an aircraft is cruising in still air at 5oc at a velocity of 400 m/s. the air temperature in oc at the nose of the aircraft where stagnation occurs is

At the bottom of the incline, the sphere has a translational velocity of 6.32 m/s and a rotational velocity of 42.13 rad/s, and the total energy is split between kinetic and rotational energy with KE = 37.58 J and RE = 21.28 J.

The motion of the sphere can be analyzed by considering its potential energy (PE), kinetic energy (KE), and rotational energy (RE).

At the top of the incline, all of the energy is in the form of potential energy:

PE = mgh

where

m is the mass of the sphere,

g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s^2), and

h is the height of the incline.

The height can be calculated as follows:

h = sin(35°) x 7.0 m

  = 4.0 m

PE = (1.5 kg)(9.81 m/s²)(4.0 m)

    = 58.86 J

As the sphere rolls down the incline, its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy and rotational energy.

The kinetic energy can be calculated using the translational velocity of the sphere:

[tex]KE = (1/2)mv^2[/tex]

where

v is the velocity of the sphere.

The velocity can be calculated using the conservation of energy principle, which states that the total energy (PE + KE + RE) remains constant:

PE = KE + RE

At the bottom of the incline, all of the potential energy has been converted to kinetic energy and rotational energy, so the total energy is:

PE = 0

KE + RE = 58.86 J

The translational velocity of the sphere can be calculated from the KE as follows:

[tex]KE = (1/2)mv^2[/tex]

[tex]v = \sqrt{(2KE/m)[/tex]

[tex]v = \sqrt{(2(58.86 J)/(1.5 kg))[/tex]

  = 6.32 m/s

The rotational energy of the sphere can be calculated using its moment of inertia:

[tex]RE = (1/2)Iw^2[/tex]

where

I is the moment of inertia of the sphere,

w is its angular velocity, and

RE is its rotational energy.

The moment of inertia of a solid sphere is given by

[tex]I = (2/5)mr^2[/tex]

[tex]I = (2/5)(1.5 kg)(0.15 m)^2[/tex]

 = 0.0225 kg*m²

Since the sphere is rolling without slipping, the translational velocity of the sphere is related to its angular velocity by:

v = rw

where

r is the radius of the sphere.

Solving for w:

w = v/r

  = (6.32 m/s)/(0.15 m)

  = 42.13 rad/s

The rotational energy of the sphere can now be calculated:

[tex]RE = (1/2)Iw^2[/tex]

     [tex]= (1/2)(0.0225 kg*m^2)(42.13 rad/s)^2[/tex]

     = 21.28 J

Therefore, at the bottom of the incline, the sphere has a translational velocity of 6.32 m/s and a rotational velocity of 42.13 rad/s, and the total energy is split between kinetic and rotational energy with KE = 37.58 J and RE = 21.28 J.

To know more about rotational velocity refer here

brainly.com/question/26095104#

#SPJ11

The wavelength of the light used in the Michelson interferometer is approximately 633 nm. The number of bright-dark-bright fringe shifts (N) is directly proportional to the distance moved by the mirror (d) and inversely proportional to the wavelength of the light (λ).

However, this value is for vacuum. The actual wavelength of light used in the Michelson interferometer is typically corrected for air, which has a refractive index of approximately 1.0003. Using this correction factor, λ = 1270 nm / 1.0003 = 1269 nm ≈ 633 nm To find the wavelength of the light in the Michelson interferometer, we can use the given information about the movement of mirror M2 and the fringe shifts observed. In a Michelson interferometer, when the mirror moves a certain distance, the path difference between the two arms changes by twice that distance.

This is because the light has to travel to the mirror and back. Calculate the total path difference: 2 * 70 μm = 140 μm (since the light travels to the mirror and back) Convert the path difference to meters: 140 μm * 10^-6 m/μm = 140 * 10^-6 m Calculate the number of wavelengths in the total path difference: 550 fringe shifts = 550 wavelengths (since one bright-dark-bright fringe shift corresponds to one wavelength)  Divide the total path difference by the number of wavelengths to find the wavelength of the light: (140 * 10^-6 m) / 550 = 254 * 10^-9 m Convert the wavelength to nanometers: 254 * 10^-9 m * 10^9 nm/m = 254 nm

To know more about wavelength visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13533093

#SPJ11

Using AC current in an electromagnet affects the compass by causing it to oscillate or rapidly change direction.

This is because AC current alternates its direction of flow periodically. When the current flows through the electromagnet, it generates a magnetic field that changes direction along with the alternating current. As a result, the compass needle, which is sensitive to magnetic fields, will continuously change its direction in response to the fluctuating magnetic field created by the electromagnet.

In contrast to DC current, which produces a steady magnetic field, AC current creates a constantly changing magnetic field due to the alternating nature of the current. When an electromagnet is powered by AC current, its magnetic field will continuously change direction, causing the compass needle to rapidly change direction as well. This occurs because the compass needle aligns itself with the magnetic field generated by the electromagnet. The rapidly changing magnetic field can make it difficult to obtain a stable reading from the compass, as the needle will not settle in one direction.

To learn more about AC current visit:

brainly.com/question/11544001

#SPJ11

In the Charges and Fields PhET simulation (HTML 5 version), you can change the following aspects of the simulation: add positive or negative charges, adjust the strength of charges, measure electric field and potential and display field lines and equipotential lines.

1. Add positive or negative charges: You can place positive or negative point charges on the grid to create different electric fields.
2. Adjust the strength of charges: You can modify the strength of the point charges, influencing the electric field's intensity.
3. Measure electric field and potential: You can use the electric field and electric potential sensors to measure the field's strength and potential at various points in the simulation.
4. Display field lines and equipotential lines: You can toggle the display of electric field lines and equipotential lines to visualize the electric field and potential created by the charges.
Remember to experiment with different combinations of charges and their strengths to explore various electric field scenarios.

Learn more about Charges and Fields at

brainly.com/question/30466428

#SPJ11

To find the particle's speed, we can use the de Broglie wavelength equation:

λ = h/p

where λ is the de Broglie wavelength, h is Planck's constant, and p is the momentum of the particle. We can rearrange this equation to solve for the momentum:

p = h/λ

Now we can use the momentum and the mass of the particle to find its speed:

v = p/m

where v is the speed and m is the mass.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

p = (6.626 x 10^-34 J s)/(7.25 x 10^-12 m) = 9.13 x 10^-23 kg m/s

v = (9.13 x 10^-23 kg m/s)/(6.68 x 10^-27 kg) = 1.37 x 10^4 m/s

Therefore, the particle's speed is 1.37 x 10^4 m/s.

learn more about mass https://brainly.in/question/17007118?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ11

In Part A, the electron's speed is given as 4.00 km/s and the force acting on it due to the electric field is 5.50×10−15N. To find the acceleration produced by this force,

we can use the equation F = ma, where F is the force, m is the mass of the electron, and a is the acceleration. As the mass of the electron is very small,

we can use the equation a = F/m. Therefore, the acceleration produced by this force in Part A is:

a = F/m = (5.50×10−15N) / (9.11×10−31kg) = 6.04×10^15 m/s^2

In Part B, the force acting on the electron is parallel to its velocity. This means that the force does not change the direction of the electron's motion, but only its speed.

As the electron is moving with a constant velocity, we can assume that its acceleration is zero. This means that the force acting on the electron must be balanced by another force,

such as a magnetic force, that prevents the electron from changing its direction of motion. Therefore, the acceleration produced by the force in Part B is zero.

To know more about electron's speedrefer here

https://brainly.com/question/30194771#

#SPJ11

(a) 64.7° is the acceptance angle (in degrees) for the oil immersion objective

(b) 30° is the acceptance angle (in degrees) for the air immersion objective.

Part (a): The acceptance angle for the oil immersion objective can be calculated using the formula α1 = sin⁻¹(NA1/n), where NA1 is the numerical aperture of the objective and n is the refractive index of the medium between the specimen and the objective. Here, NA1 = 1.40 and n = 1.51 (refractive index of oil). Substituting these values, we get α1 = sin⁻¹(1.40/1.51) = 64.7°.
Part (b): The acceptance angle for the air immersion objective can be calculated using the formula α2 = sin⁻¹(NA2/n), where NA2 is the numerical aperture of the objective and n is the refractive index of the medium between the specimen and the objective. Here, NA2 = 0.5 and n = 1 (refractive index of air). Substituting these values, we get α2 = sin⁻¹(0.5/1) = 30°.
In summary, the acceptance angle for the oil immersion objective is 64.7°, while the acceptance angle for the air immersion objective is 30°. This difference in acceptance angle is due to the fact that oil has a higher refractive index than air, which allows for greater light refraction and therefore a larger acceptance angle.

To know more about immersion visit:

brainly.com/question/29306517

#SPJ11

To calculate the tension required for the rope to have transverse waves of frequency 37.0 Hz and a wavelength of 0.740 mm, we can use the formula: Tension = (mass per unit length) x (wave speed)^2

First, we need to find the mass per unit length of the rope:

mass per unit length = mass / length
mass per unit length = 0.145 kg / 2.00 m
mass per unit length = 0.0725 kg/m

Next, we need to find the wave speed using the formula:

wave speed = frequency x wavelength

wave speed = 37.0 Hz x 0.740 mm
wave speed = 27.38 m/s

Now we can substitute these values into the tension formula:

Tension = (mass per unit length) x (wave speed)^2
Tension = 0.0725 kg/m x (27.38 m/s)^2
Tension = 54.9 N

Therefore, the tension required for the rope to have transverse waves of frequency 37.0 Hz and a wavelength of 0.740 mm is 54.9 N.

To find the tension with which a rope of length 2.00 mm and mass 0.145 kg must be stretched for transverse waves of frequency 37.0 Hz to have a wavelength of 0.740 mm, you can use the formula for the speed of a wave on a string:

v = sqrt(T/μ),

where v is the wave speed, T is the tension, and μ is the linear mass density of the string.

First, find the linear mass density (μ) by dividing the mass (m) by the length (L) of the rope

Next, find the wave speed (v) using the wavelength (λ) and frequency (f)

Now, solve for the tension (T) using the wave speed (v) and linear mass density (μ)

To know more about tension visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30470948

#SPJ11

The owner is likely to prevail in an action against the engineer for damages resulting from his failure to perform under the contract due to his physical incapacity caused by a bicycling injury.

In general, the principle of contract law is that parties are expected to fulfill their contractual obligations. However, there are certain circumstances where performance may be excused or modified. In this case, the engineer's physical incapacity resulting from the bicycling injury prevents him from serving as the on-site supervisor as agreed upon in the contract.

While the engineer offered to serve as an off-site consultant for the same pay, this may not be sufficient to discharge his obligations under the original contract. The essential position of on-site supervisor requires physical presence and direct supervision, which the engineer is unable to provide due to his injury. If the contract explicitly specifies the engineer's role as the on-site supervisor, the owner may have a strong argument that the engineer's failure to perform constitutes a breach of contract.

However, the outcome may also depend on the specific terms of the contract and any provisions related to unforeseen circumstances or force majeure events. If the contract includes provisions for situations where the engineer becomes physically incapable of performing his duties, or if there is a provision allowing for the assignment or substitution of the engineer's role, it could potentially protect the engineer from liability. Ultimately, the determination of whether the owner will prevail in an action against the engineer would require a careful examination of the contract terms and the applicable laws in the jurisdiction where the contract was formed.

Learn more about contract here:

https://brainly.com/question/30488755

#SPJ11

In which direction is the centripetal acceleration directed on a particle that is moving along a circular trajectory?

Centripetal acceleration is always directed towards the center of the circular path in which the particle is moving. This inward direction ensures that

the particle constantly changes its velocity as it moves along the circular trajectory, even if its speed remains constant.

The centripetal acceleration is responsible for maintaining the particle's circular motion by continuously altering its direction.

To further understand this concept, consider these steps:

1. As the particle moves along the circular path, it has both a linear velocity (tangential to the circle) and an angular velocity (change in angle per unit time).

2. The centripetal force, acting perpendicular to the linear velocity, is responsible for the change in direction of the particle as it moves.

3. The centripetal acceleration is the result of this centripetal force acting on the particle. It is given by the formula: a_c = (v^2) / r, where a_c is the centripetal acceleration,

v is the linear velocity, and r is the radius of the circular path.

4. Since the centripetal acceleration is always directed towards the center of the circle, it ensures that the particle remains in its circular trajectory.

In conclusion, the centripetal acceleration is directed towards the center of the circular path in which a particle moves.

This inward direction enables the particle to maintain its circular motion by continuously adjusting its velocity.

To know more aboutcentripetal acceleration refer here

https://brainly.com/question/14465119#

#SPJ11

The mass flow rate of blood in the aorta is 6.6 grams per second.

The mass flow rate of blood is given by:

mass flow rate = density x volume flow rate

The volume flow rate Q is given by:

Q = A x v

where A is the cross-sectional area of the aorta and v is the flow speed.

Substituting the given values, we have:

Q = 2.0 [tex]cm^2[/tex] x 33 cm/s = 66 [tex]cm^3[/tex]/s

Converting to liters per second:

Q = 66 [tex]cm^3[/tex]cm^3/s x (1 L/1000 [tex]cm^3[/tex]) = 0.066 L/s

The density of blood is 1.0 [tex]g/cm^3[/tex]. Thus, the mass flow rate is:

mass flow rate = 1.0 [tex]g/cm^3[/tex] x 0.066 L/s x 1000 [tex]cm^3/L[/tex] = 6.6 g/s

Learn more about mass flow rate here:

https://brainly.com/question/30763861

#SPJ11

Answer:Main answer: The torque about the origin is (-131 + 263 + 26k) Nm.

Supporting explanation: The torque (τ) is defined as the cross product of the force (F) and the position vector (r) from the point of application to the axis of rotation. Therefore, we need to first find the position vector from the origin to the point of application of the force.

r = (-4.00i - 7.00j + 5.00k) m

Taking the cross product of r and F gives the torque:

τ = r × F

 = (-4.00i - 7.00j + 5.00k) × (2.00i - 3.00j + 4.00k) N

 = (8k - 15j)i + (16i + 20k)j + (-12i + 6j)k Nm

 = (-131 + 263 + 26k) Nm

Therefore, the torque about the origin is (-131 + 263 + 26k) Nm.

Learn more about torque and its applications at #SPJ11.

https://brainly.com/question/30338175?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ11

The magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the cross section of the windings is 3.95 x 10^-3 T.

To solve this problem, we can use the equation B = (μ0 * n * I) / (2 * r), where B is the magnetic field, μ0 is the permeability of free space (4π x 10^-7 T m/A), n is the number of turns per unit length (in this case, it's just the total number of turns divided by the mean circumference of the ring), I is the current, and r is the mean radius of the ring.

First, we need to find the mean circumference and mean radius of the ring. The mean diameter is given as 14.5 cm, so the mean radius is 7.25 cm. The mean circumference is 2πr, which is approximately 45.5 cm.

Next, we can calculate n by dividing the total number of turns (615) by the mean circumference (45.5 cm) to get 13.5 turns/cm.

Now we can plug in all the values into the equation and solve for B:

B = (4π x 10^-7 T m/A) * (13.5 turns/cm) * (0.640 A) / (2 * 0.0725 m)
B = 3.95 x 10^-3 T

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the cross section of the windings is 3.95 x 10^-3 T.

learn more about magnetic field

https://brainly.com/question/14411049

#SPJ11

The change in energy (in joules) of the hot water due to the heat transfer when it is placed in contact with the cold water and allowed to reach equilibrium is -15,464 J.

The change in energy (in joules) of the hot water due to the heat transfer when it is placed in contact with the cold water and allowed to reach equilibrium can be calculated using the equation

Q = mcΔT

Where Q is the heat transferred, m is the mass of the water, c is the specific heat capacity of water, and ΔT is the change in temperature of the water.

For the hot water

m = 1.00 kg

c = 4,186 J/(kg·°C) (specific heat capacity of water)

ΔT = 41.5°C - Teq

Where Teq is the equilibrium temperature of the two bodies.

For the cold water

m = 1.00 kg

c = 4,186 J/(kg·°C) (specific heat capacity of water)

ΔT = Teq - 21°C

Because the heat transfer is from the hot water to the cold water, the magnitude of the heat transferred will be the same for both bodies. Therefore

mcΔT = mcΔT

(1.00 kg)(4,186 J/(kg·°C))(41.5°C - Teq) = (1.00 kg)(4,186 J/(kg·°C))(Teq - 21°C)

Simplifying this equation, we get

83.7 J/°C = Teq - 21°C + Teq - 41.5°C

Combining like terms, we get

2Teq - 62.5°C = 83.7 J/°C

Solving for Teq, we get

Teq = (83.7 J/°C + 62.5°C)/2

Teq = 73.1°C

Therefore, the change in energy (in joules) of the hot water due to the heat transfer when it is placed in contact with the cold water and allowed to reach equilibrium is

Qh = mcΔT = (1.00 kg)(4,186 J/(kg·°C))(41.5°C - 73.1°C) = -15,464 J

(Note that the negative sign indicates that the hot water loses energy, as expected.)

To know more about change in energy here

https://brainly.com/question/31384081

#SPJ4

The electric potential 15.0 cm from a 4.0 µC point charge is approximately 95930 V.

The electric potential (V) at a distance r from a point charge Q is given by:

V = kQ/r

where k is the Coulomb constant (k = 8.99 x 10^9 N·m^2/C^2).

In this case, we are given a point charge Q of 4.0 µC and a distance r of 15.0 cm (which is 0.15 m in SI units). Plugging these values into the equation, we get:

V = (8.99 x 10^9 N·m^2/C^2) x (4.0 x 10^-6 C) / (0.15 m)

Solving this expression, we get:

V ≈ 95930 V

Therefore, the electric potential 15.0 cm from a 4.0 µC point charge is approximately 95930 V.

Know more about potential here

https://brainly.com/question/30701189#

#SPJ11

To express the rate of climb of a mountain trail with no units, you can simply state it as a ratio or fraction: 1/8.33. This means that for every 8.33 units traveled horizontally, the trail ascends 1 unit vertically.

The rate of climb of 120 meters per kilometer can be expressed with no units as a ratio or fraction: 1/8.33. This ratio signifies that for every 8.33 units traveled horizontally (in any unit of distance), the trail ascends 1 unit vertically (in any unit of elevation). By removing the specific units (meters per kilometer), we create a dimensionless quantity that can be used universally. This allows for easier comparison and understanding of the rate of climb, regardless of the specific units used to measure distance and elevation.

learn more about unit here:

https://brainly.com/question/29282740

#SPJ11

What steps can be taken to determine the resistance of a particular resistor and whether an experimental measurement of the resistor falls within tolerance, based on the information provided in Table 5.1?

Table 5.1 contains information about the standard resistance values for resistors with a tolerance of 5%, based on the E24 series.

To determine the resistance of a particular resistor, you would need to measure its value using a multimeter or other measuring device.

Once you have measured the resistance, you can compare it to the values listed in Table 5.1 to determine whether it falls within tolerance.

For example, if you have a resistor with a nominal value of 1.2 kΩ and a tolerance of 5%, its actual value can range from 1.14 kΩ to 1.26 kΩ.

If your measured value falls within this range, then the resistor is within tolerance. If it falls outside of this range, then the resistor is not within tolerance and may need to be replaced.

It is important to note that the tolerance of a resistor refers to the range of acceptable values for the resistor's actual resistance, not the accuracy of the measuring device.

If the measured value is outside of the tolerance range, it is not necessarily a reflection of an inaccurate measuring device.

Learn more about experimental measurement

brainly.com/question/31953030

#SPJ11

Answer:

The three elements we apply an ac voltage of 1 v of frequency of 1000 hz and given that r=100ohm l=8.0*10^-3 and c =1.0 *10^ -6f  the resonance frequency of the circuit is 1591 Hz.

Explanation:

The resonance frequency of an RLC circuit can be calculated using the formula:

f_res = 1 / (2 * pi * sqrt(L * C))

where f_res is the resonance frequency, L is the inductance, and C is the capacitance.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

f_res = 1 / (2 * pi * sqrt(8.0*10^-3 * 1.0*10^-6))

f_res = 1591 Hz (rounded to three significant figures)

Therefore, the resonance frequency of the circuit is 1591 Hz.

To learn more about resonance frequency refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/13040523#

#SPJ11

The magnetic flux through a circular loop can be calculated using the formula Φ = BA cosθ, where Φ is the magnetic flux, B is the magnetic field strength, A is the area of the loop, and θ is the angle between the loop normal and the magnetic field direction.

In this case, the diameter of the circular loop is 5.0 cm, which means the radius is 2.5 cm. Therefore, the area of the loop is A = πr^2 = π(2.5 cm)^2 = 19.63 cm^2.

The magnetic field strength is given as 75 mT, which can be converted to tesla (T) by dividing by 1000. Therefore, B = 75 mT / 1000 = 0.075 T.

The angle between the loop normal and the magnetic field direction is 36∘. We need to convert this to radians before using it in the formula. 36∘ = (π/180) × 36 = 0.63 radians.

Now we can plug in the values into the formula: Φ = BA cosθ = (0.075 T)(19.63 cm^2)cos(0.63 radians) = 1.48 × 10^-2 Wb or 14.8 mWb.

Therefore, the magnetic flux through the circular loop is 1.48 × 10^-2 Wb or 14.8 mWb.

To know more about flux visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14527109

#SPJ11

The blackbody object that peaks at 1,000 nm (just outside the visible spectrum) would appear invisible to the human eye. The answer is b.

The visible spectrum for humans ranges from approximately 400 nm (violet) to 700 nm (red). A blackbody object's perceived color depends on its temperature and the wavelength at which it emits the most radiation. The peak wavelength of the radiation emitted by an object decreases as its temperature increases according to Wien's displacement law.

In this case, a blackbody object that peaks at 1,000 nm has a temperature of approximately 2,897 K. This is outside the range of temperatures that produce visible light.

Therefore, the object would not appear to have any color to the human eye. Instead, it would appear as a dark object, absorbing most of the visible light that strikes it. Hence, b is the right option.

To know more about blackbody object, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/14921011#

#SPJ11

The kinetic energy of the recoiling electron is 33.6 Kev.

First, we can find the initial momentum of the photon using its energy and the equation for the momentum of a photon:

p = E/c

where p is the momentum, E is the energy, and c is the speed of light.

So, the initial momentum of the photon is:

p1 = 38.0 keV / c

Next, we can use the conservation of momentum to find the final momentum of the photon and the recoiling electron:

p1 = p2 + p3

where p2 is the final momentum of the scattered photon and p3 is the momentum of the recoiling electron.

Since the photon scatters at a large angle from the electron, we can assume that the photon loses all its energy to the electron and is scattered at 180 degrees.

p2 = 38.0 keV / c

So, the momentum of the recoiling electron is:

p3 = p1 - p2 = 0

This means that the recoiling electron is at rest after the scattering event, so all of the energy of the photon is transferred to the electron. Therefore, the kinetic energy of the recoiling electron is:

Kinetic Energy (K) = 33.6 keV

So the kinetic energy of the recoiling electron is 33.6 keV.

Learn more about Kinetic Energy.

brainly.com/question/15764612

#SPJ11

Light of wavelength 463 nm is incident on a diffraction grating that is 1.30 cm wide and has 1400 slits. The dispersion of the m=2 line is 988,172 rad/cm.

The dispersion of the m=2 line can be calculated using the formula

Dispersion = (mλ)/Δx

Where m is the order of the diffraction pattern, λ is the wavelength of light, and Δx is the spacing between adjacent slits on the diffraction grating.

In this case, m=2, λ=463 nm, Δx = 1.30 cm/1400 = 0.00093 cm.

Substituting these values into the formula, we get

Dispersion = (2)(463 nm)/(0.00093 cm)

= 988,172 rad/cm

Therefore, the dispersion of the m=2 line is 988,172 rad/cm.

To know more about dispersion here

https://brainly.com/question/17162191

#SPJ4

Spring force decreases by a factor of 3/2, and elastic potential energy decreases by a factor of 9/4.

The force exerted by a spring is given by Hooke's Law, F = -kx, where F is the force, x is the distance the spring is compressed or stretched, and k is the spring constant. If x is decreased by a third, then the force decreases proportionally by a factor of 3/2. So the spring force decreases by a factor of 3/2.

The elastic potential energy stored in a spring is given by the formula U = (1/2)kx^2. If x is decreased by a third, then the potential energy stored in the spring decreases by a factor of (1/2)k(1/3x)^2 = (1/18)kx^2. So the elastic potential energy decreases by a factor of 9/4.

Learn more about Spring force here:

https://brainly.com/question/14655680

#SPJ11

The power for element (a) is -39 VA to two significant figures with the correct algebraic sign.

To compute the power for element (a), we can use the formula P = V * I, where P is power, V is voltage, and I is current.

Substituting the given values, we get:

P = (-13 V) * (3 A) = -39 W

Since the voltage is negative and the current is positive, the power is negative, indicating that the element is absorbing power rather than supplying it.

Expressing the answer to two significant figures and including the appropriate units, the power for element (a) is -39 W.

Learn more about element

brainly.com/question/13025901

#SPJ11

It is a measure of the opposition that a capacitor provides to the flow of an alternating current. The value of capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency of the alternating current.

The ratio of the capacitive reactance of a typical clavus sample to that of verruca will depend on the frequency at which it is measured. At low frequencies, the capacitive reactance of both clavus and verruca will be similar

However, as the frequency increases, the capacitive reactance of the clavus sample will decrease at a faster rate compared to verruca. This is because the clavus sample is denser than verruca and has a higher dielectric constant.

To know more about alternating current visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/11673552
#SPJ11

The force that the spring would apply can be calculated using the formula F = kx, where F is the force, k is the spring constant, and x is the distance the spring is compressed.

we have a spring constant of 8.50 N/m and a compression distance of 4.00 m. Plugging these values into the formula, we get ,F = 8.50 N/m x 4.00 m ,F = 34 N Therefore, the force that the spring would apply is 34 N.

To calculate the force applied by a spring, we use Hooke's Law, which is given by the formula F = -k * x, where F is the force applied by the spring, k is the spring constant, and x is the compression or extension of the spring. In this case, the spring constant k is 8.50 N/m, and the compression x is 4.00 m. Plugging these values into the formula, we get F = -8.50 N/m * 4.00 m F = -34 N, the magnitude of the force is 34 N.

To know more about force visit :

https://brainly.com/question/13191643

#SPJ11

(a) The velocity of piece B (vB) after the fission can be solved in terms of the velocity of piece A (vA), and the masses of the two pieces (mA and mB) using conservation of momentum: vB = (mA/mB) * vA

Conservation of momentum states that the total momentum of a system is conserved if no external forces act on it. In this case, the initial momentum of the system is zero, since the nucleus was at rest before the fission. Therefore, the total momentum of the two pieces after the fission must also be zero.

We can write the total momentum of the system after the fission as:

p = mA * vA - mB * vB

Since the total momentum is zero, we have:

0 = mA * vA - mB * vB

Solving for vB, we get:

vB = (mA/mB) * vA

(b) Using the expression for vB derived in part (a), we can show that the ratio of the kinetic energies of the two pieces after the fission (KA/KB) is equal to the ratio of their masses (mB/mA):

KA/KB = mB * vB² / (mA * vA²)

Substituting the expression for vB from part (a), we get:

KA/KB = mB/mA

The kinetic energy of an object is given by the formula:

K = (1/2) * m * v²

where m is the mass of the object and v is its velocity. Using this formula, we can write the kinetic energy of piece A and piece B after the fission as:

KA = (1/2) * mA * vA²

KB = (1/2) * mB * vB²

Substituting the expression for vB from part (a), we get:

KA/KB = (mA * vA²) / (mB * vB²)

KA/KB = (mA * vA²) / (mB * [(mA/mB) * vA]²)

KA/KB = mB/mA

Therefore, we have shown that the ratio of the kinetic energies of the two pieces after the fission is equal to the ratio of their masses.

learn more about kinetic energy here:

https://brainly.com/question/26472013

#SPJ11

The new temperature of the ideal gas after removing 3.6 J of thermal energy is approximately 12.1°C.

To calculate the new temperature, we'll use the formula for the change in internal energy of an ideal gas, which is ΔU = (3/2)nRΔT, where ΔU is the change in internal energy, n is the number of moles, R is the ideal gas constant, and ΔT is the change in temperature.

First, we need to determine the number of moles (n) from the given number of atoms (2.2 × 10²² atoms). Since 1 mole contains Avogadro's number (6.022 × 10²³) of atoms, we can find n by dividing the number of atoms by Avogadro's number:

n = (2.2 × 10²² atoms) / (6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol) ≈ 0.0365 moles

Next, we need to find the change in internal energy (ΔU), which is -3.6 J since thermal energy is being removed from the gas.

Now, we can rearrange the formula ΔU = (3/2)nRΔT to solve for the change in temperature (ΔT):

ΔT = ΔU / [(3/2)nR] = -3.6 J / [(3/2)(0.0365 moles)(8.314 J/mol K)] ≈ -7.9°C

Since the initial temperature was 20°C, the new temperature is:

New Temperature = Initial Temperature + ΔT = 20°C -7.9°C ≈ 12.1°C.

To know more about the internal energy, click here;

https://brainly.com/question/14668303

#SPJ11

The angle of repose for fine sand is 35 degrees.

The ground motion in a Richter magnitude 7 earthquake is 10,000 times larger than in a Richter magnitude 4 earthquake. The angle of repose for fine sand is typically around 34 degrees. This can vary slightly, but it should be accurate within 2 degrees.
The ground motion in a Richter magnitude 7 earthquake is 1,000 times larger than in a Richter magnitude 4 earthquake. This is because each whole number increase on the Richter scale corresponds to a 10-fold increase in ground motion.

To know more about angle of repose visit:

https://brainly.com/question/10218873

#SPJ11

If r is a primitive root modulo m, then its inverse r(bar) is also a primitive root modulo m.

Let's assume that r is a primitive root modulo m. This means that the set of residues generated by r modulo m is a complete residue system, i.e., it covers all the numbers from 1 to [tex]m^{-1[/tex].

Now, let's consider the inverse of r, denoted as r(bar). By definition, r(bar) is the number such that:

r × r(bar) ≡ 1 (mod m).

To show that r(bar) is also a primitive root modulo m, we need to prove that the set of residues generated by r(bar) modulo m is also a complete residue system.

To know more about primitive root modulo

https://brainly.com/question/14766413

#SPJ4