A textbook of mass 2.10 kg rests on a frictionless, horizontal surface. A cord attached to the book passes over a pulley whose diameter is 0.100 m , to a hanging book with mass 3.10 kg . The system is released from rest, and the books are observed to move a distance 1.29 m over a time interval of 0.850 s . Part A What is the tension in the part of the cord attached to the textbook

Answer:

the induced electric field is 9.95 V/m

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Number of turns N = 52

Diameter of coil D = 17 cm = 0.17 m

Radius r = D/2 = 0.17/2 = 0.085 m

Now,

cross-section area A of the coil  = πr²

A = π × ( 0.085 m )²

A = 0.0227 m²

Also given that;

Initial magnetic field B₁ = 0.45 T

Final magnetic field B₂ = 0

∴ change in magnetic field ΔB = B₁ - B₂ = 0.45 T - 0 = 0.45 T

Time taken dT = 0.10 seconds

Now, we know that;

Induced emf ∈ = N[tex](\frac{d\eta }{dt} )[/tex]

where η = BAcosθ

We know that, magnetic field is cylindrically symmetric, coil is also perpendicular to magnetic field.

Hence, the angle between B & A is 0°

∴ θ = 0°

Induced emf ε = N[tex](\frac{d }{dt} )BAcos\theta[/tex]

we substitute

ε = N[tex](\frac{d }{dt} )[/tex] (BAcos0°)

A is constant and cos0° = 1

so

ε = NA[tex](\frac{dB }{dt} )[/tex]  

We now substitute in our values;

ε = 52 × 0.0227 m² ×  [tex](\frac{0.45T }{0.10s} )[/tex]

ε  =  5.3118 V

we know that, from the relation between electric and emf

ε = ∫∈.dl or ε = ∈∫dl         { for coil; ∫dl = πD }

so we have;

ε = ∈πD

solve for ∈

∈ = ε/πD

we substitute

∈ = 5.3118 V / ( π × 0.17 m )

∈ = 9.95 V/m

Therefore, the induced electric field is 9.95 V/m

Answer:

i hate physics lol but its 20,000N

Explanation:

Answer:

The mass of the block, the distance of the block above the floor, and the time it takes the block to reach the floor, because these quantities can be used to determine the acceleration of the block.

The radius and the mass of the pulley, because these quantities can be used together to determine the rotational inertia of the pulley.

Explanation:

If the motion starts from rest, the initial angular velocity will be zero and the final angular velocity can be determined with the product of angular acceleration and time of motion of the pulley.

Angular velocity is defined as the change in the angular displacement per change in time of motion. This can be expressed mathematically as follows;

[tex]\omega = \frac{\Delta \theta}{\Delta t} = vr[/tex]

where;

In a circular motion that starts from rest and ends with final velocity, the equation is given as;

[tex]\omega_f =\omega_i + \alpha t[/tex]

Where;

Thus, if the motion starts from rest, the initial angular velocity will be zero and the final angular velocity can be determined with the product of angular acceleration and time of motion of the pulley.

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Answer:

Equation of motion is x(t) = [tex]-te^{-4t}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] sin(4t)

Explanation:

P.S - The exact question is -

Given - A mass of 1 slug, when attached to a spring, stretches it 2 feet and then comes to rest in the equilibrium position. Starting at t = 0, an external force equal to  [tex]f(t) = 8 cos(4t)[/tex] is applied to the system.

To find - Find the equation of motion if the surrounding medium offers a damping force that is numerically equal to 8 times the instantaneous velocity.

Proof -

Given that,

Mass = 1 slug

We know that, 1 slug = 32 lb

Now,

Force, f = kx

⇒32 = k(2)

⇒k = 16

Now,

Given that, C = 8 ( 8 times the instantaneous velocity)

Now,

The differential equation of motion is equals to

mx'' + Cx' + kx = 8 cos(4t)

⇒x'' + 8x' + 16x = 8 cos(4t)               ...........(1)

Let the General solution of equation (1) be

x(t) = x(c) + x(p)

Now,

The auxiliary equation is

m² + 8m + 16 = 0

m² + 4m + 4m + 16 = 0

m (m+4) + 4 (m+4) = 0

⇒(m+4)(m+4) = 0

⇒m = -4, -4

So,

The Complimentary equation becomes

x(c) = [tex]Ae^{-4t} + Bte^{-4t}[/tex]                  ...........(2)

Now,

Let the particular solution be

x(p) = C cos(4t) + D sin(4t)

x'(p) = -4C sin(4t) + 4D cos(4t)

x''(p) = -16C cos(4t) - 16D sin(4t)

It also satisfy equation (1)

Equation (1) becomes

-16C cos(4t) - 16D sin(4t) + 8 [ -4C sin(4t) + 4D cos(4t) ] + 16 [ C cos(4t) + D sin(4t) ] = 8 cos(4t)

⇒-16C cos(4t) - 16D sin(4t) - 32C sin(4t) + 32D cos(4t) ] + 16C cos(4t) + 16D sin(4t) ] = 8 cos(4t)

⇒-4C sin(4t) + 4B cos(4t) = cos(4t)

By comparing, we get

4B = 1 , A = 0

⇒ B = [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] , A = 0

So, The particular solution becomes

x(p) =  [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] sin(4t)

Now,

The General solution becomes

x(t) = [tex]Ae^{-4t} + Bte^{-4t}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] sin(4t)       .......(3)

Now,

Given that, At t = 0, initial velocity is zero and the system starts equilibrium

⇒x(0) = 0, x'(0) = 0

By putting t = 0 in equation (3) , we get

A = 0

Now,

Differentiate equation (3), we get

x'(t) = [tex]-4Ae^{-4t} + Be^{-4t} - 4Bte^{-4t}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] *4 cos(4t)

Put t = 0, we get

0 = -4A + B + 1

⇒B = -1

∴ we get

The general solution becomes

x(t) = [tex]-te^{-4t}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] sin(4t)

Equation of motion is x(t) = [tex]-te^{-4t}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] sin(4t)

Answer:

It is the force that pulls down an object on the air

Answer: a downward pull on any object

Explanation:

Answer:

[tex]1.84[/tex]×[tex]10^{-26}[/tex]

Explanation:

specific charge = [tex]\frac{charge}{mass}[/tex]  so by rearranging for mass we get

mass= [tex]\frac{charge}{sepcifc charge}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1.6×10^{-26} }{1.7×10^{-27} }[/tex] = answer in kg

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

This is what we call a permanent magnet. By the  way, the magnetic phenomena were first observed about 2500 years ago near the ancient city of Magnesia, what is today Manisa, located in western Turkey, when people saw fragments of magnetized iron. So what happens if you cut a magnet in half? Well, a magnet has two ends, the first one is called a north pole or N pole while the  other end is a south pole or S pole, so if you break a bar magnet, each piece  has a north and south pole, no matter the size of each new bar although the smaller the  piece, the weaker its magnetism. This is true because unlike electric charges, you always find magnetic poles  in pairs, that is, ¡they can't be isolated! The option is C. because in the great bar the north pole is to the left while the south pole is to right.

Explanation:

Since the balloon is not accelerating means that the net force on the balloon is zero. This implies that the weight of balloon must be equal to the buoyant force on balloon.

Hence, the buoyant force equals the weight of air displaced by the balloon, also 20,000 N.

Weight of the air displaced = density of air × volume

The density of air at 1 atm pressure and 20º C is 1.2 kg/m³  

the volume V = 20,000/(1.2×9.8) =  1700 m³

first of all the formula of force is F=ma,so we are searching for m,so we can divide a on both sides F/a=m, after this substitute the values given above 64N/4.51=14.2°Kg

Answer:

C) Mass of the ball

Explanation:

Independent variable is the variable the researcher changes.

Since Martin is testing the mass of the ball, he'll be using different balls and that is the only thing he changes.

The distance traveled by the ball is the dependent variable since it depends on the mass of the ball.

The height and length of the ramp are the constant variables since that's the only ones that remain the same throughout this experiment.

Answer:

  a = [tex]\frac{m}{m+ \frac{1}{2} m_p} \ g \ sin \beta[/tex]  ,       t = [tex]\sqrt{ \frac{2d}{a} }[/tex]

Explanation:

To solve this exercise we must use Newton's second law

For the block

let's set a reference system with the x axis parallel to the plane

X axis

         Wₓ - T = m a

Y axis  

         N- W_y = 0

         N = W_y

for pulley

          ∑τ = I α

           T R = (½ m_p R²) α

let's use trigonometry for the weight components

         sin β = Wₓ / W

         cos β = W_y / W

         Wx = W sin β

angular and linear variables are related

          a = α R

          α = a / R

we substitute and group our equations

         W sin β - T = m a

         T R = ½ m_p R² (a / R)

         W sin β - T = m a

                        T = ½ m_p a

we solve the system of equations

         W sin β = (m + ½ m_p) a

          a = [tex]\frac{m}{m+ \frac{1}{2} m_p} \ g \ sin \beta[/tex]

let's find the time to travel the distance (d) through the block

          x = v₀ t + ½ a t²

          d = 0 + ½ a t²

          t = [tex]\sqrt{ \frac{2d}{a} }[/tex]

Answer:

m = 1.31 kg

Explanation:

Given that,

The speed of duck, v = 9.1 m/s

The magnitude of momentum, p = 12 kg-m/s

We need to find the mass of the duck. We know that the momentum of an object is given by :

p = mv

Where

m is the mass of the duck

[tex]m=\dfrac{p}{v}\\\\m=\dfrac{12\ kg-m/s}{9.1\ m/s}\\\\m=1.31 kg[/tex]

So, the mass of the duck is equal to 1.31 kg.

Answer:

All of the above.

Explanation:

A person is said to be at rest when he or she is not performing any action. The heartbeat stays normal in this condition.

A person is said to perform a moderate activity when his heart beats faster than the normal rest condition. It requires extra effort within the limit. For example, walking and dancing are examples of moderate activity.

A person is said to perform a vigorous activity when his heart beats much than in moderate activity. It requires a lot of effort over the limit. Running is an example of vigorous activity.

In view of the above information, all the options given in the question are true. Hence, the correct answer will be:

All of the above.

Answer:

They are right.

Explanation:

Answer:

Mechanical Energy : KE + PE

Conversion : "When energy transfers from one form to another"

Potential Energy: the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position relative to others , stresses within itself, electric charge , and other factors .'

Kinetic Energy: energy of an object in motion

Law of conservation of energy: KE+PE+friction=KE

Explanation:

First of all mechanical energy is kinetic energy plus potential energy (it is the energy of movement) So:

Mechanical Energy : KE + PE

Conversion is when energy converts or becomes a different form. So:

Conversion : "When energy transfers from one form to another"

Potential energy is stored energy, in Physics I or AP Physics I, it is often due to it being at a height, but batteries, foods, etc. are also example of it, so:

Potential Energy: the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position relative to others , stresses within itself, electric charge , and other factors .'

Kinetic energy is for objects in motion so you got it right!

Kinetic Energy: energy of an object in motion

The law of conservation of energy means there is the same amount of energy before, as there is after, so when you see an equation with energy on both sides, it is usually this. Also, this is the last question left, so this has to be the answer.

Law of conservation of energy: KE+PE+friction=KE

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

Answer: 1.  walking across a carpet and touching a metal door handle            2. pulling your hat off and having your hair stand on end.

Explanation

:)

Answer:

Universe

Explanation:

I took the quiz.

Answer:

Diagram (3).

Explanation:

N3L states that if object A exerts a force on object B, then object B must exert a force of equal magnitude and opposite direction back on object A ([tex]F_{A} = -F_{B}[/tex]).

The diagram which best represents the gravitational forces, F, between a satellite, S, and Earth is; Choice (3).

The law clearly states a Force of attraction; the two objects come towards each other.

Consequently, Choice (3) best represents the gravitational forces, F, between a satellite, S, and Earth.

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Answer:

option c

Heat is transferred to your hand from a warm cup

conduction is the process of transferring of heat from one material to another when they are in contact

hope it helps

Answer: the answer is B

Explanation: 80 is not the same as 150 so it will go the way 150 units of force is pulling.

Answer:

i am guessing for reflection but not so sure

Answer:

r = 1,224 10⁻² m

Explanation:

For this exercise let's use Newton's second law

          F = m a

the force is magnetic

         F = q v x B

The bold letters indicate vectors, the module of this expesion is

          F = q v B

The direction of the force is found by the right hand rule

thumb points in the direction of the velicad + x

fingers extended in the direction of B -z

the palm is in the direction of the force + and

the acceleration of the proton is cenripetal

          a = v² / r

we substitute

          q v B = m v² / r

          r = [tex]\frac{m \ v}{q \ B}[/tex]

let's calculate

         r = [tex]\frac{1.7 \ 10^{-27} \ 5.760063 \ 10^7 }{1.6 \ 10^{-19} \ 0.5 }[/tex]

         r = 1,224 10⁻² m

Answer:

Right

Explanation:

Coil move right yes

Answer:

can you explain in Hindi language

because i learn hindi

Answer:

Wax melts as it absorb heat from flame

Explanation:

To know which option is correct, it is important that we know what chemical changes and physical changes are all about.

Chemical change is a change in which the process is not easily reversed and it produces new substance.

Physical change is more like the opposite of chemical change. In this change, the process is easily reversed and no new substance is produced.

Considering the options given above,

1. Iron combines with oxygen to produce rust is a chemical change since a new substance (rust) is formed and we can not reverse the process to get back iron and oxygen.

2. Wax melts as it absorb heat from flame is a physical change since no new substance is formed and we obtained the wax by allowing it to solidified.

3. Pure sodium explodes when dropped in water is a chemical change because we can not reverse the process to get back the sodium.

4. Glucose molecules are produced in plant leaf is also a chemical change.

From the illustrations above, it is evident that: 'Wax melts as it absorb heat from flame' is not a chemical

Answer:

option b

Explanation:

........................

Answer:

The atomic mass of an element is affected by the distribution of its isotopes because each isotope of an element has a different number of neutrons in the nuclei of its atoms.

Explanation:

please give me brainlyiest if its right

Answer:D

Explanation: