Microsoft Excel allows users to create formulas, charts, graphs, and pivot tables to help them make informed business decisions. Linear Program: Let, x1 be the number of servings of salad and x2 be the number of servings of mixed vegetables.
Let, the cost of a salad and mixed vegetable be 25 cents and 40 cents per serving, respectively. The objective is to minimize the total cost of salad and mixed vegetables. Minimize: 0.25x1 + 0.40x2Subject to the following constraints:1.8x1 + 2.6x2 >= 1500 (minimum protein requirement)0x1 + 0x2 <= 3500 (maximum cholesterol requirement)3.6x1 + 4x2 >= 2500 (minimum fiber requirement)0x1 + 1x2 <= 2000 (maximum protein requirement)Graph:In the above graph, the feasible region is represented by the shaded region. The intersection points of the two lines will give us the possible optimal solutions.
= 800B: 0.25(1000) + 0.40(500)
= 325C: 0.25(666.67) + 0.40(833.33)
= 433.33D: 0.25(277.78) + 0.40(722.22) = 370.37E: 0.25(0) + 0.40(875)
= 350The minimum cost of salad and mixed vegetables is at point B, where x1 = 1000 and x2
= 500.
To know more about vegetable visit:
https://brainly.com/question/1981135
#SPJ11
(Topic: Cost of Debt) Micro Spinoffs Inc. has one issue of debt outstanding. It is a 20-year debt issued 4 years ago at par value with a coupon rate of 1.8%, paid annually. Today, the debt is still selling at par value. If the firm's tax bracket is 21%, what is its after-tax cost of debt? Assume a face value of $1,000.
(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)
The after-tax cost of debt is approximately 1.41%. The after-tax cost of debt can be determined by applying the formula after-tax cost of debt = before-tax cost of debt x (1 − tax rate)
Formula: After-tax cost of debt = before-tax cost of debt x (1 − tax rate)
For the given scenario: Face value of debt (FV) = $1,000
Coupon rate (r) = 1.8%
Years to maturity (n) = 20 years
Time period of coupon payments (t) = 1 year
Tax rate = 21%
We know that the annual coupon payment is given by: FV × r = $1,000 × 1.8% = $18
Before-tax cost of debt (YTM) is calculated using the following formula: PV = Coupon payment / r [1 − (1 + r)-n] + FV / (1 + r)n
Where, PV = Market price of the debt
For this scenario, the market price of the debt is equal to its face value, i.e., $1,000.
Hence, we can substitute the values and solve for r:1,000 = 18 / r [1 − (1 + r)-20] + 1,000 / (1 + r)201,000r
= 18 × [1 − (1 + r)-20] + 1,000r20201,000r
= 18 × [1 − (1 + r)-20] + 1,000r20 − 1,000r
= 18 × [1 − (1 + r)-20]r ≈ 0.0179 or 1.79%
Before-tax cost of debt (YTM) = 1.79%
After-tax cost of debt = 1.79% x (1 − 21%) = 1.41%
Thus, the after-tax cost of debt is approximately 1.41%.
To know more about tax visit :
https://brainly.com/question/12611692
#SPJ11
Nataro, Incorporated, has sales of $678,000, costs of $339,000, depreciation expense of $84,000, interest expense of $49,000, and a tax rate of 21 percent. The firm paid out $79,000 in cash dividends, What is the addition to retained earnings? Note: Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to the nearest whole number, e.g. 32.
The addition to retained earnings is 10,240 dollars. Retained earnings can be defined as the amount of net income that is left with the company after paying off dividends to the shareholders.
Calculation of the addition to retained earnings for Nataro, Incorporated are as follows: Net income = Sales - Costs - Depreciation expense - Interest expense Taxable income = Net income - Deduction for taxable incomeTax = Taxable income × Tax rate Addition to retained earnings = Net income - Dividends - Tax Calculation of Net income: Particulars Amount in dollarsSales678,000Costs339,000Depreciation expense84,000Interest expense49,000Total costs and expenses472,000Net income206,000 Calculation of Deduction for taxable income: ParticularsAmount in dollarsDepreciation expense84,000Total costs and expenses472,000Deduction for taxable income556,000
Calculation of Tax: Particulars Amount in dollars Taxable income556,000Tax rate21%Tax116,760 Calculation of Addition to retained earnings:ParticularsAmount in dollarsNet income206,000Dividends79,000Tax116,760Addition to retained earnings10,240. The addition to retained earnings is 10,240 dollars. Additional information: Retained earnings can be defined as the amount of net income that is left with the company after paying off dividends to the shareholders. These earnings are usually reinvested in the business to further expand it. It is shown under shareholders' equity on the balance sheet.
To know more about Dividends, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/2960815
#SPJ11
The modified internal rate of return helps to resolve some of the weaknesses of the IRR. Which of the following is one of the IRR's weaknesses?
it can give an overly optimistic result
it can give a greatly underestimated value of the opportunity
the IRR provides only one estimate whereas the MIRR offers several values
it often provides the same value as the payback method making it unreliable
The internal rate of return (IRR) is a financial metric used to evaluate the profitability of an investment or project.
It represents the discount rate at which the net present value (NPV) of the investment becomes zero. In other words, it is the rate at which the present value of the investment's cash inflows equals the present value of its cash outflows.
While the IRR is widely used and provides valuable insights into the potential profitability of an investment, it does have certain limitations:
1. Multiple IRRs: In some cases, an investment may have multiple IRRs, especially if it involves irregular cash flows or changes in the direction of cash flows. This can create ambiguity and make it challenging to interpret the IRR accurately.
2. Reinvestment Rate Assumption: The IRR assumes that any cash flows generated by the investment will be reinvested at the same rate as the IRR itself. This assumption may not hold true in reality, as it assumes that the investor can always find opportunities with the same rate of return. In practice, reinvestment rates may vary, making the IRR less reliable.
3. Size Bias: The IRR does not consider the absolute value of the cash flows, but rather the percentage return. This means that the IRR may prioritize investments with higher percentage returns, even if they have lower overall profitability or cash flow amounts.
4. Timing and Cash Flow Patterns: The IRR does not consider the timing or pattern of cash flows. Two investments with the same IRR may have significantly different cash flow profiles, leading to different risk and liquidity implications.
To address some of these weaknesses, the modified internal rate of return (MIRR) was introduced. The MIRR overcomes the multiple IRRs issue by assuming that cash flows are reinvested at a specified rate, known as the financing rate. It also considers the size of the cash flows and provides a more comprehensive evaluation of the investment's profitability.
In summary, while the IRR is a popular metric for evaluating investments, it has limitations such as potential multiple IRRs and an overly optimistic outlook due to the reinvestment rate assumption. The MIRR offers a more comprehensive and reliable alternative, considering the financing rate and addressing some of the weaknesses of the IRR.
Learn more about discount here:
https://brainly.com/question/31870453
#SPJ11
QUESTION 6 (20 Marks)
The Behavioural Approach towards performance management seeks to
define the behaviours an employee must exhibit to be effective in
the job. Critically discuss various types of Behavioural Methods of performance management that you suggest for Amazon. Highlight the appropriate advantages and disadvantages thereof, to strengthen the discussion.
When implementing the Behavioral Approach towards performance management, several methods can be considered for Amazon.
Below are three types of Behavioral Methods of performance management that could be suggested for Amazon, along with their advantages and disadvantages:
1. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS):
BARS involves creating a scale with specific behavioral descriptions that are anchored to performance levels. Supervisors rate employees based on the degree to which they exhibit these behaviors. Advantages include:
- Provides clear, observable criteria for performance evaluation.
- Enhances fairness and objectivity in the assessment process.
Disadvantages:
- Time-consuming and resource-intensive to develop and implement.
- May require extensive training for supervisors to accurately use the scale.
2. Critical Incident Technique (CIT):
CIT involves recording specific critical incidents of an employee's behavior that exemplify exceptional performance or areas for improvement. Advantages include:
- Focuses on actual behaviors and real-life situations.
- Provides specific feedback for employee development.
Disadvantages:
- Relies on the accuracy and objectivity of supervisors in documenting critical incidents.
- Subjective interpretation of incidents may introduce bias.
3. 360-Degree Feedback:
360-degree feedback involves gathering input from multiple sources, including supervisors, peers, subordinates, and customers, to assess an employee's performance behaviors. Advantages include:
- Provides a comprehensive and well-rounded assessment from different perspectives.
- Encourages self-awareness and development.
Disadvantages:
- Requires a robust feedback process and effective communication channels.
- Confidentiality concerns may arise if feedback providers are not anonymous.
Overall, the Behavioral Approach offers valuable insights into defining and evaluating specific performance behaviors. However, each method has its advantages and disadvantages, and Amazon should carefully consider its organizational culture, resources, and objectives when selecting and implementing these methods.
Learn more about objectivity here:
https://brainly.com/question/31838853
#SPJ11
Which of the following best describes the dividend tax credit? Question content area bottom Part 1 Choose the correct answer.
A. a credit against taxes payable for individuals who earned dividend income from a Canadian corporation during the taxation year
B. a deduction against property income for individuals who received specified types of dividends
C. a credit against taxes payable for individuals who have significant business income
D. a credit against taxes payable for corporations that pay significant dividends
The correct answer is A. a credit against taxes payable for individuals who earned dividend income from a Canadian corporation during the taxation year.
The dividend tax credit is a tax incentive provided by the Canadian government to encourage investment in Canadian corporations. It is a credit that reduces the amount of taxes an individual owes on dividend income received from Canadian corporations.
This credit is specifically available to individuals who have earned dividend income during the taxation year and helps lower their overall tax liability.
The dividend tax credit is a credit against taxes payable for individuals who earned dividend income from a Canadian corporation during the taxation year. It is designed to provide relief for individuals who receive dividends, as the income has already been taxed at the corporate level. The dividend tax credit helps to avoid double taxation on dividend income by reducing the amount of tax payable on that income for individuals.
Learn more about liability here:
https://brainly.com/question/28390339
#SPJ11
Only answer if you are an economist and can explain with your own words, need a lengthy answer. Economies of scale are important determinants of trade patterns because they form a separate basis for trade that is in addition to comparative advantage-based trade. Explain the meaning and importance of economies of scale for promoting trade and helping countries obtain a comparative advantage. Now, in the case of Bahrain, explain the opportunities and challenges facing the country in promoting trade via economies of scale.
Economies of scale are important for trade patterns as they provide an additional basis for trade beyond comparative advantage. For Bahrain, leveraging economies of scale presents opportunities to specialize in specific sectors, develop industry clusters, and invest in infrastructure.
Economies of scale refer to the cost advantages that a firm or a country can achieve by increasing its level of production. It means that as production increases, the average cost per unit of output decreases. This cost reduction occurs due to various factors such as spreading fixed costs over a larger production volume, efficient utilization of resources, specialization, and improved productivity.
Economies of scale play a crucial role in trade patterns because they provide an additional basis for trade alongside comparative advantage. Comparative advantage is based on a country's ability to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost compared to other countries. However, economies of scale allow countries to specialize in the production of specific goods or services in which they have a cost advantage, even if they do not have a comparative advantage initially.
The importance of economies of scale for promoting trade lies in their ability to enhance competitiveness and efficiency. By producing at a larger scale, countries can reduce their costs, leading to lower prices for consumers and improved competitiveness in international markets. This can increase export opportunities and attract foreign investment, ultimately promoting economic growth and development.
In the case of Bahrain, promoting trade through economies of scale presents both opportunities and challenges. Bahrain is a small island nation with limited resources and a relatively small domestic market. However, it can leverage economies of scale to overcome these limitations.
Opportunities:
1. Specialization: Bahrain can focus on specific industries or sectors where it can achieve economies of scale, such as financial services, logistics, or information technology. By specializing and becoming a regional hub in these areas, Bahrain can attract foreign investment and promote trade.
2. Cluster development: By fostering the growth of industry clusters, where related firms and industries locate in close proximity, Bahrain can benefit from knowledge spillovers, shared infrastructure, and collaborative networks. This can lead to economies of scale and improved competitiveness.
3. Infrastructure investment: Developing efficient infrastructure, such as transportation networks, logistics hubs, and digital connectivity, can enhance Bahrain's connectivity to global markets. This can facilitate trade and support economies of scale by reducing transaction costs and improving supply chain efficiency.
Challenges:
1. Market size: Bahrain's small domestic market may limit the scale of production and the potential economies of scale that can be achieved. To overcome this challenge, Bahrain can focus on exporting its goods and services to larger regional or global markets, taking advantage of trade agreements and economic integration initiatives.
2. Skills and human capital: Developing a skilled workforce and promoting continuous learning and innovation are essential for capturing economies of scale. Bahrain needs to invest in education and training programs to ensure a capable workforce that can support industries with high-value production and technology-intensive processes.
3. Global competition: Bahrain faces competition from neighboring countries and other global players in attracting investment and promoting trade. To remain competitive, Bahrain needs to continuously improve its business environment, streamline regulations, and offer competitive incentives to attract both domestic and foreign investors.
Learn more about Economies of scale here:
https://brainly.com/question/31601710
#SPJ11
Consider the following information which relates to a closed economy without a government:
Consumption (C + cYd) : 375 + 0.6Yd
Investment (I) : 140
Full employment level of income (Yf) : 2 000
Q : Identify the main determinant of induced consumption.
The main determinant of induced consumption is disposable income.
What is the relationship between disposable income and consumption?In a closed economy without a government, consumption is determined by disposable income. Disposable income (Yd) is the income available to households after taxes and transfers. The consumption function in this economy is given by C + cYd, where C represents autonomous consumption and c is the marginal propensity to consume out of disposable income.
The main determinant of induced consumption is disposable income because as disposable income increases, individuals and households have more resources available to spend on goods and services. The marginal propensity to consume (c) represents the fraction of additional disposable income that is used for consumption. In this case, the consumption function shows that consumption increases by 0.6 times the change in disposable income.
As disposable income rises, individuals tend to spend a portion of it on consumption, resulting in an increase in overall consumption. Conversely, when disposable income decreases, consumption tends to decrease as well. This relationship highlights the importance of disposable income in determining the level of induced consumption in the economy.
Learn more about: disposable income
brainly.com/question/14732695
#SPJ11
For an exponential function changing the value for ___ will change the y-intercept.
For an exponential function, changing the value for the base will change the y-intercept.
An exponential function is in the form of y = ab^x, where "a" represents the initial value or y-intercept, "b" represents the base, and "x" represents the exponent. The y-intercept is the value of y when x is equal to zero.
When the base of an exponential function changes, the function will either increase or decrease at a different rate. If the base is greater than 1, the function will increase rapidly as x increases. On the other hand, if the base is between 0 and 1, the function will decrease exponentially as x increases.
When the base is changed, the y-intercept is affected because it determines the initial value of the function. For example, if we have the function y = 2^x, the initial value or y-intercept is 1 (since 2^0 = 1). However, if we change the base to 3, the function becomes y = 3^x, and the new y-intercept is also 1 (since 3^0 = 1).
In summary, changing the value for the base in an exponential function will change the y-intercept because it determines the initial value or starting point of the function.
For more such quetsion on exponential function visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30387666
#SPJ8
Consider two groups of customers, with demand functions:
Q1 =40 −0.2P1
Q2 =25 −0.3P2
where Q1 is the demand for type 1 consumer, Q2 is the demand for type 2 con-
sumer. The total cost for the monopolist is TC = 10Q.
a. (5 pt) Calculate the price and quantity demanded when there is no price
discrimination.
b. (5 pt) Calculate the price and quantity demanded under third-degree price
discrimination.
c. (5 pt) What happens to the profit?
Price discrimination increases profits for the monopolist.
In a situation of no price discrimination, a monopolist faces the same price elasticity of demand for all customers. Thus, the monopolist’s MR curve will be downward sloping and twice as steep as the demand curve. To maximize profit, the monopolist equates MR to MC.
Therefore, the profit-maximizing price is P= 23.33, and the profit-maximizing quantity is
Q= 21.33.
MR = dTR/dQ
= d(PQ)/dQ
= P + Q(dP/dQ)
= P - Q[0.2/ (0.2P1/40)]
= P - Q/2
P - Q/2 = MC
= 10
Q = 21.33 and
P = 23.33
Third-degree price discrimination: In a situation of third-degree price discrimination, the monopolist is able to distinguish between two groups of customers with different price elasticities of demand and charge different prices to each group. Let P1 be the price charged to group 1, and P2 be the price charged to group 2. For the monopolist to maximize profit, the profit-maximizing rule holds in each group. Thus, the monopolist will equate MR1 to MC and MR2 to MC. Here is the calculation:
Group 1: P1 = 35,
Q1 = 21.
The MR function is:
MR1 = 40 - 0.4Q1 - 0.2Q2
40 - 0.4Q1 - 0.2Q2
= MC
= 10
Q1 = 21
Group 2: P2 = 25,
Q2 = 15.
The MR function is: MR2 = 25 - 0.6Q2 - 0.3Q1
25 - 0.6Q2 - 0.3Q1
= MC
= 10
Q2 = 15
The profit-maximizing price for each group is P1 = 35 and P2 = 25. The profit-maximizing quantity for each group is Q1 = 21 and Q2 = 15. The total profit is the sum of the profits in each group. The total profit is 645.
In part (b), price discrimination leads to higher profits for the monopolist. The total profit under price discrimination is $645, while the total profit under no price discrimination is $319. Therefore, price discrimination increases profits for the monopolist.
To know more about discrimination visit :
brainly.com/question/14977468
#SPJ11
1. If EAC is $6500,BAC=$5500,ETC=1200. What is VAC 2. You accept a project cost to date and assume future cost variances to be atypical. Find EAC if BAC=$82500,ETC =$30000,AC=$20000,EV=$25000 and CUMCPI=1.25 3. The following project data are given to you. - Target price- $90,000 - Ceiling price −$100000 - Customer's shares of cost overrun 70% - Target cost= $80000 Find out the point at which the seller assumes all subsequent costs?
1. The equation to find the VAC in earned value management is:VAC = BAC - EACVAC = $5500 - $6500VAC = -$1000In this case, the VAC is negative. It indicates that the project is over budget.
2. To find EAC when future cost variances are considered atypical, you can use the following equation:EAC = AC + ((BAC - EV) / (CPI * SPI))EAC = $20000 + (($82500 - $25000) / (1.25 * 1.0))EAC = $20000 + (($57500) / (1.25))EAC = $20000 + $46000EAC = $66000In this case, the atypical cost variance meant that the project has a cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI) equal to 1.03.
3. To find the point at which the seller assumes all subsequent costs, you can use the following formula:Point of total assumption = (Ceiling Price - Total Target Cost) / (Share Ratio) + Target CostPoint of total assumption = ($100000 - $80000) / (0.7) + $80000Point of total assumption = ($20000) / (0.7) + $80000Point of total assumption = $28571 + $80000Point of total assumption = $108571
Therefore, the seller will assume all subsequent costs after the project's total cost exceeds $108,571.
To know more about equation visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29657983
#SPJ11
1. EAC is $6500, BAC = $5500, ETC = 1200. What is VAC?EAC is the estimated cost to complete the project. ETC is the estimate to complete the remaining work. BAC is the budgeted cost of the project. VAC is the variance at completion. The formula to find VAC is VAC = BAC - EAC. VAC = $5500 - $6500 = -$10002. You have overbudgeted by $1000.2.
You accept a project cost to date and assume future cost variances to be atypical. Find EAC if BAC = $82500, ETC = $30000, AC = $20000, EV = $25000 and CUMCPI = 1.25.The formula to find EAC is: EAC = BAC / CUMCPI. EAC = $82500 / 1.25 = $66,000.
Therefore, the estimated cost to complete the project is $66,000.3. The following project data are given to you:Target price - $90,000Ceiling price - $100,000Customer's shares of cost overrun - 70%Target cost - $80,000The formula to find the point at which the seller assumes all subsequent costs is: (Ceiling Price - Total Buyer Share of Costs) - (Target Cost) = Seller Share of Costs($100,000 - ($100,000 - $90,000) * 70%) - ($80,000) = Seller Share of Costs($100,000 - $10,000) * 0.7 - $80,000 = Seller Share of Costs$63,000 - $80,000 = -$17,000Therefore, the seller would assume all subsequent costs at -$17,000.
To know more about estimated visit;
https://brainly.com/question/30870295
#SPJ11
An ADR is variety of an interest rate swap, where a foreign
company can secure debt financing in their home curency while
hedging the interest rate risk.
TRUE
FALSE
The statement "An ADR is variety of an interest rate swap, where a foreign company can secure debt financing in their home curency while
hedging the interest rate risk" is FALSE.
An ADR (American Depositary Receipt) is not a variety of an interest rate swap. ADRs are financial instruments that allow foreign companies to list their shares on U.S. stock exchanges and trade them in U.S. dollars. They provide a way for investors in the United States to invest in foreign companies without needing to directly purchase shares on foreign exchanges.
On the other hand, an interest rate swap is a financial derivative in which two parties agree to exchange interest rate cash flows based on a notional principal amount. It is commonly used to manage or hedge interest rate risk, allowing one party to exchange a fixed interest rate for a floating interest rate or vice versa.
While both ADRs and interest rate swaps are financial instruments, they serve different purposes. ADRs facilitate cross-border equity investments, while interest rate swaps are used to manage interest rate exposure.
Therefore, the statement that an ADR is a variety of an interest rate swap is false.
To know more about interest rate swaps refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/32067816?#
#SPJ11
The Stock Of Enigma Limited Can Best Be Modeled By A Three-Factor APT Model. The Tisk-Free Rate Is 5%, The Expected Retum On The First Factor Is 7 . . The Oxpected Ceturn On The Second Factor Is 13%, And The Expected Teturn On The Third Factor Is 12% If By =0.5 Bi =1.3 And Biz =12. What Is Enigma S-Required Relum In Percent?
Enigma Limited's required return is 16.94%. The APT model helps determine the expected return required by investors based on the systematic risk associated with various factors.
To calculate the required return using the three-factor APT (Arbitrage Pricing Theory) model, we need to use the following formula:
Required Return = Risk-Free Rate + (Beta1 * Expected Return1) + (Beta2 * Expected Return2) + (Beta3 * Expected Return3)
Given the following information:
Risk-Free Rate = 5%
Expected Return1 = 7%
Expected Return2 = 13%
Expected Return3 = 12%
Beta1 = 0.5
Beta2 = 1.3
Beta3 = 12
Substituting the values into the formula, we have:
Required Return = 5% + (0.5 * 7%) + (1.3 * 13%) + (12 * 12%)
Calculating each term:
0.5 * 7% = 3.5%
1.3 * 13% = 16.9%
12 * 12% = 144%
Required Return = 5% + 3.5% + 16.9% + 144% = 169.4%
However, the required return should be expressed as a percentage, so we divide by 100:
Required Return = 169.4% / 100 = 1.694
Therefore, Enigma Limited's required return is 16.94%.
Enigma Limited's required return, based on the three-factor APT model and the given information, is 16.94%. The calculation considers the risk-free rate and the expected returns of the three factors, weighted by their respective betas. The APT model helps determine the expected return required by investors based on the systematic risk associated with various factors.
To know more about investors ,visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30130634
#SPJ11
The operating cost of a small machine is $800 in year one, but it increases by 8% per year through year ten. At an interest rate of 8% per year, the equivalent present worth of the machine's operating cost is nearest to: a. $7,272 b. $7,407 c. $7,966 d. $8,056
The direct answer is: b. $7,407. The equivalent present worth of the machine's operating cost, rounded to the nearest dollar, is $7,407.
To calculate the present worth of the machine's operating cost, we need to find the present value of the cash flows over the ten-year period. The cash flows are increasing at a rate of 8% per year, and the interest rate is also 8% per year.
Using the formula for the present worth of a growing cash flow, the present worth can be calculated as follows:
Present Worth = Cash Flow in Year 1 / (1 + Interest Rate) + Cash Flow in Year 2 / (1 + Interest Rate)^2 + ... + Cash Flow in Year 10 / (1 + Interest Rate)^10
In this case, the cash flow in year one is $800, and the interest rate is 8%. The cash flows in the subsequent years can be calculated as follows:
Year 2: $800 * (1 + 8%) = $864
Year 3: $864 * (1 + 8%) = $933.12
...
Year 10: $1,089.49
Plugging these values into the formula and calculating the sum, the present worth is approximately $7,407.
The equivalent present worth of the machine's operating cost, rounded to the nearest dollar, is $7,407.
To know more about Cost, visit : brainly.com/question/14566816
#SPJ11
You are considering how to invest part of your retirement savings. You have decided to put $600,000 into three stocks:
51% of the money in GoldFinger (currently $24/share), 7% of the money in Moosehead (currently $71/share), and the remainder in Venture Associates (currently $9/share). Suppose Gold Fing
stock goes up to $36/share, Moosehead stock drops to $58/share, and Venture Associates stock rises to $10 per share.
a. What is the new value of the portfolio?
b. What return did the portfolio earn?
c. If you don't buy or sell any shares after the price change, what are your new portfolio weights?
a. What is the new value of the portfolio?
The new value of the portfolio is $ 773310. (Round to the nearest dollar.)
b. What return did the portfolio earn?
The portfolio earned a return of 28.89%. (Round to two decimal places.)
c. If you don't buy or sell any shares after the price change, what are your new portfolio weights?
The weight of Goldfinger is now %. (Round to two decimal places.)
The new portfolio weights, without buying or selling any shares after the price change, are approximately 50.66% for GoldFinger, 6.96% for Moosehead, and 42.38% for Venture Associates.
a. the new value of the portfolio is $773,310.
b. the portfolio earned a return of 28.89%.
c. the new portfolio weights, without buying or selling any shares after the price change, are as follows:- goldfinger: 50.66%
- moosehead: 6.96%- venture associates: 42.38%
a. to calculate the new value of the portfolio, we need to multiply the number of shares owned by their respective prices and sum them up. let's calculate it:
goldfinger: (0.51 * $36/share) * $600,000 = $183,600moosehead: (0.07 * $58/share) * $600,000 = $243,600
venture associates: (0.42 * $10/share) * $600,000 = $346,110
total new portfolio value: $183,600 + $243,600 + $346,110 = $773,310
b. to calculate the portfolio return, we need to compare the initial value of the portfolio with the new value and determine the percentage change:
initial portfolio value: $600,000new portfolio value: $773,310
return = ((new value - initial value) / initial value) * 100
return = (($773,310 - $600,000) / $600,000) * 100return ≈ 28.89%
c. to find the new portfolio weights, we divide the value of each stock by the new portfolio value and multiply by 100 to get a percentage:
goldfinger weight = ($183,600 / $773,310) * 100 ≈ 50.66%
moosehead weight = ($243,600 / $773,310) * 100 ≈ 6.96%venture associates weight = ($346,110 / $773,310) * 100 ≈ 42.38% 66% for goldfinger, 6.96% for moosehead, and 42.38% for venture associates.
Learn more about stock here:
https://brainly.com/question/31940696
#SPJ11
Sheridan Travel had earnings after taxes of $1,200,000 in 20XX with 322,000 common shares outstanding. On January 1, 20XY, the firm issued 30,000 new common shares. There is a 24 percent increase in aftertax earnings resulting from the issue of the new share
a. Compute EPS for the year 20XX. (Round the final answer to 2 decimal places.)
EPS $_______
b. Compute EPS for the year 20XY. (Round the final answer to 2 decimal places.)
EPS $_______
a. EPS for the year 20XX is $3.73.
b. EPS for the year 20XY is $2.48.
a. To calculate EPS for the year 20XX, we divide the earnings after taxes by the number of common shares outstanding. In 20XX, Sheridan Travel had earnings after taxes of $1,200,000 with 322,000 common shares outstanding. Therefore, EPS for the year 20XX is calculated as follows:
EPS = Earnings after taxes / Number of common shares outstanding
EPS = $1,200,000 / 322,000
EPS ≈ $3.73
b. To calculate EPS for the year 20XY, we need to consider the additional 30,000 common shares issued and the 24% increase in after-tax earnings. First, we calculate the new after-tax earnings:
New after-tax earnings = Previous earnings after taxes * (1 + Increase percentage)
New after-tax earnings = $1,200,000 * (1 + 24%)
New after-tax earnings = $1,200,000 * 1.24
New after-tax earnings = $1,488,000
Next, we add the newly issued shares to the previous number of common shares outstanding:
Total number of common shares = Previous number of common shares + Newly issued shares
Total number of common shares = 322,000 + 30,000
Total number of common shares = 352,000
Now, we can calculate EPS for the year 20XY:
EPS = New after-tax earnings / Total number of common shares
EPS = $1,488,000 / 352,000
EPS ≈ $2.48
a. The earnings per share (EPS) for the year 20XX is approximately $3.73.
b. The earnings per share (EPS) for the year 20XY is approximately $2.48.
To know more about EPS visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31977326
#SPJ11
A project has an initial cost of $40,000, expected net cash inflows of $12,000 per year for 7 years, and a cost of capital of 8%. What is the project's PI? (Hint: Begin by constructing a time line.) Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places.
Project's PI (Profitability Index)PI is used to compare the costs and benefits of an investment project. Profitability index helps a company to determine the relationship between the costs and benefits of the project.
The formula for Profitability Index is:(Present Value of Future Cash Flows) / Initial InvestmentPI determines the potential of the proposed project whether it is a profitable investment or not. If the Profitability Index of the project is greater than one, it means the project is a profitable investment. If the PI is less than one, then it is a loss to the company.
In this question, we are given the following data:Initial Cost = $40,000Expected net cash inflows per year for 7 years = $12,000Cost of Capital = 8%Let's begin by constructing a timeline for this project:Step 1: Calculate Present Value of Cash Flows (PV)PV = CF1/(1+r)^1 + CF2/(1+r)^2 + ... + CFn/(1+r)^nWhere CF is the cash flow, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of years.In this case, we have CF = $12,000, r = 8%, and n = 7 years. So, PV = $12,000/(1+0.08)^1 + $12,000/(1+0.08)^2 + $12,000/(1+0.08)^3 + $12,000/(1+0.08)^4 + $12,000/(1+0.08)^5 + $12,000/(1+0.08)^6 + $12,000/(1+0.08)^7 = $70,893.63
Step 2: Calculate Profitability Index (PI)PI = PV/Initial InvestmentInitial Investment = $40,000PI = $70,893.63/$40,000 = 1.77So, the project's Profitability Index (PI) is 1.77, which is greater than one. Therefore, this project is a profitable investment.
To know more about Profitability visit:
brainly.com/question/29987711
#SPJ11
What strategies is Merck & Co., pursuing in order to stay
competitive and profitable, price cuts, bundle pricing, promotions,
advertising to differentiate its products, lowering costs, etc?
Merck & Co. employs strategies such as product differentiation, advertising, promotions, bundle pricing, and cost reduction to remain competitive and profitable in the market.
Merck & Co. employs several strategies to maintain competitiveness and profitability in the pharmaceutical industry. One approach is product differentiation through advertising and promotions, which helps create brand awareness and establish a unique market position. By effectively marketing their products, Merck & Co. can attract customers and generate demand. Additionally, the company may use bundle pricing strategies, offering combined products or discounts on multiple purchases to incentivize customers and increase sales volume.
Cost reduction is another focus for Merck & Co. By optimizing its manufacturing processes, streamlining operations, and leveraging economies of scale, the company can lower production costs and enhance profitability. This may involve adopting efficient supply chain practices, investing in research and development for innovative cost-saving technologies, and implementing cost-cutting measures throughout the organization.
Overall, Merck & Co. employs a combination of marketing strategies, cost reduction initiatives, and product differentiation to remain competitive and profitable in the pharmaceutical industry.
Learn more about market here:
https://brainly.com/question/33204230
#SPJ11
please answer
If Marie Marionettes is operating under conditions of diminishing marginal product the marginal costs wilt be: equal to average total cost, tecroasing increasing. constant.
If Marie Marionettes is operating under conditions of diminishing marginal product, the marginal costs will be increasing.
When a company experiences diminishing marginal product, it means that the additional output gained from each additional unit of input gradually decreases. In other words, as more resources are added to production, the increase in output becomes less significant.
In this context, the concept of marginal cost becomes important. Marginal cost refers to the cost of producing one additional unit of output. When a company faces diminishing marginal product, it implies that more resources are needed to produce each additional unit of output. As a result, the cost of producing that additional unit increases.
For example, let's say Marie Marionettes produces handmade dolls. Initially, as they hire more workers and acquire additional materials, the production of dolls increases at a rapid rate. However, as the number of workers and materials reaches a certain point, the increase in doll production per additional worker or material unit becomes smaller.
As a consequence, Marie Marionettes will need to invest more in labor, materials, or other resources to achieve the same level of output growth. This increase in resource investment leads to higher costs associated with producing each additional doll.
To learn more about marginal, refer below:
https://brainly.com/question/32248430
#SPJ11
A mutual fund has $450 million in assets and liabilities of $10 million.
If the fund has 44 million shares outstanding, what is its NAV?
If an investor redeems 1,000,000 shares, what happens to the value of the fund’s portfolio, to the number of shares outstanding, and to its NAV?
The value of the fund’s portfolio decreases, the number of shares outstanding decreases, and the NAV of the mutual fund increases. The new NAV will be $10.23 per share.
Given data:
Assets = $450 million
Liabilities = $10 million
Shares outstanding = 44 million
We know that the formula for Net Asset Value (NAV) of a mutual fund is:
NAV = (Assets - Liabilities) / Shares outstanding
Putting the values in the above formula,
NAV = (450 - 10) / 44= 440 / 44
NAV = $10 per share
If an investor redeems 1,000,000 shares, the value of the fund’s portfolio will decrease but the value of the shares will remain the same. This happens because the NAV of the mutual fund is dependent on the number of outstanding shares. So, the formula for calculating the new NAV will be:
New NAV = (Assets - Liabilities) / (Shares outstanding - Shares redeemed)
Given that the investor redeemed 1,000,000 shares, the new NAV will be:
New NAV = (450 - 10) / (44 - 1)
New NAV = 440 / 43
New NAV = $10.23 per share
To know more about the portfolio, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29418020
#SPJ11
discuss two advantages of using the services of such an organization for a person who is having serious financial problems in paying their bills because of high medical bills required to be paid for a serious illness of a family member. Think of these advantages as an alternative to filing for personal bankruptcy. The advantages you discuss should be related to some of the legal issues related to personal bankruptcy and some of the disadvantages for an individual to file for personal bankruptcy.
Using the services of an organization that assists individuals with serious financial problems, such as high medical bills, can offer significant advantages over filing for personal bankruptcy.
Two key advantages in this context are:
1. Avoiding the negative consequences of bankruptcy: Filing for personal bankruptcy can have long-lasting implications for individuals, both financially and emotionally. By seeking assistance from an organization, individuals can explore alternative solutions that may help them avoid the negative consequences associated with bankruptcy. This includes preserving their credit score, protecting assets from liquidation, and maintaining their reputation.
2. Access to legal expertise and negotiation skills: Organizations specialized in assisting individuals with financial difficulties often have legal professionals who can provide guidance on navigating the complex legal issues related to bankruptcy. They can assess the individual's situation, negotiate with creditors on their behalf, and explore s for debt restructuring or settlement. This can lead to more favorable outcomes compared to the rigid and potentially harsh consequences of bankruptcy.
Disadvantages of filing for personal bankruptcy that individuals can avoid by seeking alternative solutions include:
1. Damage to creditworthiness: Filing for bankruptcy can significantly impact an individual's credit score and creditworthiness. This can make it challenging to secure loans, obtain favorable interest rates, or even find employment in certain industries. Seeking assistance from an organization can help mitigate the negative impact on credit and provide opportunities to rebuild financial stability.
2. Loss of assets: Depending on the bankruptcy type, individuals may be required to liquidate their assets to repay creditors. This can result in the loss of valuable possessions, including homes, vehicles, or other personal belongings. Seeking assistance from an organization can help protect and preserve assets by exploring alternative debt management strategies or negotiating more favorable repayment terms.
In summary, utilizing the services of an organization focused on helping individuals with financial hardships offers the advantages of avoiding the negative consequences of bankruptcy and accessing legal expertise and negotiation skills. These alternatives can help individuals navigate the legal issues associated with bankruptcy, preserve their creditworthiness, protect assets, and achieve a more sustainable financial future.
Learn more about financial here:
https://brainly.com/question/28319639
#SPJ11
The market price of a stock is $57.42 and it just paid $5.32
dividend. The dividend is expected to grow at 2.79% forever. What
is the required rate of return for the stock?
The required rate of return for the stock can be calculated using the dividend yield formula.
The dividend yield is the annual dividend per share divided by the market price per share. In this case, the annual dividend per share is $5.32 and the market price per share is $57.42. Therefore, the dividend yield is $5.32 / $57.42, which is approximately 0.0927 or 9.27%. This means that the required rate of return for the stock is 9.27%.
Know more about rate of return here:
https://brainly.com/question/17164328
#SPJ11
Suppose a ten-year, $1,000 bond with an 8.6% coupon rate and semiannual coupons is trading for $1,035.66. a. What is the bond's yield to maturity (expressed as an APR with semiannual compounding)?
b. If the bond's yield to maturity changes to 9.6% APR, what will be the bond's price?
The maximum value that a call option can take is unlimited.
As the stock price increases, the call option value increases, providing the opportunity for unlimited profit.
However, the value of the call option cannot exceed the difference between the current stock price (S) and the exercise price (X).
In this case, the maximum value of the call option would be the difference between the stock price and the exercise price, if the stock price is significantly higher than the exercise price.
To calculate the value of the call option using the Black-Scholes Option Pricing Model, we need to use the following formula:
C = S * N(d1) - X * e^(-Rf * T) * N(d2)
Where:
C is the call option value
S is the current stock price
N() represents the cumulative standard normal distribution function
d1 = [ln(S/X) + (Rf + σ^2/2) * T] / (σ * √T)
d2 = d1 - σ * √T
X is the exercise price (strike price)
e is the base of the natural logarithm (approximately 2.71828)
Rf is the risk-free interest rate
T is the time to expiration in years
σ is the volatility of the stock price
Now, let's calculate the values step-by-step:
Step 1: Calculate d1
d1 = [ln(S/X) + (Rf + σ^2/2) * T] / (σ * √T)
d1 = [ln(45/50) + (0.10 + 0.8^2/2) * (6/12)] / (0.8 * √(6/12))
d1 = [-0.1107] / (0.8 * 0.25)
d1 = -0.5535
Step 2: Calculate d2
d2 = d1 - σ * √T
d2 = -0.5535 - (0.8 * √(6/12))
d2 = -0.8107
Step 3: Calculate the cumulative standard normal distribution function for d1 and d2 using a standard normal distribution table or calculator.
N(d1) = 0.2917
N(d2) = 0.2079
Step 4: Calculate the call option value (C)
C = S * N(d1) - X * e^(-Rf * T) * N(d2)
C = 45 * 0.2917 - 50 * e^(-0.10 * (6/12)) * 0.2079
C = 13.125 - 50 * e^(-0.10 * 0.5) * 0.2079
C = 13.125 - 50 * e^(-0.05) * 0.2079
C = 13.125 - 50 * 0.9512 * 0.2079
C = 13.125 - 10.0
C = 3.125
The intrinsic value of the call (C) is $3.125.
To break-even, the stock price (S) must equal the sum of the exercise price (X) and the call option value (C). In this case, the break-even stock price would be:
Break-even stock price = X + C
Break-even stock price = 50 + 3.125
Break-even stock price = $53.125
learn more about stock price from;
https://brainly.com/question/19383566
#SPJ11
a. The resulting yield to maturity, expressed as an APR with semiannual compounding, is approximately 4.2%.
b. The new bond price is approximately $954.27.
a. The yield to maturity (YTM) is the total return anticipated on a bond if it is held until it matures. To calculate the bond's YTM, we need to find the discount rate that equates the present value of the bond's future cash flows to its current market price.
In this case, the bond has a 10-year maturity, a face value of $1,000, a coupon rate of 8.6%, and semiannual coupons. We are given that the bond is trading for $1,035.66. The semiannual coupon payment can be calculated as ($1,000 * 8.6%) / 2 = $43.
Using a financial calculator or a spreadsheet, we can input the following information: n = 10 * 2 = 20 (20 semiannual periods), PV = -$1,035.66 (negative because it is an outgoing cash flow), PMT = $43, FV = $1,000, and solve for i (the yield to maturity).
The resulting yield to maturity, expressed as an APR with semiannual compounding, is approximately 4.2%.
b. To calculate the bond's price when the yield to maturity changes to 9.6% APR, we can use the same formula as before, but substitute the new yield to maturity value.
In this case, the new yield to maturity is 9.6% / 2 = 4.8% as an APR with semiannual compounding.
Using the new yield to maturity, the number of periods, coupon payment, face value, and the formula mentioned earlier, we can calculate the new bond price. The new bond price is approximately $954.27.
Learn more about yield to maturity from the given link:
https://brainly.com/question/457082
#SPJ11
The average cost lies below average fixed cost and average variable cost True False Reset Selection
The average cost lies below average fixed cost and average variable cost" is false.
Average Cost (AC) = Average Fixed Cost (AFC) + Average Variable Cost (AVC)
Since the average cost includes both the fixed and variable costs, it is always higher than both the average fixed cost and average variable cost.
Therefore, the statement is incorrect. The average cost consists of two components: the average fixed cost (AFC) and the average variable cost (AVC). The average fixed cost is the fixed cost per unit of output the average cost is the sum of the average fixed cost and the average variable cost.
Learn more about average cost from this link.
https://brainly.com/question/33801046
#SPJ11
An
increase in will cause theto fall by larger percentage if firms
aren't holding excess labor output inflation rate
outputunemployment rate unemployment rateGDP inflation rateGDP
An increase in will cause the to fall by a larger percentage if firms aren't holding excess labor. output; inflation rate output; unemployment rate unemployment rate; GDP inflation rate; GDP
An increase in demand will cause the unemployment rate to fall by a larger percentage if firms aren't holding excess labor. This is because firms may need to hire more workers to meet the higher level of demand, leading to a decrease in the unemployment rate. However, if firms already have excess labor, there may not be a significant decrease in the unemployment rate.
Here's a step-by-step explanation:
1. An increase in demand refers to an increase in the quantity of goods and services that consumers want to buy at a given price level.
2. When there is an increase in demand, firms may need to produce more goods and services to meet the higher level of demand.
3. To produce more goods and services, firms may need to hire more workers.
4. When firms hire more workers, the unemployment rate decreases because more people are employed.
5. The unemployment rate measures the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed and actively seeking employment.
6. If firms are holding excess labor, it means that they already have more workers than necessary to meet the current level of demand.
7. In this case, when there is an increase in demand, firms don't need to hire additional workers because they already have excess labor.
8. As a result, the unemployment rate may not decrease by a large percentage because there is no need for firms to hire more workers.
Learn more about the unemployment rate from the link below
brainly.com/question/30115417
#SPJ11
Assume that a firm currently has sales or revenues of $100,000, variable costs of $60,000, fixed costs of $30,000. Calculate the following: Contribution margin Contribution margin ratio Net profit Net profit ratio as percent of total sales
The contribution margin is $40,000 and the contribution margin ratio is 40%. The net profit is $10,000.
Sales or Revenues = $100,000
Variable Costs = $60,000
Fixed Costs = $30,000
The contribution margin is the amount of revenue remaining after deducting variable costs. It represents the portion of revenue available to cover fixed costs and contribute towards profit. It is calculated as follows:
Contribution Margin = Sales or Revenues - Variable Costs
Contribution Margin = $100,000 - $60,000 = $40,000
The contribution Margin Ratio is the contribution margin expressed as a percentage of sales. It shows the proportion of each sales dollar available to cover fixed costs and contribute towards profit. It is calculated as follows:
Contribution Margin Ratio
= (Contribution Margin / Sales or Revenues) × 100
= ($40,000 / $100,000) × 100 = 40%
Net Profit is the amount remaining after deducting both variable costs and fixed costs from sales or revenues. It represents the ultimate profit generated by the firm.
Net Profit = Sales or Revenues - Variable Costs - Fixed Costs
Net Profit = $100,000 - $60,000 - $30,000 = $10,000
The net Profit Ratio indicates the proportion of net profit relative to total sales.
Net Profit Ratio = (Net Profit / Sales or Revenues) × 100
Net Profit Ratio = ($10,000 / $100,000) × 100 = 10%
So, the contribution margin is $40,000 and the contribution margin ratio is 40%. The net profit is $10,000. The Net Profit Ratio as a Percentage of Total Sales is 10%
Learn more about contribution margin here:
https://brainly.com/question/32772728
#SPJ11
2. Durable goods, such as automobiles, home appliances, and machinery, provide a stream of services over an extended period of time. Buyers who already own a durable good have considerable discretion over the timing of buying new equipment to replace their existing item. As durables are relatively costly, buyers may finance their purchases. a. Explain how the demand for a durable good would depend on expectations about future incomes and prices of the good. b. How would interest rates affect the demand for a durable? c. How would the supply of used goods affect the demand for new durables?
The demand for durable goods depends on future income and price expectations, while interest rates and the supply of used goods also affect demand.
a. The demand for a durable good depends on expectations about future incomes and prices of the good because these factors influence consumers' willingness and ability to purchase durables. If consumers expect their future incomes to increase, they may be more inclined to buy a durable good now because they anticipate having the financial means to afford it. On the other hand, if consumers expect future incomes to decrease or remain stagnant, they may delay their purchase of a durable good.
Expectations about future prices also play a role. If consumers anticipate that the price of a durable good will increase in the future, they may be motivated to buy it sooner to avoid paying a higher price. Conversely, if they expect prices to decline, they might postpone their purchase in the hope of securing a better deal later.
b. Interest rates can significantly influence the demand for durables. When interest rates are low, borrowing costs decrease, making it more affordable for consumers to finance their purchases. Lower interest rates can stimulate demand for durables as consumers find it easier to obtain loans and credit to make these relatively costly purchases. Conversely, when interest rates are high, borrowing costs increase, which can discourage consumers from financing their purchases and reduce the demand for durables.
c. The supply of used goods can impact the demand for new durables. If the market for used durables is robust and there is a wide availability of high-quality used goods at lower prices, consumers may opt for used items instead of buying new ones. This can dampen the demand for new durables as consumers perceive the value and cost-effectiveness of purchasing used goods. Conversely, if the supply of used goods is limited or the quality is questionable, consumers may prefer to buy new durables, boosting the demand for new products.
Overall, expectations about future incomes and prices, interest rates, and the availability and quality of used goods all influence the demand for durables and shape consumers' purchasing decisions in this market.
Learn more about Interest rates here:
https://brainly.com/question/28236069
#SPJ11
Michael invested $1,250 at the end of every month into an investment fund that was earning interest at 3.50% compounded monthly. He stopped making regular deposits at the end of 8 years when the interest rate changed to 3.75% compounded quarterly. However, he let the money grow in this investment fund for the next 2 years. a. Calculate the accumulated balance in his investment fund at the end of 8 years. b. Calculate the accumulated balance in his investment fund at the end of 10 years. Round to the nearest cent c. Calculate the amount of interest earned over the 10-year period
a) At the end of 8 years, Michael's accumulated balance in his investment fund is $143,388.77.
b) At the end of 10 years, Michael's accumulated balance in his investment fund is $162,603.11.
c) The amount of interest earned over the 10-year period is $32,123.44.
Given,
PMT = $1,250
n = 8 years × 12 months = 96 months
r = 3.50%/12 = 0.002917
At the end of 8 years, the accumulated balance in Michael's investment fund can be calculated as follows using the formula for the future value of an annuity:
FV = PMT x [{(1 + r)^n - 1} / r]
FV = $1,250 x [{(1 + 0.002917)^96 - 1} / 0.002917]
FV = $143,388.77
Therefore, the accumulated balance in Michael's investment fund at the end of 8 years is $143,388.77.
At the end of 8 years, Michael stopped making regular deposits and let the money grow in his investment fund for the next 2 years, which totals 10 years. The new interest rate is 3.75% compounded quarterly. The accumulated balance at the end of 10 years can be calculated using the following formula:
FV = PV x (1 + r/n)^(n*t)
where, PV = $143,388.77, r = 3.75%, n = 4 quarters in a year, and t = 2 years.
FV = $143,388.77 x (1 + 0.0375/4)^(4*2)
FV = $162,603.11
Therefore, the accumulated balance in Michael's investment fund at the end of 10 years is $162,603.11.
The amount of interest earned over the 10-year period is the difference between the accumulated balance at the end of 10 years and the total amount invested. The total amount invested is the sum of the monthly deposits over the 8-year period.
Total amount invested = $1,250 x 96 = $120,000
Interest earned over 10 years = $162,603.11 - $120,000 = $42,603.11
The amount of interest earned over the 10-year period is $32,123.44 (rounded to the nearest cent).
To know more about Investments visit.
https://brainly.com/question/14921083
#SPJ11
Consider a $ 1,000 4-year bond with an annual coupon of 3 % and a market yield of 5 % . Calculate the duration of the bond 3.14 4 3.82 3.20
The duration of the bond is approximately 3.82 years.
The correct option is C.
To calculate the duration of a bond, we can use the following formula: Duration = (Present Value of Cash Flows * Time until Cash Flow) / Current Bond Price
Given the information: Face Value of the Bond (FV) = $1,000
Annual Coupon Rate (C) = 3%
Market Yield (Y) = 5%
Number of Years (N) = 4
First, let's calculate the present value of the cash flows, which include coupon payments and the face value.
Coupon Payment = Annual Coupon Rate * Face Value = 3% * $1,000 = $30 per year
Present Value of Coupon Payments = (Coupon Payment / (1 + Market Yield))^1 + (Coupon Payment / (1 + Market Yield))^2 + ... + (Coupon Payment / (1 + Market Yield))^N + (Coupon Payment + Face Value) / (1 + Market Yield)^N
Using the formula for the present value of an annuity:
Present Value of Coupon Payments = ($30 / (1 + 5%)^1) + ($30 / (1 + 5%)^2) + ($30 / (1 + 5%)^3) + ($30 / (1 + 5%)^4) = $103.8011
Next, let's calculate the current bond price, which is the present value of the bond's cash flows:
Current Bond Price = Present Value of Coupon Payments + (Face Value / (1 + Market Yield)^N) = $103.8011 + ($1,000 / (1 + 5%)^4) = $906.1023
Now, let's calculate the duration: Duration = (Present Value of Cash Flows * Time until Cash Flow) / Current Bond Price
Duration = (($30 * 1) / (1 + 5%)^1) + (($30 * 2) / (1 + 5%)^2) + (($30 * 3) / (1 + 5%)^3) + (($30 * 4) / (1 + 5%)^4) + (($1,000 * 4) / (1 + 5%)^4) / $906.1023
Duration ≈ 3.82
Therefore, the duration of the bond is approximately 3.82 years.
Know more about Cash Flows here
https://brainly.com/question/30066211#
#SPJ11
Assignment Title: Incident at Workplace John is a machine operator at a vehicle repair factory and has been working for the factory for over 4 years. He works 6 days a week from 8 am till 5pm. Yesterday morning, during a routine operation, parts of a hoisting crane got loose and fell on John before falling on the ground and breaking. John suffered from minor injury and was sent to hospital for medical attention. He was granpted seven days' sickness days by the doctor with a medical certificate. The broken parts also had to be replaced, with an estimated cost of HK$60,000. Peter, John's supervisor, was told by other colleagues that John and a number of his teammates were out the previous night for a birthday celebration party. Peter also recalled that John looked tired yesterday morning when he came to work. Peter considered that although the incident looked like an accident, it was more because John did not have enough rest the night before and was also careless at work. He therefore suggested to the factory's senior management to suspend John's sickness allowance of the sickness days as a punishment for his carelessness and also, to recover the cost of replacing the broken machine parts by deducting John's wages for the next two months (John's monthly wages is $30,000) Questions: 1. Elaborate your views if you would consider it justified to suspend payment of John's sickness allowance of the sickness days granted by the doctor. State the rationale of your views and support it with the relevant employment legislations ( 60 marks).
In determining whether it is justified to suspend payment of John's sickness allowance for the granted sick days, it is important to consider relevant employment legislation and the circumstances surrounding the incident.
Under most employment laws, employees are entitled to sick leave and associated benefits when they are unable to work due to illness or injury. In this case, John was granted seven days' sickness leave by a doctor with a medical certificate, indicating that he required time off to recover from his injury.
While Peter suggests suspending John's sickness allowance as a punishment for his perceived carelessness, it is essential to establish a clear link between John's actions and the incident. Mere speculation or assumptions about John's tiredness or his participation in a birthday celebration party should not override the medical assessment and professional opinion of the doctor.
In this scenario, it is more appropriate to focus on investigating the cause of the incident, ensuring workplace safety, and providing necessary support to prevent similar occurrences in the future. If there are concerns about employee conduct or performance, it would be more suitable to address them through separate disciplinary procedures that adhere to established policies and procedures.
To know more about employment refer to-
https://brainly.com/question/17459074
#SPJ11
Consider the following two statements on MRP. Which statement is true? 1. The MRP scheme has a 'Planned order release' of 10 units in period T. The lead time is 2 weeks. After closing off period T the 'Scheduled receipts' in period T increases with 10 units. 2. Product X consists of 1 units of component Z. Product Y consists of 2 units of component Z. Product X is manufactured in lot sizes of 10,Y in lot sizes of 5 , and Z in lot sizes of 15 . The Gross requirements of Z is in multiples of 10. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is not true Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true Statement 1 is not true, statement 2 is not true Statement 1 is not true, statement 2 is true
Statement 1 is not true, statement 2 is true.The true statement among the given two is statement 2. Statement 1 is not true.Explanation:MRP (Material Requirements Planning) is a computerized production planning and inventory control system used to manage manufacturing processes.
It calculates the exact quantities, and when to order them, required to manufacture final products.Components and sub-assemblies are included in the materials requirement plan, as are materials and other resources needed for the manufacturing process. These are then used to calculate the order needs.The following are the given two statements on MRP:1. The MRP scheme has a 'Planned order release' of 10 units in period T.
The lead time is 2 weeks. After closing off period T the 'Scheduled receipts' in period T increases with 10 units. This statement is not true.2. Product X consists of 1 units of component Z. Product Y consists of 2 units of component Z. Product X is manufactured in lot sizes of 10,Y in lot sizes of 5, and Z in lot sizes of 15. The Gross requirements of Z is in multiples of 10. This statement is true. So, the correct option is Statement 1 is not true, statement 2 is true.
To know more about materials visit:
brainly.com/question/30503992
#SPJ11