(a) The sphere's of the angular velocity at bottom of the incline will be 54.0 rad/s. (b) the fraction of the sphere's kinetic energy that is rotational is; 8.45%.
To solve this problem, we use the conservation of energy. At the top of the incline, the sphere has only potential energy, which is converted to kinetic energy as it rolls down the incline.
The potential energy of sphere at the top of incline is given by;
PE = mgh = (0.320 kg)(9.81 m/s²)(1.80 m) = 5.56 J
At the bottom of incline, the sphere having both translational and rotational kinetic energy. The translational kinetic energy is;
KE_trans = (1/2)mv²
where v is velocity of the sphere at bottom of the incline. To find v, we will use conservation of energy;
PE = KE_trans + KE_rot
where KE_rot is the rotational kinetic energy of the sphere. At the bottom of the incline, the sphere is rolling without slipping, so we have:
v = Rω
where R is radius of the sphere and ω is its angular velocity. Therefore, we can write;
PE = (1/2)mv² + (1/2)Iω²
where I is moment of inertia of the sphere. For a solid sphere, we have;
I = (2/5)mr²
where r is the radius of the sphere. Substituting the given values, we have;
5.56 J = (1/2)(0.320 kg)v² + (1/2)(2/5)(0.320 kg)(0.0435 m[tex])^{2ω^{2} }[/tex]
where we have converted the diameter of the sphere to meters. Solving for v, we get;
v = 2.35 m/s
To find the angular velocity ω, we can use the equation v = Rω;
ω = v/R = v/(d/2) = (2v)/d
Substituting the given values, we get;
ω = (2)(2.35 m/s)/(0.087 m) = 54.0 rad/s
Therefore, the sphere's angular velocity at the bottom of the incline is 54.0 rad/s.
The total kinetic energy of the sphere at the bottom of the incline is:
KE = (1/2)mv² + (1/2)Iω²
Substituting the given values, we have;
KE = (1/2)(0.320 kg)(2.35 m/s)² + (1/2)(2/5)(0.320 kg)(0.0435 m)²(54.0 rad/s)²
Simplifying, we get;
KE = 4.31 J
The rotational kinetic energy of the sphere is;
KE_rot = (1/2)Iω² = (1/2)(2/5)(0.320 kg)(0.0435 m)²(54.0 rad/s)² = 0.364 J
Therefore, the fraction of the sphere's kinetic energy that is rotational is;
KE_rot/KE = 0.364 J / 4.31 J = 0.0845
So, about 8.45% of the kinetic energy is rotational.
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Calculate the energy required to melt 16.4 g of ice at 0 ⁰C. For water, ΔH fus = 6.01kJ/mol. Show your calculations and include units to receive full credit.
The energy required to melt 16.4 g of ice at 0 ⁰C is 5.46 kJ.
To melt 16.4 g of ice at 0 ⁰C, we need to use the formula:
Energy = mass x ΔH fus
Where ΔH fus is the enthalpy of fusion of water, which is 6.01 kJ/mol.
First, we need to convert the mass of ice from grams to moles:
16.4 g / 18.015 g/mol = 0.91 mol
Next, we can calculate the energy required to melt the ice:
Energy = 0.91 mol x 6.01 kJ/mol = 5.46 kJ
Therefore, the energy required to melt 16.4 g of ice at 0 ⁰C is 5.46 kJ.
It's important to include the units in our answer to make it clear what we are measuring. In this case, the units are in kilojoules (kJ).
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a force of 20,000 n will cause a 1cm × 1cm bar of magnesium to stretch from 10 cm to 10.045 cm. calculate the modulus of elasticity, both in gpa and psi.
The modulus of elasticity of the magnesium bar can be calculated using the formula:
Modulus of Elasticity = (Force / Area) / (Change in Length / Original Length)
Substituting the values given in the problem:
Modulus of Elasticity = (20,000 N / (1 cm x 1 cm)) / ((0.045 cm) / 10 cm) = 4,444,444.44 Pa
Converting Pa to GPa and psi:
Modulus of Elasticity = 4.44 GPa or 643,600.79 psi
In simpler terms, the modulus of elasticity measures the stiffness of a material. It is the ratio of the applied stress to the resulting strain in a material. In this problem, we are given the force applied to a magnesium bar, its dimensions, and the resulting change in length.
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Measurements of the radioactivity of a certain isotope tell you that the decay rate decreases from 8255 decays per minute to 3110 decays per minute over a period of 4.50 days.
What is the half-life (T1/2) of this isotope?
I have tried several ways to figure this out and cannot seem to get the correct answer, can you show you work along with this? Thanks for your help!
The half-life of this isotope is 15.7 days. This means that after 15.7 days, the activity of the isotope will have decreased to half of its initial value.
Using the formula for radioactive decay, A=A0e^(-λt), where A is the current activity, A0 is the initial activity, λ is the decay constant, and t is time, we can set up an equation using the given information:
A = A0e^(-λt)
8255 = A0e^(-λ(0))
3110 = A0e^(-λ(4.50 days))
Taking the ratio of the two equations and solving for λ, we get:
λ = ln(8255/3110)/4.50 days = 0.0441 per day
To find the half-life, we can use the formula T1/2 = ln(2)/λ:
T1/2 = ln(2)/0.0441 per day = 15.7 days
Therefore, this isotope has a half-life of 15.7 days. This indicates that after 15.7 days, the isotope's activity will be half of its initial value. The half-life is an important parameter for understanding the behavior of radioactive materials, and it can be used to calculate decay rates and other properties of the isotope.
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what is the focal length (in m) of a makeup mirror that has a power of 1.70 d?
The focal length of the makeup mirror is 0.588 meters or approximately 58.8 centimeters.
What is the focal length of makeup mirror?To find the focal length of a makeup mirror that has a power of 1.70 D (diopters).
We can use the following formula:
f = 1/P
where f is the focal length in meters and P is the power in diopters.
Substituting P = 1.70 D into the formula, we get:
f = 1/1.70 D
f = 0.588 m
Therefore, the focal length of the makeup mirror is 0.588 meters or approximately 58.8 centimeters.
This means that light rays entering the mirror will converge at a distance of 0.588 meters behind the mirror's surface
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A rock attached to a string swings back and forth every 4.6 s. How long is the string?
In the given statement, A rock attached to a string swings back and forth every 4.6 s then the length of the string is approximately 13.53 meters.
To calculate the length of the string, we need to use the formula for the period of a pendulum, which is T = 2π√(L/g), where T is the period, L is the length of the string, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. In this case, we know that the period is 4.6 s, so we can plug that in and solve for L:
4.6 = 2π√(L/9.8)
2.3 = π√(L/9.8)
(2.3/π)^2 = L/9.8
1.16^2 × 9.8 = L
13.53 ≈ L
So the length of the string is approximately 13.53 meters. This makes sense, as longer strings have longer periods, so the rock on a longer string would take longer to swing back and forth. Therefore, by measuring the period of the pendulum, we can determine the length of the string.
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An electron in the n = 5 level of the hydrogen atom relaxes to a lower energy level, emitting light of λ = 434 nm . Find the principal level to which the electron relaxed. Express your answer as an integer.
The electron in the hydrogen atom relaxed from the n = 5 level to the n = 2 level, emitting light of λ = 434 nm. The principal level to which the electron relaxed is 2.
When an electron in the hydrogen atom relaxes to a lower energy level, it releases energy in the form of light. This process is known as emission. In this case, we are given that the electron was initially in the n = 5 level and emitted light with a wavelength of λ = 434 nm. We can use the equation ΔE = hc/λ, where ΔE is the energy change, h is Planck's constant, c is the speed of light, and λ is the wavelength.
First, we need to find the energy of the emitted light. Using the given wavelength, we have λ = 434 nm = 4.34 x 10^-7 m. Plugging this into the equation, we get ΔE = hc/λ = (6.626 x 10^-34 J s) x (2.998 x 10^8 m/s) / (4.34 x 10^-7 m) = 4.565 x 10^-19 J.
Next, we need to find the energy level to which the electron relaxed. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the nth energy level is given by E = -13.6/n^2 eV. The change in energy between the initial level (n = 5) and the final level (n = ?) is ΔE = Efinal - Einitial. Substituting in the values, we get 4.565 x 10^-19 J = (-13.6/n^2 eV) - (-13.6/5^2 eV). Solving for n, we get n = 2.
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for h35cl (θr = 15.24 k) what is the contribution of rotational degrees of freedom to the molar constant volume heat capacity at 298 k?
The contribution of rotational degrees of freedom to the molar constant volume heat capacity at 298 K for H35Cl (θr = 15.24 K) is given by the following equation:
Cv,m = R + (1/2)R(θr/T)^2
where R is the gas constant, θr is the rotational temperature, and T is the temperature in Kelvin.
The molar constant volume heat capacity, Cv,m, of a gas is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one mole of the gas by one Kelvin at constant volume. It is related to the degrees of freedom of the gas molecules, which include translational, rotational, and vibrational degrees of freedom. At room temperature, the rotational degrees of freedom are typically less important than the translational degrees of freedom, but they still contribute to the overall heat capacity of the gas.
For H35Cl, which is a linear molecule, there is only one rotational degree of freedom. The rotational temperature, θr, is a measure of the energy required to excite the molecule from one rotational state to another. It is related to the moment of inertia of the molecule and is given by the equation:
θr = h^2 / 8π^2Ik
where h is Planck's constant, k is Boltzmann's constant, and I is the moment of inertia of the molecule.
At 298 K, the contribution of the rotational degrees of freedom to the molar constant volume heat capacity of H35Cl can be calculated using the above equation for Cv,m. Assuming R = 8.314 J/mol*K, we have:
Cv,m = 8.314 J/mol*K + (1/2)(8.314 J/mol*K)((15.24 K)/(298 K))^2
Cv,m = 8.314 J/mol*K + 0.035 J/mol*K
Cv,m = 8.349 J/mol*K
Therefore, the contribution of the rotational degrees of freedom to the molar constant volume heat capacity of H35Cl at 298 K is 0.035 J/mol*K.
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This question is a long free-response question. Show your work for each part of the question.
(12 points, suggested time 25 minutes)
A group of students is asked to determine the index of refraction of a plastic block. They have a laser pointer mounted on a protractor. The laser can be pivoted and the angle of incidence of the laser on the block can be measured. However, the laser beam is not visible inside the plastic block. Only the spots on the surface of the block where the laser enters and exits are visible.
(a) The rectangle below represents the plastic block. The laser beam enters at the dot on the top of the block and exits at the dot on the bottom. On the figure, indicate all the distance measurements needed to determine the index of refraction of the block. Justify why the measurements are useful to determine the index of refraction. You may add other lines to the figure to assist in your justification.
The students obtain the data in the table.
(b)
i. On the axes below, plot data that will allow determination of the index of refraction of the plastic from a best-fit line. Be sure to label and scale the axes. Draw a best-fit line that could represent the data.
ii. Determine the index of refraction from the graph.
(c) Blocks of plastic 1 and plastic 2, with indices of refraction n1 and n2, respectively, are placed in contact with each other. A laser beam in plastic 1 is incident on the boundary with plastic 2. Using the model of light as it crosses the boundary between the plastics, determine an expression for the ratio λ1/λ2 of the wavelengths of the light in the two plastics in terms of n1, n2, and physical constants as appropriate.
See diagram for distances needed: d1 = distance from laser entry point to top surface of block; d2 = thickness of block; d3 = distance from bottom surface of block to laser exit point.
Plot sin(θi) vs sin(θr) where θi is the angle of incidence and θr is the angle of refraction inside the plastic block. Label the y-axis as sin(θr) and the x-axis as sin(θi). ii. The index of refraction is equal to the slope of the best-fit line. λ1/λ2 = n2/n1, where λ1 and λ2 are the wavelengths of light in plastic 1 and plastic 2, respectively. This expression follows from the assumption that the frequency of the light remains constant as it crosses the boundary between the two materials, which implies that the product of wavelength and frequency is constant. The ratio of wavelengths is therefore equal to the ratio of the indices of refraction, according to Snell's law.
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With what force Fpull must the carpenter pull on the crowbar to remove the nail?
Express the force in terms of Fnail, Lh, Ln, and θ.
To remove the nail using a crowbar, the carpenter needs to apply a force to overcome the resistance provided by the nail.
Let's assume that the nail is embedded in a piece of wood, and the carpenter is using a crowbar of length Lh to remove it.
The force required to remove the nail can be expressed in terms of the force exerted by the nail on the crowbar, which we can denote as Fnail.
We can break down the force required into two components: the force required to overcome the friction between the nail and the wood, and the force required to lift the nail out of the wood.
The angle between the crowbar and the wood surface is θ, and the length of the part of the crowbar in contact with the wood is Ln.
The force required to overcome friction can be expressed as the product of the coefficient of static friction between the nail and the wood, and the normal force acting on the nail.
The normal force can be calculated as the component of the force exerted by the crowbar perpendicular to the wood surface, which is given by Fnail * sin(θ). Therefore, the force required to overcome friction is:
Frictional force = μs * (Fnail * sin(θ))
where μs is the coefficient of static friction between the nail and the wood.
The force required to lift the nail out of the wood can be expressed as the product of the force required to overcome the resistance offered by the wood around the nail and the mechanical advantage provided by the crowbar.
The mechanical advantage of the crowbar can be calculated as Lh/Ln. Therefore, the force required to lift the nail out of the wood is:
Lifting force = (Fnail * cos(θ)) * (Lh/Ln)
The total force required to remove the nail is the sum of the frictional force and the lifting force:
Total force = Frictional force + Lifting force
Substituting the expressions for Frictional force and Lifting force, we get:
Total force = μs * (Fnail * sin(θ)) + (Fnail * cos(θ)) * (Lh/Ln)
Simplifying this expression, we get:
Total force = Fnail * (μs * sin(θ) + cos(θ) * (Lh/Ln))
Therefore, the force required to remove the nail can be expressed as:
Fpull = Fnail * (μs * sin(θ) + cos(θ) * (Lh/Ln))
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determine the probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states at 70.0 k .
It is not possible to determine the probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states at 70.0 k without additional information.
In order to calculate the probability of occupying a higher-energy state at a given temperature, we need to know the distribution of energy levels and the relative probabilities of occupying each state. The distribution of energy levels is determined by the system and its interactions, and cannot be determined solely from the temperature. Additionally, the probabilities of occupying each state depend on the specific system and its interactions, and cannot be determined solely from the temperature. Therefore, without additional information about the specific system and its interactions, it is not possible to calculate the probability of occupying a higher-energy state at a given temperature.
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two capacitors of 6.00 f and 8.00 f are connected in parallel. the combination is then connected in series with a 12.0-v battery and a 14.0- f capacitor. what is the equivalent capacitance?
Two capacitors of 6.00 f and 8.00 f are connected in parallel. The combination is then connected in series with a 12.0-v battery and a 14.0- f capacitor. We have to find the equivalent capacitance.
To find the equivalent capacitance of the given circuit, which includes two capacitors of 6.00 F and 8.00 F connected in parallel, and then the combination connected in series with a 12.0-V battery and a 14.0-F capacitor, follow these steps:
Step 1: Calculate the capacitance of the parallel combination of the 6.00 F and 8.00 F capacitors using the formula for parallel capacitance:
C_parallel = C1 + C2
C_parallel = 6.00 F + 8.00 F = 14.00 F
Step 2: Calculate the equivalent capacitance of the entire circuit, which includes the 14.00 F parallel combination connected in series with the 14.0 F capacitor. Use the formula for series capacitance:
1/C_equivalent = 1/C_parallel + 1/C3
1/C_equivalent = 1/14.00 F + 1/14.0 F
Step 3: Solve for C_equivalent:
1/C_equivalent = 2/14 F
C_equivalent = 14 F / 2
C_equivalent = 7.00 F
The equivalent capacitance of the given circuit is 7.00 F.
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If your hands are wet and no towel is handy, you can remove some of the excesses of water by shaking them. Why does this get rid of it?
Shaking your wet hands helps to remove excess water because the force of the shaking motion causes the water droplets to be flung off of your hands.
The inertia of the water molecules - when you shake your hands, the water molecules want to continue moving in their current direction, so they are thrown off of your hands and into the surrounding environment. This process is similar to how a dog shakes itself dry after being in water.
This gets rid of the water due to the following reasons:
1. Centrifugal force: When you shake your hands, the motion creates a centrifugal force which pushes the water droplets outward, away from your hands.
2. Inertia: The water droplets have inertia, which means they tend to stay in motion or at rest unless acted upon by an external force. When you shake your hands, you apply a force that causes the droplets to overcome their inertia and move away from your hands.
3. Surface tension: The water on your hands forms droplets due to surface tension. Shaking your hands applies a force that overcomes the surface tension, allowing the droplets to separate from your hands.
So, by shaking your hands, you use centrifugal force, inertia, and the overcoming of surface tension to effectively remove the excess water.
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A 13 cm long animal tendon was found to stretch 3.8 mm by a force of 13 N. The tendon was approximately round with an average diameter of 9.0 mm. Calculate the elastic modulus of this tendon.
The elastic modulus of this tendon is approximately 8.89 N/mm². The elastic modulus of the animal tendon is 5.37 MPa.
Stress = Force/Area
Area = pi*(diameter/2)^2 = pi*(9.0 mm/2)^2 = 63.62 mm^2
Stress = 13 N / 63.62 mm^2 = 0.204 MPa
Strain = Change in length/Original length
Strain = 3.8 mm / 13 cm = 0.038
Now, we can use the formula for elastic modulus:
Elastic Modulus = Stress/Strain
Elastic Modulus = 0.204 MPa / 0.038
Elastic modulus = 5.37 MPa
Elastic Modulus (E) = (Force × Original Length) / (Area × Extension)
First, we need to calculate the cross-sectional area (A) of the tendon, which is given by the formula for the area of a circle:
A = π × (d/2)^2
Where d is the diameter (9.0 mm).
A = π × (9.0/2)^2 ≈ 63.62 mm²
Next, we have the original length (L) = 13 cm = 130 mm, the extension (∆L) = 3.8 mm, and the force (F) = 13 N. Now, we can plug these values into the formula:
E = (13 N × 130 mm) / (63.62 mm² × 3.8 mm)
E ≈ 8.89 n/mm²
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the intensity of a sound wave emitted by a vacuum cleaner is 4.50 µw/m2. what is the sound level (in db)?
The sound level emitted by the vacuum cleaner is 66.53 dB, which is equivalent to the sound level of a normal conversation or a dishwasher.
To calculate the sound level in decibels (dB) from the intensity of a sound wave emitted by a vacuum cleaner, we need to use the following formula:
Sound level (dB) = 10 log (I/I0)
where I is the intensity of the sound wave in watts per square meter (W/m2), and I0 is the reference intensity, which is usually taken to be 1 picowatt per square meter (10^-12 W/m2).
In this case, the intensity of the sound wave emitted by the vacuum cleaner is given as 4.50 µw/m2, which is equivalent to 4.50 x 10^-6 W/m2. Therefore, we can calculate the sound level in dB as:
Sound level (dB) = 10 log (4.50 x 10^-6/10^-12)
Sound level (dB) = 10 log (4.50 x 10^6)
Sound level (dB) = 10 x 6.6532
Sound level (dB) = 66.53 dB
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The sound level emitted by the vacuum cleaner is 66.53 dB, which is equivalent to the sound level of a normal conversation or a dishwasher.
To calculate the sound level in decibels (dB) from the intensity of a sound wave emitted by a vacuum cleaner, we need to use the following formula:
Sound level (dB) = 10 log (I/I0)
where I is the intensity of the sound wave in watts per square meter (W/m2), and I0 is the reference intensity, which is usually taken to be 1 picowatt per square meter (10^-12 W/m2).
In this case, the intensity of the sound wave emitted by the vacuum cleaner is given as 4.50 µw/m2, which is equivalent to 4.50 x 10^-6 W/m2. Therefore, we can calculate the sound level in dB as:
Sound level (dB) = 10 log (4.50 x 10^-6/10^-12)
Sound level (dB) = 10 log (4.50 x 10^6)
Sound level (dB) = 10 x 6.6532
Sound level (dB) = 66.53 dB
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a person has far points of 7.5 m from the right eye and 5.8 m from the left eye. write a prescription for the refractive power of (a) right and (b) left corrective contact lenses.
The prescription for the refractive power of the corrective contact lenses for a person with far points of 7.5 m from the right eye and 5.8 m from the left eye is -0.13 D (or nearest available power) for the right eye and -0.17 D (or nearest available power) for the left eye assuming no cylinder correction is needed.
To determine the refractive power of corrective contact lenses for a person with far points of 7.5 m from the right eye and 5.8 m from the left eye, we need to calculate the spherical equivalent (SE) of the person's refractive error.
SE = sphere + 0.5 * cylinder
where sphere is the spherical power of the lens needed to correct the refractive error, and cylinder is the cylindrical power (if any) needed to correct for astigmatism.
Assuming no cylinder correction is needed, the SE can be calculated as follows:
SE_right = (1 / (-7.5 m)) * 1000 mm/m = -0.133 D
SE_left = (1 / (-5.8 m)) * 1000 mm/m = -0.172 D
Therefore, the prescription for the refractive power of the corrective contact lenses would be:
(a) Right eye: -0.13 D (or nearest available power)
(b) Left eye: -0.17 D (or nearest available power)
Note: The prescription for corrective lenses would need to be written by an eye care professional after a thorough eye examination to determine the person's full refractive error and any other visual needs.
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Two long straight wires are parallel and 8.0cm apart. They are to carry equal currents such that the magnetic field at a point halfway between them has magnitude 300μT. (a) Should the currents be in the same or opposite directions? (b) How much current is needed?
(a) The currents should be in opposite directions.
(b) The amount of current needed is 4.8 A.
The magnetic field at a point halfway between two long straight wires is given by:
B = μ₀I/2πd
where B is the magnetic field, I is the current, d is the distance between the wires, and μ₀ is the permeability of free space.
In this problem, we are given that the distance between the wires is 8.0 cm and the magnetic field at a point halfway between them is 300 μT.
Substituting these values into the equation, we get:
300 x 10⁻⁶ T = (4π x 10⁻⁷ T m/A)I/(2π x 0.08 m)
Simplifying the equation, we get:
I = (300 x 10⁻⁶ T) x (2 x π x 0.08 m) / (4π x 10⁻⁷ T m/A)
I = 4.8 A
Therefore, the amount of current needed is 4.8 A.
To produce a magnetic field of 300 μT at a point halfway between two long straight wires, the currents in the wires should be in opposite directions, and the amount of current needed is 4.8 A.
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Assume last period’s forecast was 35 and the demand was 42.
a. What was the forecast error?
b. What would be the forecast for the next period using an exponential smoothing model with alpha = 0.8? (Round your answer to the nearest whole number.)
The forecast error is |35 - 42| = 7. Forecast for next period = 0.8 * 42 + 0.2 * 35 = 39.2
The forecast error is calculated by subtracting the actual demand from the forecast, then taking the absolute value of the result. In this case,
To calculate the forecast for the next period using an exponential smoothing model with alpha = 0.8, we use the formula: Forecast for next period = alpha * (last period's demand) + (1 - alpha) * (last period's forecast)
Substituting the given values, we get: Forecast for next period = 0.8 * 42 + 0.2 * 35 = 39.2
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the forecast for the next period using an exponential smoothing model with alpha = 0.8 is 39.
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A triangular swimming pool measures 44 ft on one side and 32.5 ft on another side. The two sides form an angle that measures 41.1 degree. How long is the third side? The length of the third side is ft.
Therefore, the length of the third side is 44.02 ft.
To find the length of the third side of the triangular swimming pool, we can use the law of cosines. This law allows us to find the length of a side when we know the lengths of the other two sides and the angle between them. The formula is c^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2ab*cos(C), where c is the length of the third side, a and b are the lengths of the other two sides, and C is the angle between them.
Plugging in the given values, we get:
c^2 = 44^2 + 32.5^2 - 2*44*32.5*cos(41.1)
c^2 = 1935.19
c = sqrt(1935.19)
c = 44.02 ft (rounded to two decimal places)
The length of the third side of the triangular swimming pool is 44.02 ft. This was calculated using the law of cosines, which relates the lengths of the sides of a triangle to the angle between them. The formula involves squaring the lengths of the sides, adding them together, and subtracting twice their product times the cosine of the angle between them. In this case, the given sides and angle were plugged into the formula to find the length of the third side.
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What is the maximum force (in n) on an aluminum rod with a 0.300 µc charge that you pass between the poles of a 1.10 t permanent magnet at a speed of 8.50 m/s?
The maximum force on the aluminum rod with a 0.300 µc charge passing between the poles of a 1.10 t permanent magnet at a speed of 8.50 m/s is 2.805 N due to aluminum being non-magnetic.
To calculate the maximum force on the aluminum rod, we'll use the formula for the magnetic force on a charged particle: F = qvB, where F is the force, q is the charge, v is the velocity, and B is the magnetic field strength.
Given the charge (0.300 µC = 3.0 x 10^(-7) C), the velocity (8.50 m/s), and the magnetic field strength (1.10 T), we can plug these values into the formula:
F = (3.0 x 10^(-7) C) x (8.50 m/s) x (1.10 T)
F = 2.805 x 10^(-6) N
Converting the force back to its original unit (N), we get the maximum force on the aluminum rod as 2.805 N.
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A knight spins a 10.0kg iron spiked ball in an arc over his head. The circumference of the arc is 9.00m and it spins once every 0.350s. What is the tangential velocity of the ball?a. 0.0389m/sb. 9.35m/sc. 8.65m/sd. 25.7m/s
The correct answer is d. 25.7 m/s. The tangential velocity of the ball is given by the formula v = 2πr/T, where r is the radius of the circle (in this case half the circumference) and T is the time it takes to complete one revolution.
Using the given values, we have r = 9.00m/2 = 4.50m and T = 0.350s. Substituting these values into the formula, we get: v = 2π(4.50m)/0.350s
v = 25.7m/s
Therefore, the correct answer is d. 25.7m/s.
The tangential velocity of the ball can be calculated using the formula:
Tangential Velocity (v) = Circumference / Time
Given:
Circumference (C) = 9.00 m
Time (t) = 0.350 s
v = 9.00 m / 0.350 s = 25.7 m/s
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A cylinder at rest is released from the top of a ramp, as shown above. The ramp is 1.0 m high, and the cylinder rolls down the ramp without slipping. At the bottom of the ramp, the cylinder makes a smooth transition to a small section of a horizontal table and then travels over the edge at a height of 1.0 m above the floor, eventually landing on the floor at a horizontal distance of 1.5 m from the table. 3. As the cylinder rolls down the ramp, how do the potential energy of the cylinder-Earth system and the kinetic energy of the cylinder change, if at all? Potential Energy of Kinetic Energy Cylinder-Earth System of Cylinder (A) Stays the same Increases (B) Stays the same Decreases (C) Decreases Increases (D) Decreases Decreases
Cylinder loses height as it moves down the ramp, causing a decrease in gravitational potential energy. Simultaneously, the cylinder gains speed, resulting in an increase in its kinetic energy. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Decreases Increases.
As the cylinder rolls down the ramp, the potential energy of the cylinder-Earth system decreases due to the cylinder's decreasing height. At the same time, the kinetic energy of the cylinder increases due to its increasing velocity as it gains speed while rolling down the ramp. Once the cylinder reaches the bottom of the ramp, its potential energy has been fully converted into kinetic energy. As the cylinder travels on the horizontal section of the table, it maintains its constant velocity, so its kinetic energy remains the same. When the cylinder rolls off the table and falls to the ground, its kinetic energy is converted into potential energy as it gains height, but then it is converted back into kinetic energy as it falls to the ground again. Overall, there is no change in the total energy of the system, which remains constant throughout the process.
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mingyu is driving past the scene of an automobile accident. she sees that there are a lot of other people around, so she doesn’t feel that she needs to stop. this is an example of the theory ____
Mingyu is driving past the scene of an automobile accident. She sees a lot of other people around, so she doesn’t feel that she needs to stop. this is an example of the theory of the bystander effect
The bystander effect is a phenomena whereby others nearby are less inclined to provide assistance while someone is in need. This might occur as a result of the responsibility being distributed among a large number of persons in the crowd. The sufferer frequently endures great suffering since no one nearby pays any attention to them or offers to assist them.
In the example provided, Mingyu is passing an accident site while driving. A social psychology phenomena known as the "bystander effect" states that when other people are around, bystanders are less inclined to assist a victim. This happens because they depend on someone else to step up and lend a hand, which diffuses responsibilities.
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An elevator has mass 700 kg, not including passengers. The elevator is designed to ascend, at constant speed, a vertical distance of 20.0 m (five floors) in 19.0 s and it is driven by a motor that can provide up to 35 ℎ to the elevator.What is the maximum number of passengers that can ride in the elevator? Assume that an average passenger has a mass of 67.0 kg
The maximum number of passengers that can ride in the elevator is approximately 40.
The maximum number of passengers that can ride in the elevator can be calculated using the equation: Total mass of elevator and passengers = maximum force / acceleration. First, we need to calculate the total mass of the elevator: Mass of elevator = 700 kg.
Next, we need to calculate the maximum force that the elevator motor can provide: Maximum force = power / velocity. Here, velocity is the constant speed at which the elevator ascends, which is given as 20.0 m / 19.0 s = 1.05 m/s. Power is given as 35 ℎ, which is equivalent to 35 × 10³ W.
Maximum force = 35 × 10³ W / 1.05 m/s = 33333.33 N Now we can calculate the maximum total mass that the elevator can carry:
Total mass = maximum force / acceleration
The acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s².
Total mass = 33333.33 N / 9.81 m/s² = 3393.12 kg
Subtracting the mass of the elevator itself, we get the maximum mass of passengers: Maximum passenger mass = 3393.12 kg - 700 kg = 2693.12 kg
Dividing by the average mass per passenger gives the maximum number of passengers: Maximum number of passengers = 2693.12 kg / 67.0 kg ≈ 40 passengers.
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an electron follows a circular path (radius = 15 cm) in a uniform magnetic field (magnitude = 3.0 g). what is the period of this motion?
The period of the circular motion of the electron is 0.0015 seconds.
The period of circular motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field can be calculated using the formula:
T = 2πm/(qB)
Where T is the period, m is the mass of the particle, q is the charge on the particle, and B is the magnitude of the magnetic field.
Here, the electron is the charged particle. The mass of an electron is 9.11 × 10^-31 kg, and the charge on an electron is -1.6 × 10^-19 C. The radius of the circular path is 15 cm, which is equivalent to 0.15 meters. The magnitude of the magnetic field is 3.0 gauss, which is equivalent to 3.0 × 10^-4 tesla.
Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
T = 2πm/(qB)
T = 2π(9.11 × 10^-31 kg)/(-1.6 × 10^-19 C)(3.0 × 10^-4 T)
T = 0.0015 seconds
The period of the circular motion of the electron is 0.0015 seconds.
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a 1900 kgkg car traveling at a speed of 17 m/sm/s skids to a halt on wet concrete where μkμkmu_k = 0.60.
The stopping distance of the car is 26.6 meters.
To solve this problem, we need to use the formula:
d = (v^2)/(2μk*g)
Where d is the stopping distance, v is the initial velocity, μk is the coefficient of kinetic friction, and g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s^2).
Plugging in the given values, we get:
d = (17^2)/(20.609.8) = 26.6 meters
Therefore, the stopping distance of the car is 26.6 meters. This means that the car will travel 26.6 meters before coming to a complete stop on the wet concrete. It is important to note that the stopping distance depends on the coefficient of kinetic friction, which is lower on wet concrete than on dry concrete. This means that it will take longer for a car to come to a stop on wet concrete than on dry concrete, even if the initial velocity and car weight are the same. It is important to drive cautiously and at reduced speeds in wet conditions to avoid accidents and ensure safety.
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light travels at 186,283 miles every second. how many feet per hour does light travel? round your answer to one decimal place, if necessary.
To find out how many feet per hour light travels, we need to convert miles per second to feet per hour. There are 5280 feet in a mile and 60 minutes in an hour, so we can use the following formula:
186,283 miles/second * 5280 feet/mile * 60 seconds/minute * 60 minutes/hour = 671,088,960,000 feet/hour
Therefore, light travels at approximately 671 billion feet per hour.
This is an incredibly fast speed, and it is important to note that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light. The speed of light has a profound impact on our understanding of the universe and has led to many scientific breakthroughs, including the theory of relativity. Understanding the properties of light and how it interacts with matter is crucial for fields such as optics, astronomy, and physics.
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A hydroelectric power facility converts the gravitational potential energy of water behind a dam to electric energy. (For each answer, enter a number.)
(a)
What is the gravitational potential energy (in J) relative to the generators of a lake of volume 62.0 km3 (mass = 6.20 ✕ 1013 kg), given that the lake has an average height of 46.0 m above the generators?
?????????????? J
(b)
Compare this with the energy stored in a 9-megaton fusion bomb.
Elake/Ebomb = ????????
The gravitational potential energy of the lake is 1.35 × 10¹⁹ J, calculated using the formula mgh.
How does the energy stored in the fusion bomb?The gravitational potential energy of Hydroelectric of the lake, 1.35 × 10¹⁹ J, is much greater than the energy stored in a 9-megaton fusion bomb, which is equivalent to 3.76 × 10¹⁶ J. This shows the vast amount of energy that can be harnessed from hydroelectric power facilities.
Hydroelectric power facilities are a clean and renewable energy source that has the potential to provide a significant portion of the world's electricity. The energy stored in a hydroelectric power facility is proportional to the volume of water stored and the height of the water above the generators. The gravitational potential energy is converted to electric energy using generators which are powered by the force of the falling water.
The amount of energy stored in a 9-megaton fusion bomb is equivalent to the energy released by the detonation of 9 million tons of TNT. The energy released in a nuclear explosion is a result of the conversion of mass into energy according to Einstein's famous equation E=mc². The energy released in a fusion reaction is several orders of magnitude greater than that released in a chemical reaction.
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Determine the discharge through the following sections for a normal depth of 5ft; n = 0.013, and S = .02%
The discharge through the channel for a normal depth of 5ft with n = 0.013 and S = 0.02% is approximately 39.13 cubic feet per second, with a width of 10ft and a depth of 5ft.
To determine the discharge through the following sections for a normal depth of 5ft with n = 0.013 and S = 0.02%, we need to use the Manning's equation. Manning's equation is used to calculate the flow rate of water in an open channel. It is given as Q = (1/n) * A * R^(2/3) * S^(1/2), where Q is the discharge, n is the Manning's roughness coefficient, A is the cross-sectional area of the channel, R is the hydraulic radius, and S is the slope of the channel.
Assuming the channel is rectangular, the cross-sectional area is given as A = b * d, where b is the width of the channel and d is the depth of the water. For a normal depth of 5ft, we can assume d = 5ft.
The hydraulic radius is given as R = A/P, where P is the wetted perimeter. For a rectangular channel, P = 2b + 2d. Therefore, P = 2b + 10ft.
The slope of the channel is given as S = 0.02% or 0.0002.
The Manning's roughness coefficient for the channel is given as n = 0.013.
Substituting these values into the Manning's equation, we get Q = (1/0.013) * b * 5ft * ((b + 10ft)/(2b + 10ft))^(2/3) * (0.0002)^(1/2).
To solve for the width of the channel, we can use trial and error or an iterative method. Assuming a width of 5ft, we get a discharge of 17.34 cubic feet per second. However, this is not equal to the discharge we want to achieve.
We can try again with a different width of 10ft, which gives a discharge of 39.13 cubic feet per second. This is closer to the desired discharge.
Therefore, the discharge through the channel for a normal depth of 5ft with n = 0.013 and S = 0.02% is approximately 39.13 cubic feet per second, with a width of 10ft and a depth of 5ft.
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Calculate the gauge pressure at a depth of 690 m in seawater
The gauge pressure at a depth of 690 m in seawater is approximately 68.01 MPa. At any depth in a fluid, the pressure exerted by the fluid is determined by the weight of the fluid column above that point.
In the case of seawater, the pressure increases with depth due to the increasing weight of the water above. To calculate the gauge pressure at a specific depth, we can use the formula:
[tex]\[ P = \rho \cdot g \cdot h \][/tex]
where P is the pressure, [tex]\( \rho \)[/tex] is the density of the fluid, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the depth.
For seawater, the average density is approximately 1025 kg/m³. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s². Plugging in these values and the depth of 690 m into the formula, we can calculate the gauge pressure:
[tex]P = 1025 Kg/m^3.9.8m/s^2.690m[/tex]
Calculating this expression gives us a gauge pressure of approximately 68.01 MPa.
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a wave whose wavelength is 0.3 m is traveling down a 300 m long wire whose total mass is 1.5 kg. if the wire is under a tension of 1000n, what are the velocity and frquency of the wave?
The velocity of the wave is 173.2 m/s and its frequency is 577.4 Hz. to calculate the velocity of the wave, we can use the equation v = sqrt(T/μ), where T is the tension in the wire and μ is the linear mass density (mass per unit length) of the wire.
In this case, μ = m/L, where m is the total mass of the wire and L is its length. Plugging in the given values, we get v = sqrt(1000 N / (1.5 kg / 300 m)) = 173.2 m/s.
To calculate the frequency of the wave, we can use the equation v = λf, where λ is the wavelength of the wave and f is its frequency. Solving for f, we get f = v/λ = 173.2 m/s / 0.3 m = 577.4 Hz.
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