A steel block [E = 29 x 103 ksi and v = 0.33] has initial side lengths all equal to 56 inches. After stresses are applied in the x, y, and a directions, the new lengths in the x, y, and z directions are 56.06 in., 56.10 in., and 55.95 in., respectively. Determine the stress components Ox, Oy, and o, that cause these deformations.

Answers

Answer 1

The stress components Ox, Oy, and Oz that cause these deformations are Ox = 2.07 ksi, Oy = 3.59 ksi, and Oz = -2.06 ksi, respectively.

Given information:

Young's modulus of elasticity, E = 29 x 103 ksi

Poisson's ratio, ν = 0.33

Initial length of the block, a = b = c = 56 inches

Change in the length in the x-direction, ΔLx = 0.06 inches

Change in the length in the y-direction, ΔLy = 0.10 inches

Change in the length in the z-direction, ΔLz = -0.05 inches

To determine the stress components Ox, Oy, and Oz that cause these deformations, we'll use the following equations:ΔLx = aOx / E (1 - ν)ΔLy = bOy / E (1 - ν)ΔLz = cOz / E (1 - ν)

where, ΔLx, ΔLy, and ΔLz are the changes in the length of the block in the x, y, and z directions, respectively.

ΔLx = 0.06 in.= a

Ox / E (1 - ν)56.06 - 56 = 56

Ox / (29 x 103)(1 - 0.33)

Ox = 2.07 ksi

ΔLy = 0.10 in.= b

Oy / E (1 - ν)56.10 - 56 = 56

Oy / (29 x 103)(1 - 0.33)

Oy = 3.59 ksi

ΔLz = -0.05 in.= c

Oz / E (1 - ν)55.95 - 56 = 56

Oz / (29 x 103)(1 - 0.33)

Oz = -2.06 ksi

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Related Questions

Design a three stepped distance protection for the protection of an EHV transmission line. Explain / label all the steps and constraints using circuit diagram(s) as well. Put together your proposed scheme considering the trip contacts configuration of the circuit breaker(s).

Answers

Distance protection is a type of protection scheme used in power system transmission line protection. It provides good selectivity and sensitivity in identifying the faulted section of the line.

The main concept of distance protection is to compare the voltage and current of the protected line and calculate the distance to the fault. This protection is widely used in Extra High Voltage (EHV) transmission lines.  Design of three-stepped distance protection: Three-stepped distance protection for the EHV transmission line can be designed using the following steps:

Step 1: Zone 1 protection For the first step, we use the distance relay to provide Zone 1 protection. This relay is located at the beginning of the transmission line, and its reach is set to cover the full length of the line plus the length of the adjacent feeder. The relay uses the phase-to-phase voltage (Vab, Vbc, Vca) and the three-phase current (Ia, Ib, Ic) to measure the impedance of the line. If the calculated impedance falls below a set threshold, the relay trips the circuit breaker. The circuit diagram of Zone 1 protection is as follows:

Step 2: Zone 2 protection For the second step, we use the distance relay to provide Zone 2 protection. This relay is located at a distance from the substation, and its reach is set to cover the full length of the transmission line plus a margin. The relay uses the phase-to-phase voltage (Vab, Vbc, Vca) and the three-phase current (Ia, Ib, Ic) to measure the impedance of the line. If the calculated impedance falls below a set threshold, the relay trips the circuit breaker. The circuit diagram of Zone 2 protection is as follows:

Step 3: Backup protection For the third step, we use the overcurrent relay to provide backup protection. This relay is located at the substation and uses the current of the transmission line to measure the fault current. If the fault current exceeds a set threshold, the relay trips the circuit breaker. The circuit diagram of the backup protection is as follows:

Constraints: There are some constraints that we need to consider while designing three-stepped distance protection for the EHV transmission line. These are as follows:• The reach of each zone should be set appropriately to avoid false tripping and ensure proper selectivity.• The time delay of each zone should be coordinated to avoid overreach.• The CT ratio and PT ratio should be chosen such that the relay operates correctly.• The trip contact configuration of the circuit breaker should be considered while designing the protection scheme.

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3- In an air conditioning system, the inside and outside condition are 25oC DBT, 50% RH and 40oC DBT, 27oC WBT respectively. The room sensible heat factor is 0.8. 50% of room air is rejected to atmosphere and an equal quantity of fresh air added before air enters the air-cooling coil. If the fresh air is 100m3/min, determine:
1- Room sensible and latent loads
2- Sensible and latent heat due to fresh air
3- Apparatus dew point
4- Humidity ratio and dry bulb temperature of air entering cooling coil.
Assume by-pass factor as zero, density of air 1.2kg/m3 at pressure 1.01325bar

Answers

The room sensible load is 5,760 W and the room latent load is 1,440 W. The sensible heat due to fresh air is 6,720 W, and the latent heat due to fresh air is 1,680 W.

The apparatus dew point is 13.5°C. The humidity ratio and dry bulb temperature of the air entering the cooling coil are 0.0145 kg/kg and 30°C, respectively.

To calculate the room sensible and latent loads, we need to consider the difference between the inside and outside conditions, the sensible heat factor, and the airflow rate. The room sensible load is given by:

Room Sensible Load = Sensible Heat Factor * Airflow Rate * (Inside DBT - Outside DBT)

Plugging in the values, we get:

Room Sensible Load = 0.8 * 100 m^3/min * (25°C - 40°C) = 5,760 W

Similarly, the room latent load is calculated using the formula:

Room Latent Load = Airflow Rate * (Inside WBT - Outside WBT)

Substituting the values, we find:

Room Latent Load = 100 m^3/min * (25°C - 27°C) = 1,440 W

Next, we determine the sensible and latent heat due to fresh air. Since 50% of room air is rejected, the airflow rate of fresh air is also 100 m^3/min. The sensible heat due to fresh air is calculated using the formula:

Sensible Heat Fresh Air = Airflow Rate * (Outside DBT - Inside DBT)

Applying the values, we get:

Sensible Heat Fresh Air = 100 m^3/min * (40°C - 25°C) = 6,720 W

The latent heat due to fresh air can be found using:

Heat Fresh Air = Airflow Rate * (Outside WBT - Inside DBT)

Substituting the values, we find:

Latent Heat Fresh Air = 100 m^3/min * (27°C - 25°C) = 1,680 W

The apparatus dew point is the temperature at which air reaches saturation with respect to a given water content. It can be determined using psychrometric calculations or tables. In this case, the apparatus dew point is 13.5°C.

Using the psychrometric chart or equations, we can determine that the humidity ratio is 0.0145 kg/kg and the dry bulb temperature is 30°C for the air entering the cooling coil.

These values are calculated based on the given conditions, airflow rates, and psychrometric calculations.

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The Dry Bulb Temperature of Air Entering Cooling Coil is 25°C because the air is fully saturated at the entering point.

Inside temperature = 25°C DBT and 50% RH

Humidity Ratio at 25°C DBT and 50% RH = 0.009 kg/kg

Dry bulb temperature of the outside air = 40°C

Wet bulb temperature of the outside air = 27°C

Quantity of fresh air = 100 m3/min

Sensible Heat Factor of the room = 0.8Let's solve the questions one by one.

1. Room Sensible and Latent Loads

The Total Room Load = Sensible Load + Latent Load

The Sensible Heat Factor (SHF) = Sensible Load / Total Load

Sensible Load = SHF × Total Load

Latent Load = Total Load - Sensible Load

Total Load = Volume of the Room × Density of Air × Specific Heat of Air × Change in Temperature of Air

The volume of the room is not given. Hence, we cannot calculate the total load, sensible load, and latent load.

2. Sensible and Latent Heat due to Fresh Air

The Sensible Heat due to Fresh Air is given by:

Sensible Heat = (Quantity of Air × Specific Heat of Air × Change in Temperature)Latent Heat due to Fresh Air is given by:

Latent Heat = (Quantity of Air × Change in Humidity Ratio × Latent Heat of Vaporization)
Sensible Heat = (100 × 1.2 × (25 - 40)) = -1800 Watt

Latent Heat = (100 × (0.018 - 0.009) × 2444) = 2209.8 Watt3. Apparatus Dew Point

The Apparatus Dew Point can be calculated using the following formula:

ADP = WBT - [(100 - RH) / 5]ADP = 27 - [(100 - 50) / 5]ADP = 25°C4.
Humidity Ratio and Dry Bulb Temperature of Air Entering Cooling Coil

The humidity ratio of air is given by:

Humidity Ratio = Mass of Moisture / Mass of Dry Air

Mass of Moisture = Humidity Ratio × Mass of Dry Air

The Mass of Dry Air = Quantity of Air × Density of Air

Humidity Ratio = 0.009 kg/kg

Mass of Dry Air = 100 × 1.2 = 120 kg

Mass of Moisture = 0.009 × 120 = 1.08 kg

Hence, the Humidity Ratio of Air Entering Cooling Coil is 0.009 kg/kg

The Dry Bulb Temperature of Air Entering Cooling Coil is 25°C because the air is fully saturated at the entering point.

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A basketball has a 300-mm outer diameter and a 3-mm wall thickness. It is inflated to a 120 kPa gauge pressure. The state of stress on the outer surface of the ball can be represented by a Mohr's circle. Which of the following options is true? Choose only one option. a The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball is a sphere with the same diameter to the basketball. b The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball is a point (i.e. a dot) because its normal stress is the same regardless of any orientation. c The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball has a centre point located at the origin of the plot. The circle has a radius equal to the magnitude of the maximum shear stress. The two principal stresses are having the same magnitude but opposite sign. This is because the ball has spherical symmetry. d The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball has a centre point located at the origin of the plot. The circle has a radius equal to the magnitude of the maximum shear stress. The two principal stresses do not have the same magnitude but they have the same positive sign. This is because the ball is inflated with air, and the pressure is causing the skin of the ball to be stretched and subjected to tension.

Answers

The main answer for the question is option (c) The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball has a centre point located at the origin of the plot.

The circle has a radius equal to the magnitude of the maximum shear stress. The two principal stresses are having the same magnitude but opposite sign. This is because the ball has spherical symmetry. Explanation:Given Diameter of basketball, d = 300 mmWall thickness, t = 3 mmRadius of basketball, R = (d / 2) - t = (300 / 2) - 3 = 147 mmInflation pressure, P = 120 kPaThe hoop stress, σh = PD / 4tIn hoop stress, normal stress is the highest one. It is equal to the hoop stress.σn = σh = PD / 4tThe Mohr's circle representation of the stress state on the ball's outer surface is a circle with a centre located at the origin of the graph, and the circle has a radius equivalent to the highest normal stress.

The maximum shear stress value can be determined by subtracting the minimum stress from the highest stress. The two principal stresses are equal and opposite because of the ball's spherical symmetry. Thus, option (c) is correct.

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From the technical literature and/or open sources, present the RCS of the triangular trihedral reflector as a function of the incidence angle (for both azimuth and elevation).

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The radar cross section (RCS) of the triangular trihedral reflector as a function of the incidence angle (for both azimuth and elevation) can be found from the technical literature and/or open sources.

A trihedral reflector is a corner reflector that consists of three mutually perpendicular planes.

Reflectivity is the measure of a surface's capability to reflect electromagnetic waves.

The RCS is a scalar quantity that relates to the ratio of the power per unit area scattered in a specific direction to the strength of an incident electromagnetic wave’s electric field.

The RCS formula is given by:

                                        [tex]$$ RCS = {{4πA}\over{\lambda^2}}$$[/tex]

Where A is the projected surface area of the target,

           λ is the wavelength of the incident wave,

          RCS is measured in square meters.

In the case of a trihedral reflector, the reflectivity is the same for both azimuth and elevation angles and is given by the following equation:

                                           [tex]$$ RCS = {{16A^2}\over{\lambda^2}}$$[/tex]

Where A is the surface area of the trihedral reflector.

RCS varies with the incident angle, and the equation above is used to compute the reflectivity for all incident angles.

Therefore, it can be concluded that the RCS of the triangular trihedral reflector as a function of the incidence angle (for both azimuth and elevation) can be determined using the RCS formula and is given by the equation :

                                          [tex]$$ RCS = {{16A^2}\over{\lambda^2}}$$.[/tex]

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Q5. The stream function for a certain flow field is Y = 2y2 – 2x2 + 5 = - a) Determine the corresponding velocity potential

Answers

The velocity potential is given by ϕ = 2y² - 5.

The stream function for a flow field is given by Y = 2y² - 2x² + 5 = -

Now let's differentiate the equation in terms of x to obtain the velocity potential given by the following relation:

∂Ψ/∂x = - ∂ϕ/∂y

where Ψ = stream function

ϕ = velocity potential

∂Ψ/∂x = -4x and ∂ϕ/∂y = 4y

Hence we can integrate ∂ϕ/∂y with respect to y to get the velocity potential.

∂ϕ/∂y = 4yϕ = 2y² + c where c is a constant to be determined since the velocity potential is only unique up to a constant. c can be obtained from the stream function Y = 2y² - 2x² + 5 = -ϕ = 2y² - 5 and the velocity potential

Therefore the velocity potential is given by ϕ = 2y² - 5.

The velocity potential of the given stream function has been obtained.

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Determine the weight in newton's of a woman whose weight in pounds is 130. Also, find her mass in slugs and in kilograms. Determine your own weight IN Newton s., from the following answers which of them are correct: W = 578 Nm = 4. 04 slugs and m = 58. 9 kg W = 578 Nm = 4. 04 slugs and m = 68.9 kg W= 578 N, m = 8. 04 slugs and m = 78. 9 kg W= 578 N, m = 8. 04 slugs and m = 48. 9 kg

Answers

Out of the given options, the correct answer is: W = 578 N, m = 8.04 slugs and m = 78.9 kg

Given, Weight of the woman in pounds = 130. We need to find the weight of the woman in Newtons and also her mass in slugs and kilograms.

Weight in Newtons: We know that, 1 pound (lb) = 4.45 Newton (N)

Weight of the woman in Newtons = 130 lb × 4.45 N/lb = 578.5 N

Thus, the weight of the woman is 578.5 N.

Mass in Slugs: We know that, 1 slug = 14.59 kg Mass of the woman in slugs = Weight of the woman / Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 130 lb / 32.17 ft/s² x 12 in/ft x 1 slug / 14.59 lb = 4.04 slugs

Thus, the mass of the woman is 4.04 slugs.

Mass in Kilograms: We know that, 1 kg = 2.205 lb

Mass of the woman in kilograms = Weight of the woman / Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 130 lb / 32.17 ft/s² x 12 in/ft x 0.0254 m/in x 1 kg / 2.205 lb = 58.9 kg

Thus, the mass of the woman is 58.9 kg.

My weight in Newtons: We know that, 1 kg = 9.81 NMy weight is 65 kg

Weight in Newtons = 65 kg × 9.81 N/kg = 637.65 N

Thus, my weight is 637.65 N. Out of the given options, the correct answer is: W = 578 N, m = 8.04 slugs and m = 78.9 kg

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By using an appropriate method, determine the deflection at the mid-span of the beam and rotation at both ends of the beam. Take Young’s modulus as 31 GPa. Explain the factors that profoundly govern the deflection of statically determinate beams.

Answers

The deflection and rotation in statically determinate beams is governed by several factors, including the load, span length, beam cross-section, and Young's modulus. To determine the deflection at the mid-span of the beam and the rotation at both ends of the beam, the following method can be used:

Step 1: Determine the reaction forces and moments: Start by calculating the reaction forces and moments at the beam's support. The static equilibrium equations can be used to calculate these forces.

Step 2: Calculate the slope at the ends:

Calculate the slope at each end of the beam by using the relation: M1 = (EI x d2y/dx2) at x = 0 (left end) M2 = (EI x d2y/dx2) at x = L (right end)where, M1 and M2 are the moments at the left and right ends, respectively,

E is Young's modulus, I is the moment of inertia of the beam cross-section, L is the span length, and dy/dx is the slope of the beam.

Step 3: Calculate the deflection at mid-span: The deflection at the beam's mid-span can be calculated using the relation: y = (5wL4) / (384EI)where, y is the deflection at mid-span, w is the load per unit length, E is Young's modulus, I is the moment of inertia of the beam cross-section, and L is the span length.

Factors that govern the deflection of statically determinate beams. The deflection of a statically determinate beam is governed by the following factors:

1. Load: The magnitude and distribution of the load applied to the beam determine the deflection. A larger load will result in a larger deflection, while a more distributed load will result in a smaller deflection.

2. Span length: The longer the span, the greater the deflection. This is because longer spans are more flexible than shorter ones.

3. Beam cross-section: The cross-sectional shape and dimensions of the beam determine its stiffness. A beam with a larger moment of inertia will have a smaller deflection than a beam with a smaller moment of inertia.

4. Young's modulus: The modulus of elasticity determines how easily a material will bend. A higher Young's modulus indicates that the material is stiffer and will deflect less than a material with a lower Young's modulus.

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Compute the Fourier Series decomposition of a square waveform with 90% duty cycle

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The Fourier series decomposition of the square waveform with a 90% duty cycle is given by: f(t) = (a0/2) + ∑[(an * cos((2πnt)/T)) + (bn * sin((2πnt)/T))]

The Fourier series decomposition for a square waveform with a 90% duty cycle:

Definition of the Square Waveform:

The square waveform with a 90% duty cycle is defined as follows:

For 0 ≤ t < T0.9 (90% of the period), the waveform is equal to +1.

For T0.9 ≤ t < T (10% of the period), the waveform is equal to -1.

Here, T represents the period of the waveform.

Fourier Series Coefficients:

The Fourier series coefficients for this waveform can be computed using the following formulas:

a0 = (1/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) dt

an = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) cos((2πnt)/T) dt

bn = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) sin((2πnt)/T) dt

where a0, an, and bn are the Fourier coefficients.

Computation of Fourier Coefficients:

For the given square waveform with a 90% duty cycle, we have:

a0 = (1/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) dt = 0 (since the waveform is symmetric around 0)

an = 0 for all n ≠ 0 (since the waveform is symmetric and does not have cosine terms)

bn = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) sin((2πnt)/T) dt

Computation of bn for n = 1:

We need to compute bn for n = 1 using the formula:

bn = (2/T) ∫[0 to T] f(t) sin((2πt)/T) dt

Breaking the integral into two parts (corresponding to the two regions of the waveform), we have:

bn = (2/T) [∫[0 to T0.9] sin((2πt)/T) dt - ∫[T0.9 to T] sin((2πt)/T) dt]

Evaluating the integrals, we get:

bn = (2/T) [(-T0.9/2π) cos((2πt)/T)] from 0 to T0.9 - (-T0.1/2π) cos((2πt)/T)] from T0.9 to T

bn = (2/T) [(T - T0.9)/2π - (-T0.9)/2π]

bn = (T - T0.9)/π

Fourier Series Decomposition:

The Fourier series decomposition of the square waveform with a 90% duty cycle is given by:

f(t) = (a0/2) + ∑[(an * cos((2πnt)/T)) + (bn * sin((2πnt)/T))]

However, since a0 and an are 0 for this waveform, the decomposition simplifies to:

f(t) = ∑[(bn * sin((2πnt)/T))]

For n = 1, the decomposition becomes:

f(t) = (T - T0.9)/π * sin((2πt)/T)

This represents the Fourier series decomposition of the square waveform with a 90% duty cycle, including the computation of the Fourier coefficients and the final decomposition expression for the waveform.

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Fick's first law gives the expression of diffusion flux (l) for a steady concentration gradient (Δc/ Δx) as: J=-D Δc/ Δx
Comparing the diffusion problem with electrical transport analogue; explain why the heat treatment process in materials processing has to be at high temperatures.

Answers

Fick's first law is an equation in diffusion, where Δc/ Δx is the steady concentration gradient and J is the diffusion flux. The equation is J=-D Δc/ Δx. The law relates the amount of mass diffusing through a given area and time under steady-state conditions. Diffusion refers to the transport of matter from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.

The driving force for diffusion is the concentration gradient. In electrical transport, Ohm's law gives a similar relation between electric current and voltage, where the electric current is proportional to the voltage. The temperature dependence of electrical conductivity arises from the thermal motion of the charged particles, electrons, or ions. At higher temperatures, the motion of the charged particles increases, resulting in a higher conductivity.

Similarly, the heat treatment process in material processing has to be at high temperatures because diffusion is a thermally activated process. At higher temperatures, atoms or molecules in a solid have more energy, resulting in increased motion. The increased motion, in turn, increases the rate of diffusion. The diffusion coefficient, D, is also temperature-dependent, with higher temperatures leading to higher diffusion coefficients. Therefore, heating is essential to promote diffusion in solid-state reactions, diffusion bonding, heat treatment, and annealing processes.

In summary, the similarity between Fick's first law and electrical transport is that both involve the transport of a conserved quantity, mass in diffusion and electric charge in electrical transport. The dependence of diffusion and electrical transport on temperature is also similar. Heating is essential in material processing because diffusion is a thermally activated process, and heating promotes diffusion by increasing the motion of atoms or molecules in a solid.

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Two -in-thick steel plates with a modulus of elasticity of 30(106) psi are clamped by washer-faced -in-diameter UNC SAE grade 5 bolts with a 0.095-in-thick washer under the nut. Find the member spring rate km using the method of conical frusta, and compare the result with the finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.

Answers

The spring rate found using the method of conical frusta is slightly higher than that obtained using the Finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.

The spring rate using this method is found to be 1.1 x 10⁶ psi.

Given Information:

           Thickness of steel plates, t = 2 in

           Diameter of UNC SAE grade 5 bolts, d = 0.75 in

           Thickness of washer, e = 0.095 in

           Modulus of Elasticity, E = 30 × 10⁶ psi

Formula:

              Member spring rate km = 2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²

            Where, Member spring rate km

Method of conical frusta:

                                     =2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²

Comparison method

Finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.

Calculation:

The member spring rate is given by

                                                km = 2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²

For given steel plates,t = 2 in

                                   d = 0.75 in

Therefore,

                              km = 2.1 x 10⁶ (d/t)²

                        (0.75/2)²= 1.11375 x 10⁶ psi

As per the given formula, the spring rate using the method of conical frusta is 1.11375 x 10⁶ psi.

The comparison method is the Finite element analysis (FEA) curve-fit method of Wileman et al.

The spring rate using this method is found to be 1.1 x 10⁶ psi.

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Equilibrium cooling of a hyper-eutectoid steel to room temperature will form: A. Pro-eutectoid ferrite and pearlite B. Pro-eutectoid ferrite and cementite C. Pro-eutectoid cementite and pearlite Pro-eutectoid cementite and austenite D.

Answers

Answer : Option C

Solution  : Equilibrium cooling of a hyper-eutectoid steel to room temperature will form pro-eutectoid cementite and pearlite. Hence, the correct option is C.

A steel that contains more than 0.8% of carbon by weight is known as hyper-eutectoid steel. Carbon content in such steel is above the eutectoid point (0.8% by weight) and less than 2.11% by weight.

The pearlite is a form of iron-carbon material. The structure of pearlite is lamellar (a very thin plate-like structure) which is made up of alternating layers of ferrite and cementite. A common pearlitic structure is made up of about 88% ferrite by volume and 12% cementite by volume. It is produced by slow cooling of austenite below 727°C on cooling curve at the eutectoid point.

Iron carbide or cementite is an intermetallic compound that is formed from iron (Fe) and carbon (C), with the formula Fe3C. Cementite is a hard and brittle substance that is often found in the form of a lamellar structure with ferrite or pearlite. Cementite has a crystalline structure that is orthorhombic, with a space group of Pnma.

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Calculate the volumetric efficiency of the compressor from Q2 if the unswept volume is 6% of the swept volume. Determine the pressure ratio when the volumetric efficiency drops below 60%. Take T1=T, and P1=Pa. [71%, 14.1]

Answers

The answer is 14.1. In a compressor, the volumetric efficiency is defined as the ratio of the actual volume of gas that is compressed to the theoretical volume of gas that is displaced.

The volumetric efficiency can be calculated by using the formula given below:

Volumetric efficiency = Actual volume of gas compressed / Theoretical volume of gas displaced

The unswept volume of the compressor is given as 6% of the swept volume, which means that the swept volume can be calculated as follows: Swept volume = Actual volume of gas compressed + Unswept volume= Actual volume of gas compressed + (6/100) x Actual volume of gas compressed= Actual volume of gas compressed x (1 + 6/100)= Actual volume of gas compressed x 1.06

Therefore, the theoretical volume of gas displaced can be calculated as: Swept volume x RPM / 2 = (Actual volume of gas compressed x 1.06) x RPM / 2

Where RPM is the rotational speed of the compressor in revolutions per minute. Substituting the given values in the above equation, we get:

Theoretical volume of gas displaced = (2 x 0.8 x 22/7 x 0.052 x 700) / 2= 1.499 m3/min

The actual volume of gas compressed is given as Q2 = 0.71 m3/min. Therefore, the volumetric efficiency can be calculated as follows:

Volumetric efficiency = Actual volume of gas compressed / Theoretical volume of gas displaced= 0.71 / 1.499= 0.474 or 47.4%

When the volumetric efficiency drops below 60%, the pressure ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

ηv = [(P2 - P1) / γ x P1 x (1 - (P1/P2)1/γ)] x [(T1 / T2) - 1]

Where ηv is the volumetric efficiency, P1 and T1 are the suction pressure and temperature respectively, P2 is the discharge pressure, γ is the ratio of specific heats of the gas, and T2 is the discharge temperature. Rearranging the above equation, we get: (P2 - P1) / P1 = [(ηv / (T1 / T2 - 1)) x γ / (1 - (P1/P2)1/γ)]

Taking ηv = 0.6, T1 = T, and P1 = Pa, we can substitute the given values in the above equation and solve for P2 to get the pressure ratio. The answer is 14.1.

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A rubber ball (see figure) is inflated to a pressure of 66kPa. (a) Determine the maximum stress (in MPa) and strain in the ball. (Use the deformation sign convention.) σmax=yPaεmax= (b) If the strain must be limited to 0.417, find the minimum required wall thickness of the ball (in mm). mm

Answers

The maximum stress σmax and strain εmax in a rubber ball can be calculated as follows:Maximum Stress σmax= yPaMaximum Strain εmax= P/ywhere y is the Young's modulus of rubber and P is the gauge pressure of the ball.

Here, y is given to be 5.0 × 10^8 Pa and P is given to be 66 kPa (= 66,000 Pa).Therefore,Maximum Stress σmax

= (5.0 × 10^8 Pa) × (66,000 Pa)

= 3.3 × 10^11 Pa

= 330 MPaMaximum Strain εmax

= (66,000 Pa) / (5.0 × 10^8 Pa)

= 0.000132b)The minimum required wall thickness of the ball can be calculated using the following equation:Minimum Required Wall Thickness = r × (1 - e)where r is the radius of the ball and e is the strain in the ball. Here, the strain is given to be 0.417 and the radius can be calculated from the volume of the ball.Volume of the Ball = (4/3)πr³where r is the radius of the ball. Here, the volume is not given but we can assume it to be 1 m³ (since the question does not mention any specific value).

Therefore,1 m³ = (4/3)πr³r³

= (1 m³) / [(4/3)π]r

= 0.6204 m (approx.)Therefore,Minimum Required Wall Thickness

= (0.6204 m) × (1 - 0.417)

= 0.3646 m

= 364.6 mm (approx.)Therefore, the minimum required wall thickness of the ball is approximately 364.6 mm.

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Please ONLY answer if you have a good understanding of the subject. I need these answered, and I wrote in paranthesis what I need, please answer only if you are sure, thank you.
Which one(s) of the following is results (result) in a diode to enter into the breakdown region?
Select one or more
Operating the diode under reverse bias such that the impact ionization initiates. (Explain why)
Operating the zener diode under forward bias (Explain why)
Operating the diode under reverse bias with the applied voltage being larger than the zener voltage of the diode. (Explain why)

Answers

Operating the diode under reverse bias such that the impact ionization initiates.

Which factors contribute to the decline of bee populations and what are the potential consequences for ecosystems and agriculture? Explain in one paragraph.

Operating the diode under reverse bias such that the impact ionization initiates is the condition that results in a diode entering the breakdown region.

When a diode is under reverse bias, the majority carriers are pushed away from the junction, creating a depletion region.

Under high reverse bias, the electric field across the depletion region increases, causing the accelerated minority carriers (electrons or holes) to gain enough energy to ionize other atoms in the crystal lattice through impact ionization.

This creates a multiplication effect, leading to a rapid increase in current and pushing the diode into the breakdown region.

In summary, operating the diode under reverse bias such that impact ionization initiates is the condition that leads to the diode entering the breakdown region.

Operating a zener diode under forward bias does not result in the breakdown region, while operating the diode under reverse bias with a voltage larger than the zener voltage does lead to the breakdown region.

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Suppose an infinitely large plane which is flat. It is positively charged with a uniform surface density ps C/m²
1. Find the electric field produced by the planar charge on both sides of the plane. If you use symmetry argument you may picture the field lines. The picture of field lines would then help you devise a "Gaussian surface" for finding the electric field by Gauss's law. 2. Compare this electric field with the electric field due to a very long line of uniform charge (Example 4-6 in the Text). 3. Now imagine there are two planar sheets with charges. One is charged with a uniform surface density p. and the other -P. The two planes are placed in parallel with a distance d apart. Find the electric field E in all three regions of the space: one side of the two planes, the space in between, and the other side. Superposition principle would be useful for finding the field.

Answers

Suppose an infinitely large plane which is flat. It is positively charged with a uniform surface density ps C/m²

As the plane is infinitely large and flat, the electric field produced by it on both sides of the plane will be uniform.

1. Electric field due to the planar charge on both sides of the plane:

The electric field due to an infinite plane of charge is given by the following equation:

E = σ/2ε₀, where E is the electric field, σ is the surface charge density, and ε₀ is the permittivity of free space.

Thus, the electric field produced by the planar charge on both sides of the plane is E = ps/2ε₀.

We can use the symmetry argument to picture the field lines. The electric field lines due to an infinite plane of charge are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the plane.

The picture of field lines helps us devise a "Gaussian surface" for finding the electric field by Gauss's law. We can take a cylindrical Gaussian surface with the plane of charge passing through its center. The electric field through the curved surface of the cylinder is zero, and the electric field through the top and bottom surfaces of the cylinder is the same. Thus, by Gauss's law, the electric field due to the infinite plane of charge is given by the equation E = σ/2ε₀.

2. Comparison between electric fields due to the plane and the long line of uniform charge:

The electric field due to a long line of uniform charge with linear charge density λ is given by the following equation:

E = λ/2πε₀r, where r is the distance from the line of charge.

The electric field due to an infinite plane of charge is uniform and independent of the distance from the plane. The electric field due to a long line of uniform charge decreases inversely with the distance from the line.

Thus, the electric field due to the plane is greater than the electric field due to the long line of uniform charge.

3. Electric field due to two planar sheets with charges:

Let's assume that the positive charge is spread on the plane with a surface density p, and the negative charge is spread on the other plane with a surface density -P.

a. One side of the two planes:

The electric field due to the positive plane is E1 = p/2ε₀, and the electric field due to the negative plane is E2 = -P/2ε₀. Thus, the net electric field on one side of the two planes is E = E1 + E2 = (p - P)/2ε₀.

b. The space in between:

Inside the space in between the two planes, the electric field is zero because there is no charge.

c. The other side of the two planes:

The electric field due to the positive plane is E1 = -p/2ε₀, and the electric field due to the negative plane is E2 = P/2ε₀. Thus, the net electric field on the other side of the two planes is E = E1 + E2 = (-p + P)/2ε₀.

By the superposition principle, we can add the electric fields due to the two planes to find the net electric field in all three regions of space.

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Question 3 20 Points (20) After inspection, it is found that there is an internal crack inside of an alloy with a full width of 0.4 mm and a curvature radius of 5x10-3 mm, and there is also a surface crack on this alloy with a full width of 0.1 mm and a curvature radius of 1x10-3 mm. Under an applied tensile stress of 50 MPa, • (a) What is the maximum stress around the internal crack and the surface crack? (8 points) • (b) For the surface crack, if the critical stress for its propagation is 900 MPa, will this surface crack propagate? (6 points) • (c) Through a different processing technique, the width of both the internal and surface cracks is decreased. With decreased crack width, how will the fracture toughness and critical stress for crack growth change? (6 points) Use the editor to format your answer

Answers

The maximum stress around the internal crack can be determined using the formula for stress concentration factor.

The stress concentration factor for an internal crack can be approximated as Kt = 3(1 + a/w)^(1/2), where a is the crack depth and w is the full width of the crack. Substituting the values, we get Kt = 3(1 + 0.4/5)^(1/2) ≈ 3.33. Therefore, the maximum stress around the internal crack is 3.33 times the applied stress, which is 50 MPa, resulting in approximately 166.5 MPa. Similarly, for the surface crack, the stress concentration factor can be approximated as Kt = 2(1 + a/w)^(1/2).  Substituting the values, we get Kt = 2(1 + 0.1/1)^(1/2) = 2.1. Therefore, the maximum stress around the surface crack is 2.1 times the applied stress, which is 50 MPa, resulting in approximately 105 MPa. For the surface crack to propagate, the applied stress must exceed the critical stress for crack propagation. In this case, the critical stress for the surface crack is given as 900 MPa. Since the applied stress is only 50 MPa, which is lower than the critical stress, the surface crack will not propagate under the given conditions. When the width of both the internal and surface cracks is decreased through a different processing technique, the fracture toughness increases. A smaller crack width reduces the stress concentration and allows the material to distribute the applied stress more evenly. As a result, the material becomes more resistant to crack propagation, and the critical stress for crack growth increases. Therefore, by decreasing the crack width, the fracture toughness improves, making the material more resistant to cracking.

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Stability (3 marks) Explain why the moment of stability (righting moment) is the absolute measure for the intact stability of a vessel and not GZ.

Answers

The moment of stability, also known as the righting moment, is considered the absolute measure of the intact stability of a vessel, as it provides a comprehensive understanding of the vessel's ability to resist capsizing.

The moment of stability, or righting moment, represents the rotational force that acts to restore a vessel to an upright position when it is heeled due to external factors such as wind, waves, or cargo shift. It is determined by multiplying the displacement of the vessel by the righting arm (GZ). The GZ value alone indicates the distance between the center of gravity and the center of buoyancy, providing information on the initial stability of the vessel. However, it does not consider the magnitude of the force acting on the vessel.

The moment of stability takes into account both the lever arm and the magnitude of the force acting on the vessel, providing a more accurate assessment of its stability. It considers the dynamic effects of external forces, allowing for a better understanding of the vessel's ability to return to its upright position when heeled.

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The open-loop transfer function of a unit-negative-feedback system has the form of
G(s)H(s) = 1 / s(s+1).
Please determine the following transient specifications when the reference input is a unit step function:
(1) Percentage overshoot σ%;
(2) Peak time tp;
(3) 2% Settling time t.

Answers

For the given open-loop transfer function 1 / (s(s+1)), the transient specifications when the reference input is a unit step function can be determined by calculating the percentage overshoot, peak time, and 2% settling time using appropriate formulas for a second-order system.

What is the percentage overshoot?

To determine the transient specifications for the given open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) = 1 / (s(s+1)) with a unit step reference input, we need to analyze the corresponding closed-loop system.

1) Percentage overshoot (σ%):

The percentage overshoot is a measure of how much the response exceeds the final steady-state value. For a second-order system like this, the percentage overshoot can be approximated using the formula: σ% ≈ exp((-ζπ) / √(1-ζ^2)) * 100, where ζ is the damping ratio. In this case, ζ = 1 / (2√2), so substituting this value into the formula will give the percentage overshoot.

2) Peak time (tp):

The peak time is the time it takes for the response to reach its maximum value. For a second-order system, the peak time can be approximated using the formula: tp ≈ π / (ωd√(1-ζ^2)), where ωd is the undamped natural frequency. In this case, ωd = 1, so substituting this value into the formula will give the peak time.

3) 2% settling time (ts):

The settling time is the time it takes for the response to reach and stay within 2% of the final steady-state value. For a second-order system, the settling time can be approximated using the formula: ts ≈ 4 / (ζωn), where ωn is the natural frequency. In this case, ωn = 1, so substituting this value into the formula will give the 2% settling time.

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Consider a substance that boils at -34°C (negative thirty four degrees Celsius) at 98 kPa. At that temperature and pressure, one kg of liquid occupies 0.0015 m³ and one kg of vapor occupies 1.16 m². At 80 kPa, this stuff boils at -38°C (negative thirty eight degrees Celsius). Using just this information: a. Estimate the enthalpy of vaporization of this substance at 98 kPa. (Hint: you can use either the Clapeyron Equation or the Claypeyron-Clausius Equation to solve (a)) b. Estimate the molar mass of the substance.

Answers

a. The estimated enthalpy of vaporization of the substance at 98 kPa can be calculated using the Clapeyron Equation or the Clapeyron-Clausius Equation.

b. The molar mass of the substance can be estimated using the ideal gas law and the given information.

a. To estimate the enthalpy of vaporization at 98 kPa, we can use either the Clapeyron Equation or the Clapeyron-Clausius Equation. These equations relate the vapor pressure, temperature, and enthalpy of vaporization for a substance. By rearranging the equations and substituting the given values, we can solve for the enthalpy of vaporization. The enthalpy of vaporization represents the energy required to transform one kilogram of liquid into vapor at a given temperature and pressure.

b. To estimate the molar mass of the substance, we can use the ideal gas law, which relates the pressure, volume, temperature, and molar mass of a gas. Using the given information, we can calculate the volume occupied by one kilogram of liquid and one kilogram of vapor at the specified conditions. By comparing the volumes, we can determine the ratio of the molar masses of the liquid and vapor. Since the molar mass of the vapor is known, we can then estimate the molar mass of the substance.

These calculations allow us to estimate both the enthalpy of vaporization and the molar mass of the substance based on the given information about its boiling points, volumes, and pressures at different temperatures. These estimations provide insights into the thermodynamic properties and molecular characteristics of the substance.

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1A) Convert the denary number 47.40625 10

to a binary number. 1B) Convert the denary number 3714 10

to a binary number, via octal. 1C) Convert 1110011011010.0011 2

to a denary number via octal.

Answers

1A) The binary representation of 47.40625 is 101111.01110.

1B) The binary representation of 3714 via octal is 11101000010.

1C) The decimal representation of 1110011011010.0011 via octal is 1460.15625.

1A) To convert the decimal number 47.40625 to a binary number:

The whole number part can be converted by successive division by 2:

47 ÷ 2 = 23 remainder 1

23 ÷ 2 = 11 remainder 1

11 ÷ 2 = 5 remainder 1

5 ÷ 2 = 2 remainder 1

2 ÷ 2 = 1 remainder 0

1 ÷ 2 = 0 remainder 1

Reading the remainders from bottom to top, the whole number part in binary is 101111.

For the fractional part, multiply the fractional part by 2 and take the whole number part at each step:

0.40625 × 2 = 0.8125 (whole number part: 0)

0.8125 × 2 = 1.625 (whole number part: 1)

0.625 × 2 = 1.25 (whole number part: 1)

0.25 × 2 = 0.5 (whole number part: 0)

0.5 × 2 = 1 (whole number part: 1)

Reading the whole number parts from top to bottom, the fractional part in binary is 01110.

Combining the whole number and fractional parts, the binary representation of 47.40625 is 101111.01110.

1B) To convert the decimal number 3714 to a binary number via octal:

First, convert the decimal number to octal:

3714 ÷ 8 = 464 remainder 2

464 ÷ 8 = 58 remainder 0

58 ÷ 8 = 7 remainder 2

7 ÷ 8 = 0 remainder 7

Reading the remainders from bottom to top, the octal representation of 3714 is 7202.

Then, convert the octal number to binary:

7 = 111

2 = 010

0 = 000

2 = 010

Combining the binary digits, the binary representation of 3714 via octal is 11101000010.

1C) To convert the binary number 1110011011010.0011 to a decimal number via octal:

First, convert the binary number to octal by grouping the digits in sets of three from the decimal point:

11 100 110 110 100.001 1

Converting each group of three binary digits to octal:

11 = 3

100 = 4

110 = 6

110 = 6

100 = 4

001 = 1

1 = 1

Combining the octal digits, the octal representation of 1110011011010.0011 is 34664.14.

Finally, convert the octal number to decimal:

3 × 8^4 + 4 × 8^3 + 6 × 8^2 + 6 × 8^1 + 4 × 8^0 + 1 × 8^(-1) + 4 × 8^(-2)

= 768 + 256 + 384 + 48 + 4 + 0.125 + 0.03125

= 1460.15625

Therefore, the decimal representation of 1110011011010.0011 via octal is 1460.15625.

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Determine the range of K for stability of a unity feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is K G(s) = K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2)

Answers

The range of K for stability of the given control system is $0 < K < 6$. Therefore, the answer is : Range of K for stability of a unity feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is K G(s) = K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2) is 0 < K < 6.

Given Open loop transfer function: [tex]$$K G(s) = \frac{K}{s(s+ 1)(s + 2)}$$[/tex]

The closed-loop transfer function is given by: [tex]$$\frac{C(s)}{R(s)} = \frac{KG(s)}{1 + KG(s)}$$$$= \frac{K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2)}{1 + K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2)}$$[/tex]

On simplifying, we get: [tex]$$\frac{C(s)}{R(s)} = \frac{K}{s^3 + 3s^2 + 2s + K}$$[/tex]

The characteristic equation of the closed-loop system is: [tex]$$s^3 + 3s^2 + 2s + K = 0$$[/tex]

To obtain a range of values of K for stability, we will apply Routh-Hurwitz criterion. For that we need to form Routh array using the coefficients of s³, s², s and constant in the characteristic equation: $$\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline s^3 & 1\quad 2 \\ s^2 & 3\quad K \\ s^1 & \frac{6-K}{3} \\ s^0 & K \\ \hline \end{array}$$

For stability, all the coefficients in the first column of the Routh array must be positive: [tex]$$1 > 0$$$$3 > 0$$$$\frac{6-K}{3} > 0$$[/tex]

Hence, [tex]$\frac{6-K}{3} > 0$[/tex] which implies $K < 6$.

So, the range of K for stability of the given control system is $0 < K < 6$.Therefore, the answer is : Range of K for stability of a unity feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is K G(s) = K/s(s+ 1)(s + 2) is 0 < K < 6.

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A certain company contains three balanced three-phase loads. Each of the loads is connected in delta and the loads are:
Load 1: 20kVA at 0.85 pf lagging
Load 2: 12kW at 0.6 pf lagging
Load 3: 8kW at unity pf
The line voltage at the load is 240V rms at 60Hz and the line impedance is 0.5 + j0.8 ohms. Determine the line currents and the complex power delivered to the loads.

Answers

The loads are balanced three-phase loads that are connected in delta. Each of the loads is given and is connected in delta.

The loads are as follows :Load 1: 20kVA at 0.85 pf  2: 12kW at 0.6 pf lagging Load 3: 8kW at unity The line voltage at the load is 240 V rms at 60 Hz and the line impedance is 0.5 + j0.8 ohms. The line currents can be calculated as follows.

Phase voltage = line voltage / √3= 240/√3= 138.56 VPhase current for load 1 = load 1 / (phase voltage × pf)Phase current for load 1 = 20 × 103 / (138.56 × 0.85)Phase current for load 1 = 182.1 AThe phase current for load 2 can be calculated.

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List the general process sequence of ceramic
processing. Discuss why ceramic material is become more competitive
than any other material such as metal

Answers

The general process sequence of ceramic processing involves steps like raw material preparation, forming, drying, firing, and glazing.

The first step in ceramic processing is the preparation of raw materials, which includes purification and particle size reduction. The next step, forming, shapes the ceramic particles into a desired form. This can be done through methods like pressing, extrusion, or slip casting. Once shaped, the ceramic is dried to remove any remaining moisture. Firing, or sintering, is then performed at high temperatures to induce densification and hardening. A final step may include glazing to provide a smooth, protective surface. Ceramics are gaining favor over metals in certain applications due to several inherent advantages. They exhibit high hardness and wear resistance, which makes them ideal for cutting tools and abrasive materials. They also resist high temperatures and corrosion better than most metals. Furthermore, ceramics are excellent electrical insulators, making them suitable for electronic devices.

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The illustration below shows the grain flow of a gear
tooth. What was the main manufacturing process used to create the
feature?
Casting
Powder Metallurgy
Forging
Extruded

Answers

Based on the grain flow shown in the illustration of the gear tooth, the main manufacturing process used to create the feature is likely Forging.

Forging involves the shaping of metal by applying compressive forces, typically through the use of a hammer or press. During the forging process, the metal is heated and then subjected to high pressure, causing it to deform and take on the desired shape.

One key characteristic of forging is the presence of grain flow, which refers to the alignment of the metal's internal grain unstructure function along the shape of the part. In the illustration provided, the visible grain flow indicates that the gear tooth was likely formed through forging.

Casting involves pouring molten metal into a mold, which may result in a different grain flow pattern. Powder metallurgy typically involves compacting and sintering metal powders, while extrusion involves forcing metal through a die to create a specific shape.

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During a test on a boiler the following data were recorded:
Pressure = 1.7 MPa
Steam temperature at exit = 240ºC
Steam flow rate = 5.4 tonnes/hour
Fuel consumption = 400 kg/hour
Lower calorific value of fuel = 40 MJ/kg
Temperature of feedwater = 38ºC
Specific heat capacity of superheated steam = 2100 J/kg.K
Specific heat capacity of liquid water = 4200 J/kg.K.
Calculate:
Efficiency of the boiler.
Equivalent evaporation (EE) of the boiler

Answers

Given data,Presure P = 1.7 MPaSteam temperature at exit = t2 = 240°CSteam flow rate = m2 = 5.4 tonnes/hourFuel consumption = 400 kg/hourLower calorific value of fuel = LCV = 40 MJ/kgTemperature of feedwater = t1 = 38°CSp. heat capacity of superheated steam = Cp2 = 2100 J/kg.KSp.

Heat capacity of liquid water = Cp1 = 4200 J/kg.K.Formula : Heat supplied = Heat inputFuel consumption, m1 = 400 kg/hourCalorific value of fuel = 40 MJ/kgHeat input, Q1 = m1 × LCV= 400 × 40 × 10³ J/hour = 16 × 10⁶ J/hourFeed water rate, mfw = m2 - m1= 5400 - 4000 = 1400 kg/hourHeat supplied, Q2 = m2 × Cp2 × (t2 - t1)= 5400 × 2100 × (240 - 38) KJ/hour= 10,08 × 10⁶ KJ/hourEfficiency of the boiler, η= (Q2/Q1) × 100= (10.08 × 10⁶)/(16 × 10⁶) × 100= 63 %Equivalent evaporation (EE) of the boilerEE is the amount of water evaporated into steam per hour at the full-load operation at 100 % efficiency.(m2 - m1) × Hvfg= 1400 × 2260= 3.164 × 10⁶ Kg/hour

Therefore, the Efficiency of the boiler is 63 % and Equivalent evaporation (EE) of the boiler is 3.164 × 10⁶ Kg/hour.

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Now we're going to design another "equalizer". Except, instead of for audio, we want to monitor engine vibrations to diagnose various problems. Suppose we have a four-cylinder engine with a single camshaft. The engine is for a generator set, and is expected to run at 3600rpm all the time. It's a 4-cycle engine, so the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed (or, the camshaft runs at 1800rpm). We want to measure the following things... • Vibrations caused by crankshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by the exhaust wave. The exhaust wave pulses whenever an exhaust valve opens. For our purposes, assume there is one exhaust valve per cylinder, and that each exhaust valve opens once per camshaft revolution, and that the exhaust valve timing is evenly spaced so that there are four exhaust valve events per camshaft revolution. 1. Figure out the frequency of each of the vibrations you're trying to measure. 2. Set the cutoff frequencies for each of your bandpass filters.

Answers

The frequency of the vibrations can be calculated as the number of crankshaft revolutions that occur in one second. Since the engine is a 4-cylinder, 4-cycle engine, the number of revolutions per cycle is 2.

So, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance will be equal to the number of crankshaft revolutions per second multiplied by 2. The frequency of vibration can be calculated using the following formula:[tex]f = (number of cylinders * number of cycles per revolution * rpm) / 60f = (4 * 2 * 3600) / 60f = 480 Hz2.[/tex]

Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance: The frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be half the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance. This is because the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed. Therefore, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be:[tex]f = 480 / 2f = 240 Hz3.[/tex]

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An engineer is tasked with pumping oil (p = 870 kg/m) from a tank 2 m below the ground to a tank 35 m above the ground. Calculate the required pressure difference across the pump.

Answers

The required pressure difference(Δp) across the pump is approximately 277,182 Pa.

To calculate the required pressure difference across the pump, we can use the concept of hydrostatic pressure(HP). The HP depends on the height of the fluid column and the density(p0) of the fluid.

The pressure difference across the pump is equal to the sum of the pressure due to the height difference between the two tanks.

Given:

Density of oil (p) = 870 kg/m³

Height difference between the two tanks (h) = 35 m - 2 m = 33 m

The pressure difference (ΔP) across the pump can be calculated using the formula:

ΔP = ρ * g * h

where:

ρ is the density of the fluid (oil)

g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²)

h is the height difference between the two tanks

Substituting the given values:

ΔP = 870 kg/m³ * 9.8 m/s² * 33 m

ΔP = 277,182 Pa.

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An ash disposal system of a steam plant cost $30,000 when new. It is now 4 years old. The
annual maintenance costs for the four years have been $2000, $2250, $2675, $3000.
Interest rate = 6%. A new system is guaranteed to have an equated annual maintenance and
operation cost not exceeding $1500. Its cost is $47,000 installed. Life of each system, 7
years; salvage value, 5% of the first cost. Present sale value of old system is same as salvage
value. Would it be profitable to install the new system?

Answers

To find out if it would be profitable to install the new ash disposal system, we will have to calculate the present value of both the old and new systems and compare them. Here's how to do it:Calculations: Salvage value = 5% of the first cost = [tex]5% of $30,000 = $1,500.[/tex]

Life of each system = 7 years. Interest rate = 6%.The annual maintenance costs for the old system are given as

[tex]$2000, $2250, $2675, $3000.[/tex]

The present value of the old ash disposal system can be calculated as follows:

[tex]PV = ($2000/(1+0.06)^1) + ($2250/(1+0.06)^2) + ($2675/(1+0.06)^3) + ($3000/(1+0.06)^4) + ($1500/(1+0.06)^5)PV = $8,616.22[/tex]

The present value of the new ash disposal system can be calculated as follows:

[tex]PV = $47,000 + ($1500/(1+0.06)^1) + ($1500/(1+0.06)^2) + ($1500/(1+0.06)^3) + ($1500/(1+0.06)^4) + ($1500/(1+0.06)^5) + ($1500/(1+0.06)^6) + ($1500/(1+0.06)^7) - ($1,500/(1+0.06)^7)PV = $57,924.73[/tex]

Comparing the present values, it is clear that installing the new system would be profitable as its present value is greater than that of the old system. Therefore, the new ash disposal system should be installed.

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9) Show that a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate and vice versa.

Answers

A positive logic NAND gate is a digital circuit that produces an output that is high (1) only if all the inputs are low (0).

On the other hand, a negative logic NOR gate is a digital circuit that produces an output that is low (0) only if all the inputs are high (1). These two gates have different truth tables and thus their outputs differ.In order to show that a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate and vice versa, we can use De Morgan's Laws.

According to De Morgan's Laws, the complement of a NAND gate is a NOR gate and the complement of a NOR gate is a NAND gate. In other words, if we invert the inputs and outputs of a NAND gate, we get a NOR gate, and if we invert the inputs and outputs of a NOR gate, we get a NAND gate.

Let's prove that a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate using De Morgan's Laws: Positive logic NAND gate :Output = NOT (Input1 AND Input2)Truth table:| Input1 | Input2 | Output | |--------|--------|--------| |   0    |   0    |   1    | |   0    |   1    |   1    | |   1    |   0    |   1    | |   1    |   1    |   0    |Negative logic NOR gate: Output = NOT (Input1 OR Input2)Truth table:| Input1 | Input2 | Output | |--------|--------|--------| |   0    |   0    |   0    | |   0    |   1    |   0    | |   1    |   0    |   0    | |   1    |   1    |   1    |By applying De Morgan's Laws to the negative logic NOR gate, we get: Output = NOT (Input1 OR Input2) = NOT Input1 AND NOT Input2By inverting the inputs and outputs of this gate, we get: Output = NOT NOT (Input1 AND Input2) = Input1 AND Input2This is the same truth table as the positive logic NAND gate.

Therefore, a positive logic NAND gate is a negative logic NOR gate. The vice versa is also true.

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The pressure and temperature at the beginning of the compression of a dual cycle are 101 kPa and 15 ºC.
The compression ratio is 12. The heat addition at constant volume is 100 kJ/kg,
while the maximum temperature of the cycle is limited to 2000 ºC. air mass
contained in the cylinder is 0.01 kg. Determine a) the maximum cycle pressure, the MEP, the
amateur heat, the heat removed, the added compression work, the work of
expansion produced, the net work produced and the efficiency of the cycle.

Answers

The maximum temperature  is 662.14 K.

The  maximum cycle pressure is 189.69 kPa.

The Mean Effective Pressure (MEP) is 0.242 kJ and the net heat addition (Qin) is  1 kJ.

1. Calculate the maximum temperature after the constant volume heat addition process:

We have,

γ = 1.4 (specific heat ratio)

[tex]T_1[/tex] = 15 ºC + 273.15 = 288.15 K (initial temperature)

[tex]T_3[/tex]= 2000 ºC + 273.15 = 2273.15 K (maximum temperature)

Using the formula:

[tex]T_2[/tex]= T1  (V2/V1[tex])^{(\gamma-1)[/tex]

[tex]T_2[/tex]= 288.15 K  [tex]12^{(1.4-1)[/tex]

So, T2 = 288.15 K x [tex]12^{0.4[/tex]

[tex]T_2[/tex] ≈ 288.15 K * 2.2974

[tex]T_2[/tex]≈ 662.14 K

2. Calculate the maximum pressure after the compression process:

[tex]P_1[/tex] = 101 kPa (initial pressure)

[tex]V_1[/tex] = 1 (specific volume, assuming 0.01 kg of air)

Using the ideal gas law equation:

P = 101 kPa * (662.14 K / 288.15 K) * (1 / 12)

P ≈ 189.69 kPa

Therefore, the maximum cycle pressure is 189.69 kPa.

3. [tex]T_2[/tex]≈ 662.14 K

and, Qin = Qv * m

Qin = 100 kJ/kg * 0.01 kg

Qin = 1 kJ

So, Wc = m * Cv * (T2 - T1)

Wc ≈ 0.01 kg * 0.718 kJ/kg·K * 373.99 K

Wc ≈ 2.66 kJ

and, MEP = Wc / (r - 1)

MEP = 2.66 kJ / (12 - 1)

MEP ≈ 2.66 kJ / 11

MEP ≈ 0.242 kJ

Therefore, the Mean Effective Pressure (MEP) is 0.242 kJ and the net heat addition (Qin) is  1 kJ.

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