If dorsal-radial pain with an inability to bear weight through an extended wrist (such as during a push-up) is present, the scapholunate ligament may be affected.
How long does a sprained wrist take to heal?Your wrist hurts because the ligaments connecting the bones there have been torn or stretched. While some wrist sprains require more time to recover, most do so in 2 to 10 weeks. If you're in more pain, your wrist sprain is probably more serious and will take longer to heal.
Can you move your wrist even when it is sprained?A wrist sprain might not completely prevent you from moving your wrist. Even though it can hurt, you can still accomplish it. That often means you have a sprain as opposed to a fractured bone. Additional signs of a wrist sprain include swelling and redness around the injured area of the wrist.
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cyclophosphamide is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of breast cancer. the nurse has reinforced instructions to the client regarding the medication to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic regimen?
The metabolism of cyclophosphamide results in a number of metabolites having alkylating action. Phosphoramide mustard and acrolein were the main metabolites found. Dephosphoramidation of phosphoramidated mustard can produce nornitrogen mustard, which also possesses alkylating properties.
What safety precautions should be considered when working with chemotherapy medications?Personnel should be protected from exposure when handling HDs by using personal protective equipment (PPE). PPE consists of respiratory barrier protection, gloves, gowns, goggles for eye protection, and a complete face shield for head protection.
Frequently, cyclophosphamide produces nausea, vomiting, and appetite loss. Even if you start to feel sick, it's crucial that you keep taking the medication. Without first consulting your doctor, do not discontinue using this medication. For advice on how to decrease these symptoms, ask your doctor.
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an asian-american patient diagnosed with depression explains to the nurse that eating two specific foods will restore the balance of hot and cold and she will be cured. the nurse should
Arrange for the patient to talk with the dietitian is what the nurse should do.
Is there a cause for depression?
Depression can have many different causes. It has numerous triggers and a wide range of potential causes. A traumatic or stressful life event, such as a death in the family, a divorce, a sickness, a layoff, or concerns about one's career or finances, maybe the culprit for some people. Depression frequently results from a combination of many reasons.
Hence, the answer is to arrange for the patient to talk with the dietitian is what the nurse should do.
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a nurse caring for clients of different cultures in a hospital setting attempts to make eye contact with clients when performing the initial assessment. what assumption might the nurse make based on common cultural practices?
The correct option (c) A Muslim-Arab woman refuses to make eye contact with her male nurse. Assumption: She is being modest.
Cultural competence in nursing refers to health care workers' ability to provide the best medical care to patients while also demonstrating cultural awareness of their beliefs, race, and values. It entails being aware of patients' cultural diversity and treating them accordingly.
What are examples of cultural considerations?
Cultural Considerations for Health Professionals
Language barriers.Unfamiliarity with the concept of palliative care/hospice settings.Distrust of health care services/clinicians.Personal experiences/past trauma.Religious differences.Belief in alternative medicines.Fear of the unknownLearn more about common cultural practices to visit this link
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Full Question: A nurse caring for clients of different cultures in a hospital setting attempts to make eye contact with clients when performing the initial assessment. What assumption might the nurse make based on common cultural practices?
a. A Black man rolls his eyes when asked how he copes with stress in the workplace. Assumption: He may feel he has already answered this question and has become impatient.
b. A Native American/First Nations man stares at the floor while talking with the nurse. Assumption: The client is embarrassed by the conversation.
c. A Muslim-Arab woman refuses to make eye contact with her male nurse. Assumption: She is being modest.
d. A Hasidic Jewish man listens intently to a male physician, making direct eye contact with him, but refuses to make eye contact with a female nursing student. Assumption: Jewish men consider women inferior to men.
the nurse is teaching a client how to manage postoperative pain through a patient controlled analgesia (pca) pump. the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the client make which statement?
When the client says, "I should only use medication if my pain is extreme," the nurse decides that more education is required.
What drugs are used for analgesia?They consist of many medicine categories acetaminophen, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antidepressants, antiepileptics, local anesthetics, and opioids.
What is the difference between analgesia and anesthesia?Analgesia is the use of analgesics to treat pain without causing loss of consciousness or feeling (e.g., Aspirin, Carprofen, etc.). Anesthesia is the use of anesthetics to cause a loss of bodily sensation with or without awareness (e.g., Ketamine, Propofol, Isoflurane, etc.). The most popular analgesic is ibuprofen, and women use it and paracetamol more frequently than men do.
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a client with pericardial effusion has phrenic nerve compression resulting in recurrent hiccups. the healthcare provider prescribes metoclopramide (reglan) liquid 10 mg po q 6 hours. reglan is available as 5 mg/5 ml. a measuring device marked in teaspoons is being used. how many teaspoons should the nurse administer?
The nurse should use 2 teaspoons for a client with pericardial effusion has phrenic nerve compression resulting in recurrent hiccups.
The phrenic nerve serves as the principal motor supply for the diaphragm, the main breathing muscle. The phrenic nerve may be injured during cardiothoracic surgery, which may lead to diaphragmatic paralysis or dysfunction. Phrenic nerve damage manifests vaguely, making a diagnosis simple to overlook.
Diaphragm paralysis or weakness can result from phrenic nerve damage. A paralyzed diaphragm affects your capacity to breathe air into your lungs. Depending on where the phrenic nerve injury is, you may experience bilateral (paralysis on both sides of your diaphragm) paralysis (bilateral). Metoclopramide (Reglan) liquid 10 mg is prescribed by the doctor every six hours. For reglan, the recommended dosage is 5 mg/5 ml. The measurement device is marked with a teaspoons symbol. So 2 tea spoons must be used.
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a client with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency department vomiting large amounts of bright red blood that the health care provider suspects is due to esophageal varices. which drug that reduces splanchnic and hepatic blood flow should the nurse anticipate being prescribed?
Octreotide is a long-acting synthetic analog of somatostatin.
What is somatostatin?
Somatostatin mostly has neuroendocrine inhibitory effects on a variety of systems. It is known to alter neurotransmission and memory formation in the CNS, as well as to inhibit GI, endocrine, exocrine, pancreatic, and pituitary secretions. Somatostatin is also known by the acronyms SS, SST, or SOM. the hormone that inhibits growth hormone (GHIH). the factor that prevents the release of somatotropin (SRIF). somatotropin-releasing hormone inhibitor (SRIH). The pancreas also secretes somatostatin in response to various dietary-related conditions, including elevated blood levels of amino acids and glucose—the powerful inhibition of insulin and glucagon release from pancreatic islets by somatostatin (SST). There are five different SST membrane receptors (SSTR1–5), and at least two of them have been suggested to control pancreatic endocrine function.
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a child weighing 14.5 kg has von willebrand disease and has been prescribed desmopressin 0.3 mcg/kg iv. how much desmopressin should the nurse administer?
The nurse should administer 4.4 mcg of desmopressin.
What happens during overdosage of desmopressin ?Headache, fuzziness, tiredness, rapid weight gain, and urine issues are just a few examples of overdose symptoms. Diabetes insipidus of the central nervous system is managed with desmopressin. The body loses too much fluid as a result of this disorder, leading to dehydration. Additionally, nocturnal enuresis, frequent urination, and excessive thirst brought on by specific kinds of brain damage or brain surgery are all controlled with it.
Desmopressin acetate pills, or DDAVP, have no known particular antidote. The patient needs to be monitored and given the proper symptomatic therapy.
In the Postural Tachycardia Syndrome (POTS) - PMC, desmopressin significantly reduces tachycardia and ameliorates symptoms.
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Distinguish between borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder.
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible and often criminal behavior whereas borderline personality disorder is characterized by patterns of unstable relationships.
What are the differences between borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder?Those with borderline personality disorder are very sensitive and they also struggle with managing their emotions and someone with antisocial personality disorder will be manipulative, deceitful and reckless.
Antisocial personality disorder is a mental condition in which a person has a long-term pattern of manipulating and exploiting.
Borderline symptoms are: identity disturbance, disproportionate anger, and fear of abandonment whereas antisocial symptoms are: lack of empathy and remorse, irresponsibility, reckless disregard for the safety of self and others.
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was your actual number of people who were infected after two or four contacts different than what was expected? if yes, why do you think some people were not infected?
A core tenet of infectious disease is, in fact, the tracking of contacts of affected people for the purposes of monitoring, isolation, or testing.
Why can't everyone access Covid?One in all infected individuals may have a gene mutation that makes antibodies and T cells ready to combat COVID-19, which they acquired when they contracted other coronaviruses, such as the common cold.
Can you develop Covid immunity?The COVID-19 vaccination induces a consistent and potent immunological response, making it the safest method for boosting immunity. A high level of protection against COVID-19 is provided by the COVID-19 vaccination, and those who have already had COVID-19 may benefit from additional protection.
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all long-term-care nurse assistants must be competency evaluated and must complete a distinct educational course. these requirements are set by
CNAs may complete these programs to maintain their active status on... or a Nurse Aide Training and Competency Evaluation Program that has been approved).
If a nursing assistant thinks a resident is being abused, what should he do?Whether or not reporting is required by law, discuss any suspect of abuse with the patient in a respectful manner and point them toward the proper local resources. Report any suspected acts of abuse and violence in accordance with any applicable regulations.
What does a process objective look like in practice?Process goals are typically short-term by nature. A SMART process objective illustration: (X%) of the healthcare professionals who reported giving the wrong gonorrhea treatment in County Z will be contacted by (month/year) within a month.
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a parent calls the pediatric clinic to express concern over the child's eating habits. the parent says the child eats very little and consumes only a single type of food for weeks on end. the nurse knows that this behavior is characteristic of:
The nurse knows that this behavior is characteristic of normal toddler behavior as she eats only a single type of food for weeks on end.
Toddlers frequently engage in less than adorable actions such as biting, hitting, yelling, and hitting.
Toddlers frequently demonstrate their increasing independence by eating or not eating. It may be argued that as a result, almost all toddlers exhibit fussy eating tendencies. Children won't eat things they don't like, to put it simply.
Is all your little child will eat mac and cheese? A parent could feel under pressure to serve their child the same meal every day in an effort to get them to eat if their child becomes fixated on a certain food. However, that food might later make the child ill.
The food on your toddler's plate is up to you; macaroni and cheese is not a mandatory item. If you do, you will no longer be able to expand your child's diet by introducing new foods to them. The majority of children's "food jags" won't continue very long if parents resist caving in to them.
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immediately after birth a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. the infant has spontaneous respirations and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. what action should the nurse perform next?
Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
What is positive pressure ventilation?
To keep the child's airways open while breathing, positive-pressure ventilation, often known as CPAP, is a safe and effective breathing treatment. It is given by a machine that blows air or oxygen into the air passages (nose, throat) at a controlled pressure through a mask or artificial airway.
The infant's vital signs are not within the usual range, and oxygen deprivation causes cardiac depression in babies. The nurse should start positive pressure ventilation very away. Normal neonatal respirations and pulse rates are 40 to 60 breaths per minute and 100 to 160 beats per minute, respectively. Waiting to act until the baby is one minute old could make the baby's condition worse. CPR shouldn't start until the heart rate is 60 or lower, or between 60 and 80, and not rising after 20 to 30 seconds of PPV, according to neonatal resuscitation guidelines. After addressing the infant's breathing rate, the blood sugar level can be assessed.
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carla is taking a home pregnancy test to find out if she is pregnant. if this test comes back positive, which hormone has it detected in carla's urine?
The human chorionic gonadotropin hormone was found in Laura's urine (HGC).
How soon will a pregnancy test read positive?In many cases, the home test can provide a positive result as early as 10 days after fertilization. To obtain a more accurate result, postpone taking the test until after you've missed your period. Keep in mind that what a testing you took too soon can come up negative even if you really are pregnant.
Which area of your tummy pains during the first pregnancy?Typically, abdomen or stomach pain occurs when a woman is pregnant. During the first trimester, minor stomach problems are rather normal. These are triggered by uterine expansion and hormonal changes.
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a client with diabetes punctured the foot with a sharp object. within a week, the client developed osteomyelitis of the foot. the client was admitted for iv antibiotic therapy. how long does the nurse anticipate the client will receive iv antibiotics?
The duration of IV antibiotics for osteomyelitis of the foot would depend on the severity of the infection and the type of bacteria causing the infection.
What do you mean by Osteomyelitis?
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that is caused by bacteria. It is a serious condition that can cause pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected bone and the surrounding tissue. The infection usually starts in the soft tissue around the bone, and can spread to the bone itself. If left untreated, the infection can cause permanent damage to the bone and the surrounding tissue. Symptoms of osteomyelitis may include fever, redness and pain in the affected area, swelling, and loss of joint movement.
It depends on the severity of the infection, the type of bacteria causing the infection, the client's overall health, and the client's response to the antibiotics. Generally, the client would likely receive IV antibiotics for a minimum of one to two weeks but could need up to six weeks of IV antibiotics.
What do you mean by IV Antibiotics?
IV antibiotics are antibiotics that are administered through an intravenous (IV) line directly into the bloodstream. This method of administration allows the antibiotic to reach the bloodstream quickly and in a more concentrated form than an antibiotic taken orally. IV antibiotics are typically used to treat more serious bacterial infections, such as those that affect the respiratory system, urinary tract, or bloodstream.
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when discussing health assessment, the nursing instructor would tell the students that potential or actual problems are identified in order to focus on areas requiring what?
Health assessment is a process that involves the systematic gathering and examination of patient and healthcare teams in order to recognize and promote healthy behavior.
Who conducts a health evaluation?Your health will be examined by two physicians. For their reports, they will need to evaluate your current state of health. We urge you to be as forthcoming and truthful as you can.
What kinds of health evaluations are there?Initial Assessment, Focused Assessment, Time-lapsed Assessment, and Emergency Assessment are the four primary categories of health evaluations.
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cpco which one of the following federal regulations is not pertinent to billing companies? a. safe harbor rules b. patient protection and affordable care act c. health insurance portability and accountability act d. false claims act
Safe Harbor Principles (option a), The "safe harbor" laws outline several payment and business methods that may, but not always, violate the federal anti-kickback law.
How would they characterize themselves?"Patient" is an English translation of the Latin word "patiens," which meaning to endure or suffer. Through the use of this statement, the patient is portrayed as being immensely submissive, experiencing the necessary discomfort, and accepting the interventions of the outside expert.
Patients can be nouns or verbs.We have the chance to acquire patience since it requires us to learn to wait calmly despite irritation or discomfort, which is almost always present. However, patience may be the key to a happy existence.
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a 73-year-old client admitted after a stroke has expressive aphasia. which pain intensity scales would be appropriate to use with this client? select all that apply.
Analog visual scale, numerical rating scale It would be OK to utilize the Wong-Baker FACES scales with this client.
Which pain grading systems are employed to assess a client's level of suffering?Most people use this pain scale. These pain thresholds may be evaluated before starting treatment or at regular intervals after finishing it.
What course of action should the nurse pursue in order to assess the patient's pain level?The most accurate method for determining pain severity is self-report. Never rely on the patient's behavior or vital signs to replace self-report of pain when the patient is able to do so.
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a) what percent of patients in the treatment group were pain free 24 hours after receiving acupuncture?
Answer:
-10/50=.2=20%
Explanation:
while providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (emt) several days later. which route of transmission does this scenario describe?
The route of transmission the scenario describes is Indirect contact.
What is Indirect Contact?
When there is no direct human-to-human contact, indirect contact transmission occurs. Contact occurs when a reservoir comes into contact with contaminated surfaces or objects, or with vectors like mosquitoes, flies, mites, fleas, ticks, rodents, or dogs.
Food, water, biologic products (blood), and fomites are examples of vehicles that may indirectly transmit an infectious agent (inanimate objects such as handkerchiefs, bedding, or surgical scalpels). A vehicle can passively transport a pathogen, just as food or water can.
Indirect person-to-person transmission occurs when the original host sheds pathogens into the environment, which then infects someone else.
Infections spread through indirect contact when an infected person sneezes or coughs.
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during examination of ue control, you observe your patient reach for an object. the patient exhibits slow movement and movement decomposition to reach the object. when asked to reach quickly, the patient overshoots the object. strength testing reveals normal ue strength. sensation is intact. where is the lesion?
The lesion is in Cerebellum.
What is Cerebellum?
The cerebellum is a part of the brain that is located at the back of your head, just above and behind where your spinal cord connects to your brain. The term "cerebellum" is derived from Latin and means "small brain." For centuries, scientists believed that the cerebellum's function was to coordinate muscle movements.
Cerebellar damage can result in: 1) loss of motor movement coordination (asynergia), 2) inability to judge distance and when to stop (dysmetria), 3) inability to perform rapid alternating movements (adiadochokinesia), and 4) movement tremors (intention tremor),
As part of the vestibulocerebellar system, cerebellar dysfunction causes balance problems and gait disorders, as well as difficulties in coordination, resulting in ataxia, uncoordinated movements, imbalance, speech problems (dysarthria), visual problems (nystagmus), and vertigo.
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the nurse is assessing a client who is having a non-stress test (nst) at 41-weeks gestation. the nurse determines that the client is not having contractions, the fetal heart rate (fhr) baseline is 144 bpm, and no fhr accelerations are occurring. what action should the nurse take?
The nurse should Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.
What is gestation and fetal heart rate ?In utero, a typical foetal heart rate (FHR) falls within the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute (bpm). It can be detected sonographically starting at about 6 weeks, and the normal range changes throughout pregnancy, increasing to about 170 bpm at 10 weeks and then decreasing to about 130 bpm at term.
Gestation is the period of growth that occurs inside viviparous animals during the carrying of an embryo and later a fetus. It frequently occurs in mammals but also in some non-mammals. During pregnancy, mammals may experience one or more gestations concurrently, as in the case of multiple births.
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a 45-year-old client who recently completed alcohol detoxification reports plans to begin using disulfirams as part of the alcoholism treatment regimen. which client teaching would the nurse share regarding this medication?
Avoiding foods, drugs, and any topical treatment that contains alcohol is advised. When used with alcohol, disulfiram has adverse physical effects.
What effects does disulfiram have on the body?Disulfiram functions by preventing the body's ability to break down alcohol. This results in the accumulation of a hazardous alcohol-related molecule, which can make patients who consume alcohol while taking this drug very ill. This response encourages patients to abstain from drinking while taking the medicine.
Disulfiram is a kind of benzodiazepine.The medications Antabuse and Librium (chlordiazepoxide) are used to treat alcohol withdrawal (disulfiram). Librium is also used to treat anxiety-related conditions. Librium and Antabuse are members of different drug classes. Librium is a benzodiazepine, whereas Antabuse is only an alcohol antagonist.
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the nurse on the medical–surgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who has a history of glaucoma. the nurse should anticipate the use of what medications?
Medications which is to be given in Glaucoma are prostaglandin analogs, beta blockers, alpha agonists, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and rho kinase inhibitors.
Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve. The optic nerve sends visual information from your eye to your brain and is vital for good vision. Damage to the optic nerve is often related to high pressure in your eye. But glaucoma can happen even with normal eye pressure.
The symptoms of glaucoma depend on the type and stage of your condition.
a. Open-angle glaucoma
No symptoms in early stages
Gradually, patchy blind spots in your side vision. Side vision also is known as peripheral vision
In later stages, difficulty seeing things in your central vision
b. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Severe headache
Severe eye pain
Nausea or vomiting
Blurred vision
Halos or colored rings around lights
Eye redness
c. Normal-tension glaucoma
No symptoms in early stages
Gradually, blurred vision
In later stages, loss of side vision
d. Glaucoma in children
A dull or cloudy eye (infants)
Increased blinking (infants)
Tears without crying (infants)
Blurred vision
Nearsightedness that gets worse
Headache
Pigmentary glaucoma
Halos around lights
Blurred vision with exercise
Gradual loss of side vision.
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the client sustained a tibia fracture and a cast was applied. the client is reporting increasing pain when flexing toes. which symptoms does the nurse assess as associated with compartment syndrome? select all that apply.
The first and most trustworthy indication of compartment syndrome. Pain that is out of all proportion to the damage, pain that is excruciating with passive motion, and pain that is not eased by opioid analgesia.
What sort of work are nurses supposed to perform?In addition to providing emotional support to patients' families and educating the public about different health issues, registered nurses (RNs) supervise and perform medical treatments. Most registered nurses collaborate with physicians and other medical experts in a number of settings.
Would a nurse be qualified for the position?They are responsible for a number of post-operative surgical therapeutic tasks. Whether it's cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery, many surgical nursing professionals opt to specialize in one of these fields.
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Trace minerals are found in both plant and animal foods, but their actual bioavailability is influenced by many factors.
...
Trace minerals are found in both plant and animal foods, but their actual bioavailability is influenced by many factors.
The factors that affect the bioavailability of minerals in the body are as follows:
1. The form of minerals present in the body.
2. The supplements that are taken apart from the meals.
3. Excretory loss of a mineral.
4. Nutrient intake and dietary factors.
5. Health of the individual.
What are trace minerals?
Trace minerals, also called micro minerals, are essential minerals that the human body must get from food, but, unlike macro minerals, we only need a very small amount. Even though trace minerals are needed in tiny doses, they are still crucial to our health and development. The recommended daily allowance for most trace minerals is between .2 and 15 milligrams. Find below a list of trace minerals, their functions, and common foods that contain them.
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a client is admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during a diving accident. when planning this client's care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
The nurse should assign highest priority to Ineffective breathing pattern.
What is a cervical spine injury?
Cervical spine injury is caused due to deformation of the cervical spinal column that can damage the spinal cord. Cervical spinal cord injuries are the most severe kinds of spinal cord injuries.
These kinds of injuries causes permanent change in strength, sensation and other functions of the body below the site of the injury.
Spinal cord injuries may lead to quadriplegia or tetraplegia and paraplegia. These are associated with loss of muscle strength in all four extremities. quadriplegia or tetraplegia and paraplegia are paralysis caused by spinal cord injuries.
Quadriplegia or tetraplegia affects the arms, hands, trunk, legs and pelvic organs.
Paraplegia affects all or a part of the trunk, legs and pelvic organs.
So, the nurse should assign highest priority to Ineffective breathing pattern.
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a client has a diagnosis of bladder cancer with metastasis. the client asks the nurse about the characteristics of hospice care. the nurse should explain that:
The most typical locations of metastasis from bladder cancer include lymph nodes, bones, the lung, liver, and peritoneum. Advanced T category tumours and those with unusual histologic characteristics spread more quickly.
How is metastatic urethral cancer detected?The main method for detecting bladder cancer is a cystoscopy. It enables the medical professional to view into the body using a cystoscope, a thin, illuminated, flexible tube. Flexible cystoscopy can be done without anaesthesia, which is a drug that dulls the perception of pain, at a doctor's office.
Which course of action is ideal for metastatic bladder cancer?To determine how far the tumour has penetrated the bladder wall, transurethral resection (TURBT) is frequently performed initially.
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a 33-year-old male is brought to the emergency department for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. an mri reveals an injury of the cervical cord. cord swelling in this region may be life threatening because:
33-year-old man is sent to the emergency room to receive treatment for injuries sustained in a car accident. An mri demonstrates a cervical cord damage. Because the function of the diaphragm may be hampered, cord swelling in this area may be fatal.
Spinal trauma is evaluated and found via diagnostic imaging, notably Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI). subtle anomalies in the spinal cord, soft tissues, and bone marrow The main muscle used for breathing is the diaphragm, which is situated underneath the lungs. It is a large, dome-shaped muscle that frequently contracts unconsciously diaphragm and regularly. On MRI, abnormalities that might not be visible on other imaging modalities can be quickly found.
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your department has an advanced triage protocol that allows the emergency nurse to administer an anesthetic eye drop before morgan lens application. what color is the top of the container?
Eye drop bottles have colored caps that correspond to the effects of the drug. Anesthetics are indicated by white or transparent caps, mydriatics are indicated by red caps, miotics are indicated by green caps, and drugs that decrease aqueous humor production are indicated by yellow caps.
What is triage?When immediate care cannot be given due to a lack of resources, the triage procedure is used in medicine. The system directs care towards the people who will gain the most from it and who are most in need of it. When it is needed in its acute form, it is most frequently needed on the battlefield, during a pandemic, or in the times of peace when an accident causes a large number of casualties that overwhelm the capacity of the local healthcare institutions.
What is triage protocol?A set of algorithms known as protocols enable nurses to ask patients standardized questions and provide consistent care guidance. When doing patient assessments over the phone, triage nurses follow procedures. By doing this, they can guarantee that the data they provide is uniform and that patients are getting the best possible care.
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treating clients with anorexia nervosa with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant such as fluoxetine (prozac) may present which problem?
Fluoxetine can suppress the appetite and lead to weight loss.
What is fluoxetine's preferred use?An selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, such as fluoxetine, is a class of antidepressant (SSRI).Obsessive compulsive disorder, bulimia, and depression are occasionally also treated with it.Serotonin levels in the brain are raised, which causes it to work.
What is fluoxetine's most frequent adverse effect?The most frequent side effects of Prozac (fluoxetine) are nausea, sleeplessness, and anxiety.These frequently get better with time for a lot of folks.Medications like Prozac might have sexual side effects.
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