Allowance method entries

The following transactions were completed by Wild Trout Gallery during the current fiscal year ended December 31:

Jan. 19. Reinstated the account of Arlene Gurley, which had been written off in the preceding year as uncollectible. Journalized the receipt of $2,660 cash in full payment of Arlene's account.

Apr. 3. Wrote off the $12,750 balance owed by Premier GS Co., which is bankrupt.

July 16. Received 25% of the $22,000 balance owed by Hayden Co., a bankrupt business, and wrote off the remainder as uncollectible.

Nov. 23. Reinstated the account of Harry Carr, which had been written off two years earlier as uncollectible. Recorded the receipt of $4,000 cash in full payment.

Dec. 31. Wrote off the following accounts as uncollectible (compound entry): Cavey Co., $3,300; Fogle Co., $8,100; Lake Furniture, $11,400; Melinda Shryer, $1,200.

Dec. 31. Based on an analysis of the $2,350,000 of accounts receivable, it was estimated that $60,000 will be uncollectible. Journalized the adjusting entry.

Required: 1. Record the January 1 credit balance of $50,000 in a T account presented below in requirement 2b for Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

a. Journalize the transactions. If an amount box does not require an entry, leave it blank. Note: For the December 31 adjusting entry, assume the $2,350,000 balance in accounts receivable reflects the adjustments made during the year. Post each entry that affects the following T accounts and determine the new balances:Allowance for Doubtful AccountsBad Debt Expense

3. Determine the expected net realizable value of the accounts receivable as of December 31.Assuming that instead of basing the provision for uncollectible accounts on an analysis of receivables, the adjusting entry on December 31 had been based on an estimated expense of ½ of 1% of the sales of $15,800,000 for the year, determine the following:a. Bad debt expense for the year.b. Balance in the allowance account after the adjustment of December 31.c. Expected net realizable value of the accounts receivable as of December 31.

Answers

Answer 1

The question involves recording allowance method entries for various transactions related to accounts receivable for Wild Trout Gallery. These transactions include reinstatements, write-offs, and an adjusting entry based on an analysis of accounts receivable. The goal is to journalize the transactions, post them to the relevant T-accounts, and determine the new balances.

To address the allowance method entries, each transaction needs to be recorded in the appropriate journal entries, considering whether it involves reinstatements, write-offs, or an adjusting entry. The amounts and nature of the transactions will determine the specific journal entries required. The entries should be posted to the T-accounts for Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and Bad Debt Expense, which will reflect the impact of each transaction on the respective accounts. By posting the entries and updating the balances, the new balances for the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and Bad Debt Expense can be determined.

Additionally, to calculate the expected net realizable value of accounts receivable as of December 31, an analysis needs to be performed based on the adjustments made throughout the year. This analysis will consider the total accounts receivable balance, any write-offs, and the estimated uncollectible amount determined through the adjusting entry. By subtracting the estimated uncollectible amount from the total accounts receivable balance, the expected net realizable value can be calculated.

If the adjusting entry on December 31 had been based on an estimated expense of ½ of 1% of the sales for the year, the bad debt expense for the year would be calculated by multiplying the sales figure ($15,800,000) by ½ of 1%. The balance in the allowance account after the adjustment would be determined by adding the calculated bad debt expense to the previous balance. Finally, the expected net realizable value of the accounts receivable as of December 31 would be derived by subtracting the estimated uncollectible amount from the total accounts receivable balance.

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Related Questions

ivan has inherited his grandmother's 1963 chevrolet corvette, which he values at $45,000. he decides that he might be willing to sell it so he posts it on craigslist for $55,000. samantha is interested and willing to pay up to $72,000. would ivan and samantha want to voluntarily engage in trade?

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Yes, Ivan and Samantha would likely want to voluntarily engage in trade based on the given information. Ivan values his grandmother's 1963 Chevrolet Corvette at $45,000, but he is willing to sell it for $55,000 on Craigslist.

Samantha, on the other hand, is interested in the car and is willing to pay up to $72,000 for it.In this scenario, both Ivan and Samantha have a willingness to engage in trade. Ivan wants to sell the car, and Samantha wants to purchase it. Ivan's asking price of $55,000 falls within Samantha's willingness to pay, as she is willing to pay up to $72,000. This suggests that there is potential for a mutually beneficial trade to take place.

If Samantha agrees to purchase the car from Ivan for the listed price of $55,000 or negotiates a price within her maximum willingness to pay, both parties can voluntarily engage in the trade. Ivan would be able to sell the car and receive a price higher than his own valuation, while Samantha would acquire the car she desires.Ultimately, the decision to engage in trade would depend on negotiations and whether both parties can agree on a price that satisfies their respective preferences and expectations.

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a pension fund manager is considering three mutual funds. the first is a stock fund, the second is a long-term government and corporate bond fund, and the third is a t-bill money market fund that yields a sure rate of 5.5%. the probability distributions of the risky funds are: expected return standard deviation stock fund (s) 17% 32% bond fund (b) 11% 23% the correlation between the fund returns is 0.30. rev: 11 15 2021 qc cs-285530

Answers

To determine the optimal portfolio, the pension fund manager needs additional information such as the risk tolerance and desired asset allocation.

The pension fund manager is considering three mutual funds: a stock fund, a long-term government and corporate bond fund, and a T-bill money market fund.

The stock fund has an expected return of 17% and a standard deviation of 32%.

The bond fund has an expected return of 11% and a standard deviation of 23%. The T-bill money market fund has a sure rate of 5.5%.
To analyze the risk and return of the portfolio, we need to consider the correlation between the fund returns.

In this case, the correlation is 0.30.
To calculate the expected return of the portfolio, we can use the weighted average of the expected returns of the individual funds.

Let's assume the weights for the stock fund, bond fund, and T-bill money market fund are w1, w2, and w3, respectively.
Expected return of the portfolio = w1 * expected return of stock fund + w2 * expected return of bond fund + w3 * sure rate of T-bill money market fund.
To calculate the standard deviation of the portfolio, we need to consider the weights and the correlation between the fund returns.

The formula for the standard deviation of a portfolio is:
Standard deviation of the portfolio = sqrt[(w1^2 * (standard deviation of stock fund)^2) + (w2^2 * (standard deviation of bond fund)^2) + (w3^2 * 0.055^2) + 2 * w1 * w2 * standard deviation of stock fund * standard deviation of bond fund * correlation].
By using these formulas and plugging in the given values, the pension fund manager can evaluate the risk and return of the portfolio and make an informed investment decision.

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Final answer:

When considering investments in different funds, the pension fund manager should analyze their respective expected return, standard deviation, and correlation. These components give insights into potential gains (expected return), associated risk (standard deviation), and the likelihood of the funds moving in the same direction (correlation). The manager should balance potential returns against these risks to make an informed decision.

Explanation:

A pension fund manager considering three mutual funds - a stock fund, a long-term government and corporate bond fund, and a T-bill money market fund should study their respective expected return, standard deviation, and correlation.

The expected rate of return reflects the gains or yields an investor can anticipate from a particular investment. For instance, the stock fund in question has a higher expected return of 17% compared to the bond fund's 11%, indicating potential for greater earnings but also potentially greater risk.

The standard deviation represents the volatility or risk associated with the funds. The higher the value, the greater the risk, therefore the stock fund is deemed riskier with a standard deviation of 32% against the bond fund's 23%.

Lastly, the correlation between the fund returns, pegged at 0.3 in this case, measures how these two risky funds might move in relation to each other. A positive correlation suggests that the funds are likely to move in the same direction.

In conclusion, the pension fund manager must weigh the potential returns against the associated risks and correlations to make an informed investment decision.

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To reduce the accidental spread of hazardous substances by workers from a contaminated area to a clean area, what should generally be established?

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By implementing these measures, the accidental spread of hazardous substances can be reduced, protecting workers and preventing contamination of clean areas. It is essential to remember that specific procedures and requirements may vary depending on the nature of the hazardous substances and the industry involved. Regular review and updates to safety protocols are necessary to address changing circumstances and ensure ongoing effectiveness.

To reduce the accidental spread of hazardous substances by workers from a contaminated area to a clean area, several measures should generally be established:
1. Clearly marked boundaries: Clearly define and mark the boundaries between the contaminated and clean areas. This can be done using signs, barriers, or colored lines on the floor. These visual cues help workers understand where they should not cross to prevent the spread of hazardous substances.

2. Personal protective equipment (PPE): Provide appropriate personal protective equipment to workers entering the contaminated area. This may include items such as gloves, goggles, masks, or coveralls, depending on the nature of the hazardous substances present. PPE acts as a physical barrier and helps prevent workers from carrying contaminants to clean areas.

3. Decontamination procedures: Establish and enforce proper decontamination procedures for workers leaving the contaminated area. This may involve designated decontamination zones where workers remove their PPE and undergo thorough cleansing before entering the clean area. Decontamination procedures can include showers, changing rooms, or specially designated areas for removing and disposing of contaminated clothing.

4. Training and awareness: Provide comprehensive training to workers on the risks associated with hazardous substances and the importance of preventing their spread. Workers should be educated on the proper use of PPE, decontamination procedures, and the significance of following established boundaries. Regular reminders and refreshers on safety protocols can help maintain awareness.

5. Monitoring and supervision: Implement monitoring and supervision systems to ensure compliance with established safety measures. Regular inspections, audits, and supervision can help identify any breaches in protocols and allow for corrective actions to be taken promptly.

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What are the tax and penalty effects of nonqualified distributions of roth iras?

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Nonqualified distributions from Roth IRAs can result in both taxes and penalties. The tax consequences depend on whether the distribution includes earnings or only consists of contributions. If the distribution includes earnings, those earnings are subject to income tax at your ordinary tax rate. However, if the distribution consists solely of contributions, there is no tax on the distribution since you have already paid taxes on the contributed amount.

In addition to taxes, nonqualified distributions from Roth IRAs may also incur a penalty. The penalty is generally 10% of the earnings portion of the distribution if you're under the age of 59½ and haven't met the qualified distribution requirements. Qualified distributions are tax-free and penalty-free.

A Roth IRA is a retirement account where contributions are made with after-tax money, meaning you've already paid taxes on the income used to fund the account. Because of this, qualified distributions from Roth IRAs are tax-free and penalty-free. However, nonqualified distributions may be subject to taxes and penalties.

When you take a nonqualified distribution, the IRS distinguishes between the contributions and the earnings portion of the distribution. Contributions refer to the amount of money you've directly put into the Roth IRA, whereas earnings represent the investment growth on those contributions.

If the distribution includes earnings, those earnings are subject to income tax at your ordinary tax rate. The tax is calculated based on your tax bracket and added to your overall tax liability for the year. It's important to note that you won't owe any additional tax on the portion of the distribution that represents your contributions since you've already paid taxes on that amount.

In addition to taxes, a 10% penalty may apply to the earnings portion of the distribution if you're under the age of 59½ and the distribution doesn't meet the qualified distribution requirements. Qualified distributions are those made after you've held the Roth IRA for at least five years and meet one of the following conditions: you're 59½ or older, you're disabled, you're a first-time homebuyer (up to $10,000), or you're taking a distribution due to your death or disability.

To summarize, nonqualified distributions from Roth IRAs can result in taxes on the earnings portion and potentially a 10% penalty if you're under 59½ and don't meet the qualified distribution criteria. It's essential to understand these implications and plan your withdrawals accordingly to optimize your retirement savings.

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Which of the following situations would involve the calculation of the future value of an ordinary annuity

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The future value of an ordinary annuity is calculated when a series of equal periodic payments are made at the end of each period.

Here are some situations that would involve the calculation of the future value of an ordinary annuity:
1. Retirement savings: Let's say you contribute a fixed amount of money into your retirement account each month. Over time, these monthly contributions accumulate and earn interest. To determine the future value of your retirement savings, you would need to calculate the future value of the annuity.
2. Loan repayment: When you borrow money, you often need to repay it in installments over a certain period of time. The total amount you repay, including interest, can be calculated by finding the future value of the annuity. This calculation helps determine the total cost of the loan.
3. Lease or rental payments: If you enter into a lease agreement or make rental payments for a specific period, the future value of an ordinary annuity can help you determine the total cost of your lease or rental payments.

To calculate the future value of an ordinary annuity, you would typically need to know the following information:
- The amount of each periodic payment
- The interest rate or rate of return
- The number of periods or the length of time

Using these details, you can use financial formulas or a calculator to determine the future value of the annuity.

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which product is a nontimber forest product? turpentine turpentine charcoal charcoal lumber lumber paper

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Turpentine and charcoal are examples of nontimber forest products. They are derived from trees but do not require the cutting down of the whole tree. Lumber and paper, in contrast, involve the use of timber resources.

A nontimber forest product is a product derived from forests that does not involve the cutting down of trees. Among the options provided, turpentine and charcoal are considered nontimber forest products.
Turpentine is obtained from the resin of certain tree species, such as pine trees. It is commonly used as a solvent and in the production of paints and varnishes. Turpentine is extracted by tapping the tree and collecting the resin.
Charcoal is another nontimber forest product that is made by burning wood in the absence of oxygen. It is commonly used as a fuel, for cooking, and in various industrial processes. Charcoal can be produced from different types of wood, including trees found in forests.
On the other hand, lumber and paper are not considered nontimber forest products. Lumber refers to wood that has been processed into beams or planks for construction purposes. Paper is a material made from wood pulp, which involves the conversion of trees into fibers and subsequent processing.
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If a monopolist discovers that it is operating at a level of output where price is less than average variable costs, it will continue to operate in the short run. true or false

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A monopolist will continue to operate in the short run if the price is below the average variable costs, but in the long run, the monopolist may consider shutting down if the price remains below the average total costs.

If a monopolist discovers that it is operating at a level of output where the price is less than average variable costs, it will continue to operate in the short run. This statement is true.
In the short run, a monopolist will continue to operate even if the price is below the average variable costs. This is because in the short run, the monopolist can still cover its variable costs and make a contribution towards its fixed costs. By continuing to operate, the monopolist can minimize its losses in the short run.

However, it is important to note that if the price continues to stay below the average variable costs in the long run, the monopolist may eventually shut down its operations. In the long run, a monopolist needs to cover both its variable and fixed costs to make a profit. If the price remains below the average total costs, the monopolist will not be able to cover all its costs and it may be more beneficial for them to cease operations.

In summary, a monopolist will continue to operate in the short run if the price is below the average variable costs, but in the long run, the monopolist may consider shutting down if the price remains below the average total costs.

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what is the difference between quality checkpoints to quality control points, and the difference between latent and manifest based on the types of consumers

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Quality checkpoints and quality control points are both tools used in quality management to ensure the delivery of a high-quality product or service. However, there are some differences between them.

Quality checkpoints are specific stages or milestones within a process where quality is assessed. They act as predefined areas where inspection or verification takes place. These checkpoints help in monitoring and measuring the quality of work at different stages, ensuring that it meets predetermined standards. They can be set up at different points in the production or service delivery process to identify and address any issues or deviations early on.

On the other hand, quality control points refer to the specific areas or activities within a process where quality control measures are implemented. These control points are designed to prevent, detect, and correct any quality issues that may arise. They involve actions such as inspections, testing, and audits to ensure that the desired quality standards are met.

Regarding the difference between latent and manifest based on the types of consumers, it seems like you may be referring to the concepts of latent demand and manifest demand.

Latent demand refers to the potential or underlying demand for a product or service that is not currently being met. It represents the needs and desires of consumers that are not being fulfilled in the market.

Manifest demand, on the other hand, is the actual demand that is expressed or visible in the market. It refers to the quantity of a product or service that consumers are actively seeking and purchasing.

In summary, quality checkpoints and quality control points are both important tools in quality management, but they have different purposes. Latent demand represents the unmet needs of consumers, while manifest demand refers to the actual demand expressed in the market.

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the market for loanable funds ii. an increase in government borrowing will shift the demand curve for loanable funds to the , causing the interest rate to .

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An increase in government borrowing will shift the demand curve for loanable funds to the right, causing the interest rate to increase.

In the market for loanable funds, the demand curve represents the quantity of loanable funds demanded at each interest rate. When the government increases its borrowing, it needs to borrow more funds from the market. This increases the demand for loanable funds because the government is competing with other borrowers for the available funds.

As a result, the demand curve for loanable funds shifts to the right. This means that at each interest rate, the quantity of loanable funds demanded is higher than before. The increase in government borrowing puts upward pressure on interest rates because lenders can charge higher interest rates when there is increased demand for loans.

The increase in interest rates serves as an incentive for lenders to supply more loanable funds to meet the increased demand. This is because higher interest rates make lending more profitable for lenders.

Therefore, as a result of the increased government borrowing, the demand curve for loanable funds shifts to the right, and the interest rate increases to achieve equilibrium between the quantity of loanable funds demanded and supplied in the market.

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Why was initial membership in the EU monetary union restricted to member states that had a national debt of less than 60 percent of GDP, among other requirements

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The initial membership in the EU monetary union was restricted to member states with a national debt of less than 60 percent of GDP due to several reasons:

1. Stability: The requirement was aimed at ensuring stability within the monetary union. Member states with high levels of national debt could pose a risk to the overall stability of the union. By limiting initial membership to countries with lower debt levels, the EU sought to mitigate potential economic risks.

2. Economic convergence: The restriction was also intended to promote economic convergence among member states. Countries with high levels of national debt often face challenges in managing their finances and implementing necessary economic reforms. By setting a debt threshold, the EU aimed to encourage fiscal discipline and ensure that member states had stable economies.

3. Confidence in the euro: The EU wanted to maintain confidence in the euro currency. Allowing countries with high debt levels to join the monetary union could have raised concerns about the long-term sustainability and credibility of the euro. By setting specific requirements, including the debt threshold, the EU aimed to ensure the stability and strength of the euro.

Overall, the restriction on initial membership in the EU monetary union based on the national debt to GDP ratio was aimed at maintaining stability, promoting economic convergence, and safeguarding confidence in the euro currency.

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Macroenvironmental factors include the company, competition, and corporate partners. True or false?.

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False. macroenvironmental factors typically refer to external forces that impact an organization's business environment, such as economic, social, technological, political, and environmental factors.

While the company, competition, and corporate partners are important considerations for a business, they are typically categorized as part of the microenvironment, whereas macroenvironmental factors encompass broader external influences.

macroenvironmental factors are broad, external influences that affect the business environment as a whole. they are beyond the control of any single organization and include economic conditions, social and cultural trends, technological advancements, political and legal factors, and environmental considerations. these factors shape the overall business landscape and impact multiple industries and companies. by analyzing macroenvironmental factors, organizations can understand the opportunities and threats presented by the external environment.

on the other hand, the microenvironment focuses on specific factors within the immediate industry and market context. it includes elements such as the organization itself, its competitors, suppliers, customers, and other relevant stakeholders. these factors have a more direct and immediate impact on the company's operations and competitiveness. understanding the microenvironment is crucial for strategic decision-making, market positioning, and building successful partnerships within the industry.

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for a monopoly, why is marginal revenue less than price? question 1 options: a) if a monopoly wishes to increase sales, it must raise the price to all customers. the impact of the price effect alone causes marginal revenue to be less than price. b) if a monopoly wishes to increase sales, it must lower the price to all customers. the impact of the quantity effect alone causes marginal revenue to be less than price. c) if a monopoly wishes to increase sales, it must lower the price to all customers. the marginal revenue will be less than the price because of the impact of the price effect working with the quantity effect. d) if a monopoly wishes to increase sales, it must raise the price to all customers. the impact of the price effect, working with the quantity effect, causes marginal revenue to be less than price. e) if a monopoly wishes to increase sales, it must lower the price to all customers. the impact of the price effect alone causes marginal revenue to be less than price.

Answers

In conclusion, a monopoly lowers the price to increase sales, and the impact of the price effect working with the quantity effect causes the marginal revenue to be less than the price.


The correct answer is option c) if a monopoly wishes to increase sales, it must lower the price to all customers. The marginal revenue will be less than the price because of the impact of the price effect working with the quantity effect.
In a monopoly, there is only one seller in the market, giving them the power to set the price for their product. However, to increase sales, a monopoly must lower the price to attract more customers.

When a monopoly lowers the price, it impacts both the price effect and the quantity effect. The price effect refers to the fact that each unit sold at a lower price generates less revenue than before. The quantity effect refers to the fact that lowering the price leads to an increase in the quantity sold.

As a result, the combination of the price effect and the quantity effect causes the marginal revenue (the additional revenue generated from selling one more unit) to be less than the price.

In conclusion, a monopoly lowers the price to increase sales, and the impact of the price effect working with the quantity effect causes the marginal revenue to be less than the price.

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Communicating and establishing relationships with people from different cultures can lead to a number of benefits, including healthier communities, increased commerce, reduced conflict, and _______.


A) personal growth through tolerance

B) reduced illegal immigration

C) increased illegal immigration

D) increased agenda setting opportunities

Answers

Communicating and establishing relationships with people from different cultures can lead to a number of benefits, including healthier communities, increased commerce, reduced conflict, and personal growth through tolerance. Personal growth through tolerance is an important benefit of interacting with people from different cultures.

By engaging in cross-cultural communication, individuals gain a deeper understanding and appreciation for diverse perspectives, beliefs, and practices. This helps to foster empathy, open-mindedness, and respect for others. Additionally, it promotes the development of intercultural skills, such as effective communication, adaptability, and conflict resolution, which are essential in today's globalized world. These skills can enhance personal growth, enabling individuals to navigate cultural differences and build meaningful connections with people from diverse backgrounds. In conclusion, communicating and establishing relationships with people from different cultures not only benefit individuals personally but also contribute to the overall well-being of communities.

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A thief takes your credit card and you report it within 5 days. According to the ________ you can be liable for up to______

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According to the terms and conditions of your credit card, if a thief takes your credit card and you report it within 5 days, you can be liable for up to a certain amount. The specific amount may vary depending on the policies of your credit card issuer. It is important to contact your credit card company as soon as possible to report the theft and to understand your liability in such a situation.

According to the Fair Credit Billing Act (FCBA) in the United States, if you report unauthorized charges on your credit card within 60 days of receiving the statement that includes those charges, your liability for fraudulent transactions is limited to a maximum of $50.

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in each of the following scenarios, the supply curve shifts. identify along which portion of the demand curve (that is, the elastic or the inelastic portion) the supply curve must have shifted in order to generate the event described. in each case, describe the relationship between the quantity effect and the price effect. a. recent attempts by the colombian army to stop the flow of illegal drugs into the united states have actually benefited drug dealers.

Answers

By targeting the supply of illegal drugs, the Colombian army has inadvertently shifted the supply curve in the inelastic portion of the demand curve. This has led to an increase in drug prices, benefiting drug dealers as the price effect outweighs the quantity effect.

In the scenario described, recent attempts by the Colombian army to stop the flow of illegal drugs into the United States have actually benefited drug dealers. To analyze the impact on the supply curve, we need to determine whether the demand curve is elastic or inelastic in the affected portion.

Given that the Colombian army's actions have led to an increase in drug prices, it suggests that the supply curve has shifted in the inelastic portion of the demand curve. Inelastic demand means that changes in price have a relatively small effect on the quantity demanded.

The quantity effect in this case would be a decrease in the quantity supplied by drug dealers due to the efforts of the Colombian army. However, the price effect would counterbalance this decrease. Since demand is inelastic, the increase in price caused by the reduced supply would generate a larger increase in revenue for drug dealers than the decrease in quantity supplied.

In conclusion, by targeting the supply of illegal drugs, the Colombian army has inadvertently shifted the supply curve in the inelastic portion of the demand curve. This has led to an increase in drug prices, benefiting drug dealers as the price effect outweighs the quantity effect.

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on january 2, 2021, snow company began using straight-line depreciation for a certain class of assets. in the past, the company had used double-declining-balance depreciation for these assets. as of january 2, 2021, the amount of the change in accumulated depreciation is $120,000. the appropriate tax rate is 25%. the separately reported change in 2021 earnings is:

Answers

On January 2, 2021, Snow Company changed its depreciation method from double-declining-balance to straight-line for a certain class of assets. The change resulted in an increase in accumulated depreciation of $120,000 as of that date.

This change in accumulated depreciation represents the adjustment needed to align the company's depreciation expense with the straight-line method.To calculate the separately reported change in 2021 earnings, we need to consider the tax effects of this change. The appropriate tax rate is given as 25%. Since the change in accumulated depreciation is an increase.

It means that Snow Company has taken more depreciation expense under the straight-line method compared to the double-declining-balance method. As a result, the company's taxable income will decrease, leading to a reduction in tax liability and an increase in net income.To determine the tax effect, we need to multiply the change in accumulated depreciation by the tax rate:
$120,000 x 0.25 = $30,000

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immediately at the beginning of year 1/1/2017, zyer robotics sells an asset for $300 million in cash, with a book value $100 million and useful life

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Zyer Robotics sold an asset for $300 million in cash, with a book value of $100 million. The profit from the sale is $200 million. However, without information about the useful life of the asset, we cannot determine the full accounting implications of the sale.

At the beginning of year 1/1/2017, Zyer Robotics sold an asset for $300 million in cash. The book value of the asset was $100 million. It is important to note that the useful life of the asset is not mentioned in the given information.

Based on the provided information, we can conclude that Zyer Robotics made a profit of $200 million from the sale of the asset. This is because the cash received from the sale ($300 million) exceeded the book value of the asset ($100 million).

It is important to consider the useful life of the asset because it can impact the accounting treatment of the sale.

For example, if the asset had not reached the end of its useful life, Zyer Robotics might have had to recognize a gain or loss on the sale in their financial statements.

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when bilingual employees are called upon to assist monolingual employees with their work tasks, this may reduce bilingual employees’ work effectiveness.

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When bilingual employees are asked to help monolingual employees with their work tasks, it may have an impact on the bilingual employees' work effectiveness.

This is because the bilingual employees are now dividing their time and attention between their own work responsibilities and assisting their monolingual colleagues.

As a result, they may have less time and energy to focus on their own tasks, leading to a potential decrease in their productivity and efficiency.
Additionally, bilingual employees may face challenges in effectively communicating complex ideas and concepts to their monolingual colleagues. They might need to spend extra time and effort simplifying information or finding alternative ways to convey their messages. This can further contribute to a decrease in their work effectiveness.
To mitigate these potential issues, it is important for organizations to consider the workload and responsibilities of bilingual employees when assigning them additional tasks. Providing sufficient support, resources, and training to both bilingual and monolingual employees can also help improve communication and collaboration within the workplace.

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From the 1950s until today, which management perspective has remained the most prevalent?

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From the 1950s until today, the most prevalent management perspective that has remained influential is the contingency perspective.

The contingency perspective in management acknowledges that there is no one-size-fits-all approach to managing organizations. It recognizes that different situations require different management styles and techniques. This perspective emphasizes that the most effective management approach is contingent upon the specific circumstances, such as the organization's goals, external environment, workforce composition, and technology.

The contingency perspective gained prominence in the 1950s as a response to the limitations of earlier management theories, such as scientific management and human relations. It recognizes that managers need to adapt their practices to fit the unique needs and challenges of their organizations. Rather than relying on a single prescribed management approach, the contingency perspective emphasizes flexibility and adaptability.

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Brokers Dealer A and Broker Dealer B are co-bookrunners on a debt offering for XYZ Co, Inc. BD A has a 30% allocation, BD B has a 20% allocation, and other underwriters share the remainder. During price talk between the co-bookrunners and XYZ, the deal is expected to raise between $400 million and $900 million of debt at a rate of UST 80. The deal ends up being priced at $700 million. XYZ is disappointed that the final pricing was below the top end of the range. Who is responsible for the $200 million in debt that is unsold?

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The $200 million in debt that is unsold is not the responsibility of any specific party. In a debt offering, the underwriters, including the co-bookrunners (Broker Dealer A and Broker Dealer B in this case), commit to purchasing a certain amount of the debt from the issuer (XYZ Co, Inc.). The underwriters then resell the debt to investors.

In this scenario, BD A has a 30% allocation and BD B has a 20% allocation, which means they have agreed to purchase and resell a portion of the debt. The remaining allocation is shared by other underwriters.

When the debt offering is priced at $700 million, it means that the underwriters were able to sell $700 million worth of debt to investors. The unsold $200 million is not allocated to any specific underwriter because it was not purchased by investors.

It's important to note that it is not uncommon for a debt offering to be priced within the expected range or even below the top end of the range. The final pricing is influenced by various factors, including market conditions and investor demand. In this case, XYZ Co, Inc. may be disappointed with the final pricing, but the responsibility for the unsold portion of the debt lies with the market and investor demand, rather than any specific underwriter.

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Suppose that there are three beachfront parcels of land available for sale in Huntington and six people who would each like to purchase one parcel. Assume that the parcels are essentially identical and that the minimum selling price of each is $570,000. The following table states each person's willingness and ability to purchase a parcel quizlet

Answers

The individuals who have a willingness to pay equal to or greater than $570,000 can afford to purchase a beachfront parcel in Huntington.

In this scenario, there are three beachfront parcels of land available for sale in Huntington and six people who want to purchase one parcel each. The minimum selling price for each parcel is $570,000. The table provided states each person's willingness and ability to purchase a parcel.
To determine who will be able to purchase a parcel, we can compare each person's maximum willingness to pay (WTP) with the selling price. If their WTP is equal to or greater than the selling price, they can afford to purchase a parcel.
Let's consider an example. Person A has a WTP of $600,000. Since this amount is higher than the selling price of $570,000, Person A can afford to purchase a parcel.
We can apply the same logic to all six people and determine who can afford to purchase a parcel based on their WTP.
In conclusion, the individuals who have a willingness to pay equal to or greater than $570,000 can afford to purchase a beachfront parcel in Huntington.

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The lining of the small intestine is composed of millions of finger-like projections called ______, which are lined with epithelial cells that have extensions of the cell membrane called ______.

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The lining of the small intestine is composed of millions of finger-like projections called villi, which are lined with epithelial cells that have extensions of the cell membrane called microvilli.

Here is a step-by-step explanation:

1. The small intestine is a vital organ responsible for absorbing nutrients from the food we eat.
2. To maximize the absorption surface area, the lining of the small intestine is made up of millions of finger-like projections called villi.
3. Each villus is covered with a layer of epithelial cells.
4. These epithelial cells have further extensions of their cell membrane called microvilli.


To summarize, the lining of the small intestine consists of villi, which are covered with epithelial cells that have microvilli. This intricate structure greatly increases the surface area of the small intestine, facilitating efficient absorption of nutrients.

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turnbull corp. is in the process of constructing a new plant at a cost of $30 million. it expects the project to generate cash flows of $13,000,000, $23,000,000, and 29,000,000 over the next three years. the cost of capital is 20 percent. what is the mirr on this project? (do not round intermediate computations. round final answer to the nearest percent.)

Answers

The MIRR on this project is approximately 14.31%, indicating a positive rate of return and suggesting it may be a worthwhile investment.

The modified internal rate of return (MIRR) for this project is the rate of return that makes the present value of the project's costs equal to the present value of its future cash flows.  

To calculate the MIRR, we need to find the present value of the costs and the present value of the cash flows.  

First, let's calculate the present value of the costs. The initial cost of the project is $30 million, and the cost of capital is 20 percent. We can use the formula for present value of a single cash flow:

PV(costs) = Cost / (1 + r)^n

where r is the discount rate (20 percent) and n is the number of years (0 since it's the initial cost).  

PV(costs) = 30,000,000 / (1 + 0.20)^0 = 30,000,000

Next, let's calculate the present value of the cash flows. We can use the same formula for each cash flow:

PV(cash flows) = Cash Flow / (1 + r)^n

where r is the discount rate (20 percent) and n is the number of years.  

PV(cash flows) = 13,000,000 / (1 + 0.20)^1 + 23,000,000 / (1 + 0.20)^2 + 29,000,000 / (1 + 0.20)^3

PV(cash flows) ≈ 10,833,333 + 16,388,889 + 17,351,852

≈ 44,574,074

Now, we can calculate the MIRR by finding the rate of return that equates the present value of costs to the present value of cash flows. We can use trial and error or a financial calculator to find the MIRR.

MIRR = ((PV(cash flows) / PV(costs))^(1/n) - 1) * 100

MIRR = ((44,574,074 / 30,000,000)^(1/3) - 1) * 100

MIRR ≈ 14.31%

So, the MIRR on this project is approximately 14.31%.  

The MIRR on this project is approximately 14.31%, indicating a positive rate of return and suggesting it may be a worthwhile investment.

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At the end of 6 months, the bank will pay $13,000 to the certificate A owner. Compute the nominal annual interest rate and the effective annual interest rate.At the end of 6 months, the bank will pay $13,000 to the certificate A owner.


Required:

Compute the nominal annual interest rate and the effective annual interest rate.

Answers

The nominal annual interest rate is 52% and the effective annual interest rate is 55.26%.

The nominal annual interest rate and the effective annual interest rate will be computed using the given information. At the end of 6 months, the bank will pay $13,000 to the certificate A owner. Compute the nominal annual interest rate and the effective annual interest rate.

Nominal annual interest rate is the annual interest rate that doesn’t consider the effect of compounding. Whereas, the effective annual interest rate is the annual interest rate that takes into account the effect of compounding.Both are computed using the following formulae:

N = number of compounding periods per year

r = nominal annual interest rate

i = effective annual interest rate

Nominal annual interest rate:

r = 2 × Interest Paid / Principal × Time (In Years)2 × $13,000 / $100,000 × 0.5

r = $26,000 / $50,000

r = 0.52 or 52%

Effective annual interest rate:

i = (1 + r / N)N - 1

i = (1 + 0.52 / 2)2 - 1

i = (1.26)2 - 1

i = 0.5526 or 55.26%

Therefore, the nominal annual interest rate is 52% and the effective annual interest rate is 55.26%.

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accrual accounting attempts to measure revenues and expenses that occurred during accounting periods so they equal net operating cash flow. group startstrue or false

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False. Accrual accounting aims to record revenues and expenses when they are earned or incurred, irrespective of net operating cash flow.

Accrual accounting is a method of recording financial transactions that focuses on recognizing revenues and expenses in the period in which they are earned or incurred, regardless of the timing of cash inflows or outflows. The goal of accrual accounting is to provide a more accurate representation of a company's financial performance and financial position by matching revenues with the expenses associated with generating those revenues.

Unlike cash accounting, which only records transactions when cash is received or paid, accrual accounting recognizes revenues when they are earned, even if payment is yet to be received, and records expenses when they are incurred, even if payment has not been made. This approach allows for a more comprehensive and accurate depiction of a company's financial activities.

While net operating cash flow measures the cash generated or used by a company's core operations, it is not the primary objective of accrual accounting. Accrual accounting focuses on providing a complete picture of a company's financial performance by incorporating non-cash transactions and aligning revenues and expenses with the accounting periods in which they are earned or incurred. This enables stakeholders to assess a company's profitability, financial health, and operational efficiency based on a more comprehensive set of financial information.

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modelling and analysis of intermodal food grain transportation under hub disruption towards sustainability

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The modeling and analysis of intermodal food grain transportation under hub disruption towards sustainability involves developing mathematical models and conducting analytical studies to evaluate the efficiency, resilience, and sustainability of food grain transportation systems in the event of hub disruptions.

This approach aims to optimize the intermodal transportation of food grains while considering factors such as cost, time, environmental impact, and overall system performance.

To achieve sustainable food grain transportation, the modeling and analysis process typically includes:

Development of mathematical models: This involves formulating mathematical equations and algorithms that represent the intermodal transportation network, including hubs, routes, transportation modes, and relevant variables such as capacity, demand, and costs.

Simulation and scenario analysis: The models are used to simulate different scenarios, including hub disruptions such as closures or capacity limitations. By analyzing these scenarios, the impact on the transportation system's efficiency, cost, and environmental sustainability can be assessed.

Optimization and decision-making: Based on the simulation results, optimization techniques can be employed to identify the most efficient and sustainable strategies for food grain transportation under hub disruption. These strategies may involve route diversification, alternative transportation modes, capacity planning, and contingency plans to mitigate disruptions.

The modeling and analysis of intermodal food grain transportation under hub disruption towards sustainability provides valuable insights into designing efficient and resilient transportation systems. By utilizing mathematical models and analytical tools, stakeholders can make informed decisions to enhance the sustainability of food grain transportation, minimize disruptions, reduce costs, and mitigate environmental impact. This approach contributes to ensuring a reliable and sustainable supply chain for food grains, which is crucial for food security and overall sustainability in the agriculture and transportation sectors.

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emerging market portfolio flows: the role of benchmark-driven investors by mr.serkan arslanalp, mr.takahiro tsuda

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In conclusion, the research paper highlights the importance of understanding the role of benchmark-driven investors in emerging market portfolio flows. By studying their behavior and the impact of their actions, policymakers and investors can make more informed decisions. The findings of this paper contribute to our understanding of the dynamics of emerging markets and provide valuable insights for managing investments in these markets.

"Emerging market portfolio flows: the role of benchmark-driven investors" by Mr. Serkan Arslanalp and Mr. Takahiro Tsuda is a research paper that explores the impact of benchmark-driven investors on emerging market portfolio flows. In simple terms, benchmark-driven investors are investors who aim to replicate the performance of a specific benchmark index, such as the MSCI Emerging Markets Index.
The paper examines how these investors' actions can affect capital flows in emerging markets. It discusses that when a benchmark index is updated, benchmark-driven investors may need to adjust their portfolios to align with the new index composition. This adjustment can result in significant capital flows into or out of emerging markets, influencing asset prices and overall market stability.
The authors provide an explanation of how benchmark-driven investors' actions can create opportunities and challenges for emerging market economies. For example, when benchmark-driven investors increase their allocations to an emerging market, it can attract additional capital, stimulate economic growth, and improve market liquidity. On the other hand, sudden outflows can lead to market volatility and potential financial instability.
In conclusion, the research paper highlights the importance of understanding the role of benchmark-driven investors in emerging market portfolio flows. By studying their behavior and the impact of their actions, policymakers and investors can make more informed decisions. The findings of this paper contribute to our understanding of the dynamics of emerging markets and provide valuable insights for managing investments in these markets.

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Some countries require all businesses to be over 50 percent owned by its citizens. If mcdonald’s wants to expand into a country with this regulation, which of the global entry strategies would not be an appropriate choice?.

Answers

If McDonald's wants to expand into a country that requires all businesses to be over 50 percent owned by its citizens, a global entry strategy that would not be appropriate is the wholly-owned subsidiary strategy.

A wholly-owned subsidiary strategy involves establishing a new, independent entity in the target country, fully owned and controlled by McDonald's. This would contradict the regulation, as it requires businesses to have majority ownership by local citizens. In a wholly-owned subsidiary strategy, McDonald's would have complete control over operations, branding, and decision-making, which may not be allowed under the regulation.

However, other global entry strategies could be considered. One option is a joint venture, where McDonald's could partner with a local business or individual to meet the ownership requirements. This would involve sharing ownership, control, and profits with the local partner, ensuring compliance with the regulation. Another option is a licensing strategy, where McDonald's could grant a license to a local entity to operate its restaurants in the country. This would allow for local ownership while still maintaining some level of control over operations and branding.

In summary, if McDonald's wants to expand into a country with regulations requiring majority ownership by local citizens, a wholly-owned subsidiary strategy would not be an appropriate choice. Instead, options such as joint ventures or licensing strategies would be more suitable.

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An unstructured but in-depth interview of a small group of individuals by a moderator to learn the group's attitude about a company or its products is called a ________.

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An unstructured but in-depth interview of a small group of individuals by a moderator to learn the group's attitude about a company or its products is called a focus group.

A focus group is a suitable term for an unstructured but in-depth interview of a small group of individuals by a moderator to learn their attitudes about a company or its products. Here's why:

Group dynamics: Focus groups involve bringing together a small group of individuals (usually 6-10 participants) who share certain characteristics or experiences relevant to the research topic. The group setting allows for interactive discussions and the exploration of different perspectives, creating a dynamic environment where participants can bounce ideas off each other and influence each other's opinions.

Qualitative insights: The purpose of a focus group is to gather qualitative data and gain a deeper understanding of participants' attitudes, perceptions, and experiences. The unstructured nature of the interview allows the moderator to ask open-ended questions and probe further into participants' responses, encouraging them to share rich and detailed insights.

Moderator guidance: The moderator plays a crucial role in facilitating the discussion and guiding the group towards specific areas of interest. While the interview may be unstructured, the moderator ensures that relevant topics are explored, specific questions are asked, and the conversation remains focused on the research objectives.

Attitude exploration: Focus groups are particularly useful for exploring attitudes, opinions, and emotions related to a specific company or its products. Participants can provide nuanced feedback, share their perceptions, voice concerns, and express preferences or satisfaction with the company or its offerings. The interactive nature of the focus group setting often leads to deeper insights than individual interviews.

Overall, a focus group allows for an in-depth exploration of a small group's attitudes towards a company or its products, providing qualitative insights that can be valuable for market research, product development, and brand strategy.

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A mall has a theater that seats 562 people and charges between $5 and $11 per ticket. When tickets to a movie cost $11, the average attendance was 248 people. When ticket prices were lowered to $5, the average attendance was 474 people. Assuming the demand function is linear, how much should a ticket cost in order to maximize revenue

Answers

The demand function is: Q = -166.37 - 37.67P.

To determine the ticket price that would maximize revenue, we can use the concept of elasticity of demand. Elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in price.

First, let's find the slope of the demand function. The slope represents how much the quantity demanded changes for a given change in price. We can use the average attendance values and ticket prices to calculate the slope.

When tickets cost $11, the average attendance was 248 people. When ticket prices were lowered to $5, the average attendance was 474 people.

Using the slope formula:

slope = (change in average attendance) / (change in ticket price)

slope = (474 - 248) / ($5 - $11)

slope = 226 / (-$6)

slope = -37.67

Now, we can use the slope to find the equation of the demand function. Let's assume the demand function is of the form Q = a - bP, where Q is the quantity demanded and P is the ticket price.

We know that at $11, the average attendance was 248, so we can substitute these values into the demand function:

248 = a - (-37.67) * 11

248 = a + 414.37

a = 248 - 414.37

a = -166.37

Therefore, the demand function is: Q = -166.37 - 37.67P.

To find the ticket price that maximizes revenue, we need to find the price that corresponds to the maximum point on the revenue function. The revenue function is given by:

R = P * Q

Substituting the demand function into the revenue function, we get:

R = P * (-166.37 - 37.67P)

Simplifying, we have:

R = -166.37P - 37.67P^2

To find the ticket price that maximizes revenue, we can take the derivative of the revenue function with respect to P, set it equal to zero, and solve for P.

dR/dP = -166.37 - 2 * 37.67P

Setting dR/dP = 0:

-166.37 - 2 * 37.67P = 0

-166.37 = 2 * 37.67P

P = -166.37 / (2 * 37.67)

P ≈ $2.20

Therefore, the ticket price that would maximize revenue is approximately $2.20.

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