and write down the protein domain(s) coded by this shorter sequence. Prove your findings with related images. c. When you delete exon positioned at 456 to 586, does this protein sequence remain in frame? Explain your answer. d. Which software(s) did you use for your answers? Write down the name(s) and aim(s) for each software Search for "3AXK' protein at PDB database; a. From which organism is this protein? b. How many beta strands and alpha helixes are found in this protein? c. How many subunits found in this protein? d. Paste a print screen of the 3D structure of this protein whit space fill style, coloured subunits at black background.

Answers

a. The protein 3AXK is obtained from the organism, "Homo sapiens." b. The protein has 6 beta strands and 9 alpha helices. c. The protein has four subunits in total. d. The 3D structure of the protein 3AXK.

a. The name of the protein domain coded by the given gene, NM_003183.6 is "integrin beta tail domain."

b. When the exon that starts from 456 to 586 nucleotides is deleted, the protein domain coded by this shorter sequence is the "Beta-tail domain." Here's the pictorial representation of the protein domains coded by the given gene:   

c. No, the protein sequence does not remain in the frame when the exon positioned at 456 to 586 is deleted. It results in a frameshift mutation as the codon is changed from GGT to TGC. So, it ultimately affects the downstream codons. 

d. The software that can be used for this answer is ExonPrimer. It is an effective tool for designing exon-specific PCR primers. 3AXK protein at the PDB database.

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Which of the following would be a good example of analogous? bacteria resistance to antibiotic and viruses reproduction whales reproduction and dolphins reproduction leg of a horse and human leg tail

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The leg of a horse and a human leg would be a good example of analogous structures.

Analogous structures are those that have similar functions or purposes but do not share a common evolutionary origin. In this case, both the leg of a horse and a human leg serve the purpose of locomotion, allowing the organism to move. However, they have evolved independently in different lineages (horses and humans) and have different anatomical structures.

Bacteria resistance to antibiotics and viruses reproduction, as well as whales reproduction and dolphins reproduction, do not demonstrate analogous structures. Bacteria resistance to antibiotics and viruses reproduction would fall under different biological processes, while whales and dolphins are closely related and have similar reproductive strategies due to their shared ancestry.

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Assuming a global proportions for ABO blood types are 44% O and 10% B. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg, what would be the genotypic proportions for the following genotypes?
AA:
AO:
BB:
BO:
AB:
O:

Answers

According to the global proportions of ABO blood types, 44% of the individuals have O blood type and 10% have B blood type.

Now, we have to use the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle for calculating the genotypic proportions of the given blood types.

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that the frequency of alleles and genotypes in a population will remain the same from generation to generation in the absence of any evolutionary influences.

It helps in understanding the frequency of alleles and genotypes in a population.

The general equation of Hardy-Weinberg is:
[tex]p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1[/tex]

where p2 is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype, q2 is the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype, and 2pq is the frequency of the heterozygous genotype.

Now, we can use these formulas to calculate the genotypic proportions of the given blood types.

Genotypic proportions for the following genotypes:

[tex]AA: p² = (0.56)² = 0.3136[/tex]

The genotypic proportion of AA is 31.36%.

[tex]AO: 2pq = 2(0.56)(0.44) = 0.4928[/tex]

The genotypic proportion of AO is 49.28%.

[tex]BB: q² = (0.10)² = 0.01[/tex]

The genotypic proportion of BB is 1%.

[tex]BO: 2pq = 2(0.56)(0.10) = 0.112[/tex]

The genotypic proportion of BO is 11.2%.

AB: This blood type has codominance.

The genotypic proportion of AB can be calculated by adding the frequencies of A and B alleles.

[tex]p(A) = 0.56, q(B) = 0.10[/tex]

[tex]p(A) + q(B) = 0.56 + 0.10 = 0.66[/tex]

The genotypic proportion of AB is 66%.

[tex]O: q² = (0.44)² = 0.1936[/tex]

The genotypic proportion of O is 19.36%.

Hence, the genotypic proportions for the given blood types using the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle are:

[tex]AA: 31.36%AO: 49.28%BB: 1%BO: 11.2%AB: 66%O: 19.36%[/tex]

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Which of the following is NOT true about the endocrine system? Hormones travel in the body to a specific location. Hormones help to maintain homeostasis in the body. A hormone only induces a response in cells containing its receptor. O It is responsible for controlling and coordinating body functions. Hormones are released into the blood stream.

Answers

The statement "A hormone only induces a response in cells containing its receptor" is NOT true about the endocrine system. The correct answer is option c.

Hormones are chemical messengers produced by endocrine glands and released into the bloodstream. They travel throughout the body, but they can only exert their effects on cells that possess specific receptors for that particular hormone.

These receptors are typically found on target cells, which are specific cells that are capable of responding to a particular hormone. When a hormone binds to its receptor on a target cell, it triggers a series of biochemical reactions that lead to the desired physiological response.

However, cells that do not have the appropriate receptor for a specific hormone will not be affected by that hormone, highlighting the specificity of hormone-receptor interactions in the endocrine system.

The correct answer is option c.

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Complete question

Which of the following is NOT true about the endocrine system?

a. Hormones travel in the body to a specific location.

b. Hormones help to maintain homeostasis in the body.

c. A hormone only induces a response in cells containing its receptor.  

d. It is responsible for controlling and coordinating body functions.

e. Hormones are released into the blood stream.

Classifying Matter: Pure and Impure Substances Name: Date: Purpose: To identify substances as pure or impure based on their composition Legend: black = carbon (C) blue = nitrogen (N) green= chlorine (

Answers

Pure substances are composed of a single type of element or compound, while impure substances contain more than one type of element or compound.

Pure substances are characterized by having a uniform composition throughout, meaning they consist of only one type of element or compound. This could include elements such as carbon (C), nitrogen (N), or compounds like water (H2O) or sodium chloride (NaCl). On the other hand, impure substances, also known as mixtures, contain more than one type of element or compound. These mixtures can be further classified into homogeneous mixtures (uniform composition) or heterogeneous mixtures (non-uniform composition). Impure substances can be separated into their individual components using various separation techniques.

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