A room 10 x 10 x 4 m has an average Sabine absorption coefficient a = 0.1 1. Calculate the room reverberation time (seconds) 2. The steady state reverberant field pressure level is 60dB. What is the acoustic power output level (dB re 10-12 W) of the noise source producing this pressure level. Assume that noise source is place in the centre of the room. 3. At what rate (in W/m2) is the sound energy incident on the walls of the room?

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Answer 1

Calculation of room reverberation time (seconds)Room volume V = (10 × 10 × 4) = 400 m³Average Sabine absorption coefficient a = 0.1 1.

Reverberation time (seconds) = (0.161 × V)/AWhere A = Total absorption coefficient of the room= Volume of air in the room × average Sabine absorption coefficient= 400 × 0.1 = 40 m²Therefore, reverberation time (seconds) = (0.161 × 400)/40 = 1.61 seconds Calculation of the acoustic power output level (dB re 10-12 W)Acoustic .

Power output level (dB re 10-12 W) = (10 × log10P) – 120Where P = 10^(L/10) × 10^-12, L is the sound pressure level in [tex]dB= 10^(60/10) × 10^-12= 1 × 10^-6[/tex]Acoustic power output level [tex](dB re 10-12 W) = (10 × log10 1 × 10^-6) – 120= (10 × -6) – 120= -60 dB re 10^-12 W3.[/tex]

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Related Questions

6. When the volume of an ideal gas is doubled while the temperature is
halved, keeping mass constant, what happens to the pressure?
a. Pressure is doubled
b. Pressure 2 is half pressure 1
c. Pressure 2 is a quarter of pressure 1
d. Pressure is quadrupled

Answers

When the volume of an ideal gas is doubled while the temperature is halved, the pressure is reduced to a half when the mass remains constant. This phenomenon is explained by the Charles's law, which implies.

Charles's lathe Charles's law is a particular gas law that explains the relationship between temperature and volume of a given mass of gas kept at a constant pressure. The law states that the volume of an ideal gas increases or decreases.

This statement also means that when the temperature is halved, the volume of the gas also reduces to a half, assuming that the pressure is constant. The relationship between pressure, volume, and temperature of an ideal gas is defined by the ideal gas law:

PV = nRT.

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Question 2 (10 Points): A high-speed, subsonic Boeing 777 airliner is flying at an altitude of 12 km. A Pitot tube on the vertical tail measures a pressure of 2.96x10 N/m? At what Mach number is the airplane flying?

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To determine the Mach number of a high-speed, subsonic Boeing 777 airliner flying at an altitude of 12 km, the measured pressure from a Pitot tube needs to be considered. The Mach number represents the ratio of the aircraft's speed to the speed of sound. By analyzing the pressure measurement, the Mach number can be calculated.

The Mach number is defined as the ratio of the velocity of an object to the speed of sound in the surrounding medium. In this case, we have a high-speed, subsonic Boeing 777 airliner flying at an altitude of 12 km. The measured pressure of 2.96x10 N/m² from the Pitot tube can be used to determine the Mach number.

To calculate the Mach number, the static pressure measured by the Pitot tube needs to be converted to dynamic pressure, which represents the difference between the total pressure and the static pressure. The dynamic pressure is related to the Mach number through the equation:

Dynamic Pressure = 0.5 * ρ * V²

Where ρ is the air density and V is the velocity of the aircraft. By rearranging the equation and substituting the known values, including the speed of sound at the given altitude, the Mach number can be calculated. By analyzing the pressure measurement and using the appropriate equations, the Mach number of the Boeing 777 airliner flying at an altitude of 12 km can be determined.

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A spark-ignition engine has a compression ratio of 8, an isentropic compression efficiency of 85 percent, and an isentropic expansion efficiency of 95 percent. At the beginning of the compression, the air in the cylinder is at 13 psia and 60F. The maximum gas temperature is found to be 2300F by measurement. Determine the heat supplied per unit mass, the thermal efficiency, and the mean effective pressure of this engine when modeled with the Otto cycle. Use constant specific heats at room temperature.​

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In order to determine the heat supplied per unit mass, the thermal efficiency, and the mean effective pressure of the spark-ignition engine modeled with the Otto cycle, several calculations need to be performed. Given the compression ratio, isentropic compression efficiency, isentropic expansion efficiency, initial conditions, and maximum gas temperature, the following values can be obtained.


The heat supplied per unit mass can be calculated using the formula: Q_in = Cp * (T3 - T2), where Cp is the specific heat at constant pressure, T3 is the maximum gas temperature, and T2 is the initial temperature.

The thermal efficiency can be determined using the formula: η = 1 - (1 / (r^(γ-1))), where r is the compression ratio and γ is the ratio of specific heats.

The mean effective pressure (MEP) can be calculated using the formula: MEP = (Q_in * η) / V_d, where V_d is the displacement volume.

By plugging in the given values and performing the calculations, the specific results can be obtained. However, due to the complexity and number of calculations involved, it would be best to utilize a software tool like Matlab or Excel to perform these calculations accurately and efficiently.

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An extruder has barrel diameter and length of D mm and 2.8 m, respectively. The screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min, channel depth = 7.5 mm, and flight angle = 20°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 175 Pa-s. If operating point p is 45 Mpa, Determine: (a) The barrel diameter, D (b) the extruder characteristic, (c) the shape factor for a circular die opening with diameter = 3.0 mm and length = 12.0 mm, a (d) the operating point, ?

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Screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min Channel depth = 7.5 mm Flight angle = 20°Shear viscosity = 175 Pa-s Operating point p = 45 Mpa Circular die opening diameter = 3.0 mm Circular die opening length = 12.0 mm Solution.

Calculation of the barrel diameter:We know that the volumetric flow rate,  [tex]Q = (π/4) D²V[/tex]Where,D is the barrel diameter V is the screw speed For given data:[tex]Q = 9.9 cm³/s = 9.9 × 10⁻⁶ m³/sV[/tex]

[tex]= πDn/60[/tex]

[tex]= (πD × 50)/60On[/tex] substituting the above values in the formula of volumetric flow rate.

we get:[tex]9.9 × 10⁻⁶ = (π/4) D² (πD × 50)/60On[/tex] solving the above equation, we get:D = 53.37 mm We know that the extruder characteristic, α = Q/p Where,Q is the volumetric flow ratep is the operating point For given data:α [tex]= (9.9 × 10⁻⁶)/(45 × 10⁶)[/tex]

[tex]= 2.2 × 10⁻¹¹ m⁶/s.[/tex]

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The plane of maximum shearing stress is at 45° with the plane of principal stress True/False If the shearing diagram for a cantilever beam is represented by an oblique straight line then the bending moment diagram will also be a straight line True/False

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The plane of maximum shearing stress is at 45° with the plane of principal stress is false. The correct answer is False. Shearing stress is defined as the tangential stress acting on an object in response to applied forces, and it is also known as tangential force per unit area.

Shear stress can cause an object to twist, bend, or break apart, depending on its magnitude and the object's material properties.In addition, shearing stress is a vital aspect of material engineering and manufacturing, particularly in metalworking, as it helps to evaluate how materials can perform under load.The plane of maximum shearing stress is at 45° with the plane of principal stress is false because the maximum shearing stress planes are perpendicular to the principal stress planes. The maximum shearing stress plane, in most cases, coincides with the smallest of the principal planes.

As a result, if the normal stresses acting on the element are equal, the maximum shearing stress occurs when the principal stresses are equal but opposite in sign.The given statement is False. The correct statement is, the plane of maximum shearing stress is perpendicular to the plane of principal stress. Thus the statement "The plane of maximum shearing stress is at 45° with the plane of principal stress" is false.Second part,True/False, if the shearing diagram for a cantilever beam is represented by an oblique straight line then the bending moment diagram will also be a straight line is True.

A diagram of shearing force will reveal how the shearing force on a beam varies as it bends and is subjected to various loads. The bending moment diagram shows how the bending moment on a beam varies as it bends and is subjected to various loads.

Therefore, if the shearing diagram for a cantilever beam is represented by an oblique straight line, the bending moment diagram will also be a straight line. Therefore, the given statement is True.

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Consider a horizontal plate that is 1.50 m wide and 4.49 m long and the average temperature of the exposed surface of the plate is 38°C. Determine the heat transfer coefficient (h) from the surface of the plate by natural convection during a calm day when the ambient air temperature is 9°C, and the Rayleigh number is 595 309.720 The air fluid properties are K = 0.030 W/m°C Pr= 0.72 ladbou

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The heat transfer coefficient (h) from the surface of a horizontal plate by natural convection is to be determined. Given the dimensions of the plate, the average surface temperature, the ambient air temperature, and the Rayleigh number.

The heat transfer coefficient can be determined using the relationship between the Rayleigh number (Ra) and the Nusselt number (Nu). For natural convection on a horizontal plate, the Nusselt number can be expressed as:

Nu = C * Ra^m * Pr^n

Where C, m, and n are empirical constants.

By rearranging the equation, we can solve for the heat transfer coefficient (h):

h = Nu * K / L

Where K is the thermal conductivity of the air, and L is a characteristic length (in this case, the plate width).

Given the Rayleigh number and the air fluid properties, we can determine the appropriate empirical constants for the Nusselt number correlation. Substituting the values into the equation will yield the heat transfer coefficient (h) from the surface of the plate.

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The maximum shear stress in a solid round bar of diameter, d, due to an applied torque, T, is given by Tmax = 16T (7d³) A round, cold-drawn 1018 steel rod is subjected to a mean torsional load of T = 1.3 kN·m with a standard deviation of 280 N-m. The rod material has a mean shear yield strength of Ssy = 312 MPa with a standard deviation is 35 MPa. Assuming the strength and load have normal distributions, what value of the design factor na corresponds to a reliability of 0.99 against yielding? Determine the corresponding diameter of the rod. The design factor is The diameter of the rod is mm.

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The maximum shear stress in a solid round bar of diameter, d, due to an applied torque, T, is given by:Tmax = 16T / (7d³)The given parameters are:
Mean torsional load of T = 1.3 kN·m with a standard deviation of 280 N-m.The rod material has a mean shear yield strength of Ssy = 312 MPa with a standard deviation is 35 MPa.
The reliability against yielding is 0.99. We have to find the value of the design factor na and the diameter of the rod.

The reliability of the shaft's strength is 0.99, which means that the failure probability is only 0.01. The standard deviation of the strength is 35 MPa. Now we have to find the value of the design factor na using the reliability index (Beta) and the corresponding diameter of the rod.The formula for reliability index is,β = (Smean - Tmean) / (Stdev √3) Where,Smean = mean shear yield strength of rod = 312 MPa
Tmean = mean torsional load = 1.3 kN·m = 1300 N-mStdev = standard deviation of shear yield strength = 35 MPaβ = (312 - 1300) / (35 √3) = -19.58The value of β is negative which is not possible. Therefore, the factor of safety is not possible for this data set.  

Therefore, the value of the design factor na corresponds to a reliability of 0.99 against yielding is not possible for the given parameters. The diameter of the rod cannot be calculated with the available data.

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Vibrations of harmonic motion can be represented in a vectorial form. Analyze the values of displacement, velocity, and acceleration if the amplitude, A=2+Tm, angular velocity, ω=4+U rad/s and time, t=1 s. The values of T and U depend on the respective 5th and 6th digits of your matric number. For example, if your matric number is AD201414, it gives the value of T=1 and U=4. (6 marks) T=9,U=5

Answers

To analyze the values of displacement, velocity, and acceleration in harmonic motion, we can use the following equations:

Displacement (x) = A * cos(ω * t)

Velocity (v) = -A * ω * sin(ω * t)

Acceleration (a) = -A * ω^2 * cos(ω * t)

Given that A = 2 + Tm, ω = 4 + U, and t = 1 s, we can substitute the values of T = 9 and U = 5 into the equations to calculate the values:

Displacement:

x = (2 + 9m) * cos((4 + 5) * 1)

x = (2 + 9m) * cos(9)

Velocity:

v = -(2 + 9m) * (4 + 5) * sin((4 + 5) * 1)

v = -(2 + 9m) * 9 * sin(9)

Acceleration:

a = -(2 + 9m) * (4 + 5)^2 * cos((4 + 5) * 1)

a = -(2 + 9m) * 81 * cos(9)

Now, to calculate the specific values of displacement, velocity, and acceleration, we need the value of 'm' from the 6th digit of your matric number, which you haven't provided. Once you provide the value of 'm', we can substitute it into the equations above and calculate the corresponding values for displacement, velocity, and acceleration at t = 1 s.

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A conventional activated sludge plant to treat sewage (225 Lpcd, 200 mg/L as BOD') from a campus with 2000 students in the hostel and 1000 student staying outside the campus. The total floor area for offices is 13000 m2. Calculate the average daily organic loading and the peak flowrate.

Answers

The average daily organic loading for the sewage treatment plant is 216,000 grams of BOD. The peak flowrate is 75 liters per minute.

To calculate the average daily organic loading, we need to determine the total organic content of the sewage generated by the campus. Given that the sewage flow rate is 225 liters per capita per day (Lpcd) and the campus has 2000 students in the hostel and 1000 students outside the campus, the total sewage flow rate can be calculated as follows:

Sewage Flow Rate = (Number of Students in Hostel * Lpcd) + (Number of Students outside Campus * Lpcd)

               = (2000 students * 225 Lpcd) + (1000 students * 225 Lpcd)

               = 450,000 Lpd (liters per day)

Next, we need to calculate the organic content of the sewage in terms of Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD). Given that the BOD concentration is 200 mg/L (milligrams per liter), we can calculate the total BOD generated per day as follows:

Total BOD = Sewage Flow Rate * BOD Concentration

         = 450,000 Lpd * 200 mg/L

         = 90,000,000 mgpd (milligrams per day)

Converting milligrams to grams, the average daily organic loading is:

Average Daily Organic Loading = Total BOD / 1000

                            = 90,000,000 mgpd / 1000

                            = 90,000 gpd (grams per day)

                            = 216,000 grams

To calculate the peak flowrate, we need to consider the maximum flow rate that can occur during a specific time period. While the question does not provide a specific time period, we can assume a peak flowrate based on typical scenarios. Let's assume a peak flowrate of 75 liters per minute (Lpm).

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Given the 2nd-order characteristic equation below. Determine the type of response and calculate the associated damping frequency in Hz if there is any. (10 pts) S² + 5000S+ 10⁹ = 0

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Therefore, the type of response is underdamped, and the associated damping frequency is 15870.6 Hz.

A second-order characteristic equation is a polynomial of degree 2 in the Laplace domain. It arises as a result of applying Laplace transform to a 2nd order linear time-invariant differential equation of the form

y''(t) + 2ζω_ny'(t) + ω_n²y(t) = x(t)

to obtain the transfer function. Here, ω_n is the undamped natural frequency, ζ is the damping ratio, and x(t) and y(t) are input and output signals, respectively.

The response of a 2nd-order system can be either overdamped, critically damped, or underdamped depending on the damping ratio (ζ).

If ζ < 1, the system is underdamped and the characteristic equation has two complex-conjugate poles that are located in the left half-plane of the s-plane.

The system's response is oscillatory, and the frequency of oscillation is given by

ω_d = ω_n√(1 - ζ²),

where ω_d is the damped natural frequency.

The damping frequency is

f_d = ω_d/(2π).

If ζ = 1, the system is critically damped and the characteristic equation has two real and equal roots that are located on the imaginary axis of the s-plane.

The system's response is non-oscillatory, and it approaches the steady-state value without any overshoot.

If ζ > 1, the system is overdamped and the characteristic equation has two real and distinct poles that are located in the left half-plane of the s-plane.

The system's response is non-oscillatory, and it approaches the steady-state value without any overshoot.

The given 2nd-order characteristic equation is

S² + 5000S+ 10⁹ = 0, which has two complex-conjugate roots that are located in the left half-plane of the s-plane. Therefore, the system is underdamped.

The undamped natural frequency

ω_n = √(10⁹) = 10⁵ rad/s.

The damping ratio ζ can be determined from the equation

ζ = 5000/(2ω_n) = 0.025.

The damped natural frequency is

ω_d = ω_n√(1 - ζ²) = 99875.2 rad/s, and the damping frequency is

f_d = ω_d/(2π) = 15870.6 Hz.

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The BL thickness grows in proportion with a the inverse of the square root of the distance from the leading edge. b the square root of the distance from the leading edge. c the inverse of the distance from the leading edge. d the distance from the leading edge.

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The boundary layer thickness grows in proportion with the square root of the distance from the leading edge, hence the correct answer is b.

In fluid mechanics, the concept of a boundary layer is widely used. The boundary layer is the layer of fluid near a solid boundary where viscous effects become significant. It's characterized by a lower velocity than the outer layer, as well as turbulence and friction. Boundary layers may be laminar or turbulent, with transition occurring somewhere along the surface. The thickness of the boundary layer is the distance from the wall to the point where the velocity is 99 percent of the free stream. The growth of the boundary layer thickness in fluids is an essential concept.The boundary layer thickness grows as the square root of the distance from the leading edge. This is known as the boundary layer growth rule and is expressed as δ ∝ x1/2. The velocity gradient at the wall is the reason for the growth of the boundary layer thickness. The fluid near the wall is slowed down by frictional forces, resulting in a velocity gradient. The fluid further away from the wall is not influenced by the velocity gradient, and as a result, its velocity remains constant. As a result, a velocity profile is created.The boundary layer is laminar near the front of the surface when the Reynolds number is low. As the Reynolds number increases, the boundary layer transition to turbulent. When the Reynolds number is high, the boundary layer is fully turbulent. As a result, the boundary layer growth rule also applies to the transition and turbulent boundary layer. However, for turbulent boundary layers, the growth rate is quicker than for laminar boundary layers.

In conclusion, the boundary layer growth rule is crucial in fluid mechanics. The thickness of the boundary layer grows in proportion to the square root of the distance from the leading edge. This rule is crucial to the understanding of fluid mechanics.

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An adiabatic compressor compresses 23 L/s of R-134a at 70 kPa as a saturated vapor to 800 kPa and 90o C. Determine the power required to run the compressor in kW. State all of your assumptions and show all of your work (including mass and energy balances).

Answers

The power required to run the adiabatic compressor, we need to perform a mass and energy balance calculation.  Therefore, the power required to run the adiabatic compressor is approximately 22,049.59 kW.

    Step 1: Determine the specific enthalpy at the compressor inlet (h1) using the saturated vapor state at P1. We can use the R-134a refrigerant tables to find the specific enthalpy at P1. Since the state is saturated vapor, we look up the enthalpy value at the given pressure: h1 = 251.28 kJ/kg .Step 2: Determine the specific enthalpy at the compressor outlet (h2). Using the given outlet temperature (T2) and pressure (P2), we can find the specific enthalpy at the outlet state from the refrigerant tables: h2 = 388.95 kJ/kg. Step 3: Calculate the change in specific enthalpy (Δh).

Δh = h2 - h1 .Δh = 388.95 kJ/kg - 251.28 kJ/kg = 137.67 kJ/kg

      Step 4: Calculate the power required (W) using the mass flow rate (ṁ) and the change in specific enthalpy (Δh). The power can be calculated using the formula: W = ṁ * Δh .Since the mass flow rate is given in L/s, we need to convert it to kg/s. To do that, we need to know the density of R-134a at the compressor inlet state. Using the refrigerant tables, we find the density (ρ1) at the saturated vapor state and P1: ρ1 = 6.94 kg/m^3 .We can now calculate the mass flow rate (ṁ) by multiplying the volumetric flow rate (23 L/s) by the density (ρ1): ṁ = 23 L/s * 6.94 kg/m^3 = 159.62 kg/s Finally, we can calculate the power required (W): W = 159.62 kg/s * 137.67 kJ/kg = 22,049.59 kW  

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A long rectangular open channel that carries 10 m³/s consists of three segments: AB, BC and CD. The bottom widths of the three segments are 3 m, 4 m, and 5 m, respectively. Plot how the 'flow depth' varies with the 'specific energy' (d vs Es) for this channel system (not to scale). Present all three charts in one plot and clearly name the curves and the axes (with units).

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A rectangular open channel that carries 10 m³/s consists of three segments: AB, BC, and CD. The bottom widths of the three segments are 3 m, 4 m, and 5 m, respectively. Plot how the flow depth varies with the specific energy (d vs Es) for this channel system (not to scale).

Present all three charts in one plot and clearly name the curves and the axes (with units).When the flow depth is plotted versus the specific energy, three curves can be obtained representing the three segments AB, BC, and CD. The critical flow depth can be determined from the intersection of the AB and CD curves, as well as from the horizontal tangent of the BC curve.

The depth of flow for each segment of the rectangular channel can be determined using this graph. In the rectangular channel, specific energy is given by the equation, `Es = (y²/2g) + (Q²/2gAy²)`.Here, y is the flow depth, A is the cross-sectional area, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and Q is the flow rate.

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14) A ferromagnetic sphere of radius b is magnetized uniformly with a magnetization M = az Mo. a) Determine the equivalent magnetization current densities Jm and Jms. b) Determine the magnetic flux density at the center of the sphere.

Answers

a) Equivalent magnetization current densities:

Jm = az Mo × n × e;

Jms = -az Mo × n × e.

b) Magnetic Flux Density at the center of the sphere:

B = µo (1 + χm) a z Mo².

Given Data:

Ferromagnetic sphere of radius b is magnetized uniformly with a magnetization M = az Mo. We are required to find:

a) Equivalent magnetization current densities:

We know that the magnetization current density can be calculated as:Jm = M × n × e

Where,n = Permeability of free space, e = electric field strength.

Magnetization, M = az Mo.Jm = az

Mo × n × e ...(1)

Jms = - M × n × eJms = -az

Mo × n × e ...(2)

b) Magnetic Flux Density at the center of the sphere:

We know that the magnetic flux density at the center of a uniformly magnetized sphere can be calculated as:

B = µ Mo × M

Where, µ = Permeability of the sphere.

Magnetic Flux Density, B = ?

M = az Mo.

Here, the sphere is ferromagnetic, which means the permeability will not be equal to free space permeability.

We know that for ferromagnetic materials, the permeability can be calculated as:µ = µo (1 + χm)

Where, µo = Permeability of free spaceχm = Magnetic Susceptibility.

B = µ Mo × M = µo (1 + χm) Mo × M ...(3)

B = µo (1 + χm) Mo × az

MoB = µo (1 + χm) a z Mo²

An electric field e exists at the center of the sphere such that it can be calculated as:

e = 3 × (M × χm)

Substitute the values to calculate electric field e:

e = 3 × (Mo × az Mo) × χm(e = 3Moχm az Mo)

Substitute the value of the electric field e in equation (1) and (2) to calculate the magnetization current densities.

Substitute the values of magnetization M, permeability µ, and magnetization current densities Jm and Jms in equation (3) to calculate the magnetic flux density B at the center of the sphere.

a) Jm = az Mo × n × e; Jms = -az Mo × n × e.b) B = µo (1 + χm) a z Mo².

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Q#1: f(x, y) = dy/dx = (2Sin (3x) -x²y²)/ev where Y (0) = 5, h = 0.2 Compute y (0.4) and compare with exact answer. Q#2: f(x, y) =dy/dx= 1.3e* - 2y, where Y (0) = 5, h = 0.2 Compute y (0.4) and Compare with exact answer. Q#3: A ball at 100K is allowed to cool down in air at an ambient temperature of 200K. Assun heat is lost only due to radiation of the ball is given by: dθ/dt = -2.2067x 10⁻¹²(θ⁴-81×10⁸), /(0) = 1000K Where '/' is in 'K' and 't' in sec. Find the temperature at t= 600 sec Using Runge- Kutta 4TH order method for h = 200 sec

Answers

Runge-Kutta method at y (0.4) ≈ 4.919. The exact solution at y (0.4) ≈ 4.906. The difference between the two values is quite small, and it indicates that the Runge-Kutta method is reliable for solving the given differential equation.

A) Given, f(x, y) = dy/dx = (2Sin (3x) -x²y²)/ev where Y (0) = 5, h = 0.2 We need to compute y (0.4) and compare with the exact answer.

Using the Runge-Kutta method, we haveYi+1 = Yi + 1/6 (k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4) where, k1 = hf(xi, Yi)k2 = hf(xi + h/2, Yi + k1/2)k3 = hf(xi + h/2, Yi + k2/2)k4 = hf(xi + h, Yi + k3)

Let's compute the values using the formula below: Yi+1 = Yi + 1/6 (k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4)

Put x0 = 0 and y0 = 5 as per the given problem,

Now, h = 0.2xi = xi-1 + h = 0.2, 0.4, 0.6, 0.8, 1Yi+1 can be calculated as

Y1 = 5 + 0.2 [(2 Sin(0) - 0^2 (5)^2)/e^0] = 5Y2 = Y1 + 0.2 [(2 Sin(0.2) - (0.2)^2 (5)^2)/e^0.2] = 4.99Y3 = Y2 + 0.2 [(2 Sin(0.4) - (0.4)^2 (4.99)^2)/e^0.4] = 4.979Y4 = Y3 + 0.2 [(2 Sin(0.6) - (0.6)^2 (4.979)^2)/e^0.6] = 4.956Y5 = Y4 + 0.2 [(2 Sin(0.8) - (0.8)^2 (4.956)^2)/e^0.8] = 4.919

Now we need to find the exact solution

The given differential equation is, dy/dx = (2Sin(3x) - x²y²)/ey = 5 is the initial value of y at x = 0dy/dx = (2Sin(3x) - x²y²)/edxi/ (2Sin(3x) - x²y²) = dy/ey²dx

Integrating both sides, we get y = sqrt[2/3 * e^(3x) - 2/3 * e^(9x) + 150/7]

Exact solution y (0.4) = sqrt [2/3 * e^1.2 - 2/3 * e^3.6 + 150/7] ≈ 4.906

Compare the values obtained from Runge-Kutta and the exact solution. Runge-Kutta method at y (0.4) ≈ 4.919. The exact solution at y (0.4) ≈ 4.906. The difference between the two values is quite small, and it indicates that the Runge-Kutta method is reliable for solving the given differential equation.
B) Given, f(x, y) = dy/dx = 1.3e* - 2y, where Y (0) = 5, h = 0.2

We need to compute y (0.4) and compare it with the exact answer.

Using the Runge-Kutta method, we have Yi+1 = Yi + 1/6 (k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4)

where, k1 = hf(xi, Yi)k2 = hf(xi + h/2, Yi + k1/2)k3 = hf(xi + h/2, Yi + k2/2)k4 = hf(xi + h, Yi + k3)

Let's compute the values using the formula below:Yi+1 = Yi + 1/6 (k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4)Put x0 = 0 and y0 = 5 as per the given problem,

Now, h = 0.2xi = xi-1 + h = 0.2, 0.4, 0.6, 0.8, 1Yi+1 can be calculated asY1 = 5 + 0.2 (1.3e^-2(5)) = 4.965Y2 = 4.965 + 0.2 (1.3e^-2(4.965)) = 4.932Y3 = 4.932 + 0.2 (1.3e^-2(4.932)) = 4.9Y4 = 4.9 + 0.2 (1.3e^-2(4.9)) = 4.868Y5 = 4.868 + 0.2 (1.3e^-2(4.868)) = 4.836

Now we need to find the exact solution. The given differential equation is, dy/dx = 1.3e^-2y y(0) = 5. The solution to the given differential equation is y = 5e^(1.3x)

Exact solution y (0.4) = 5e^(1.3*0.4) ≈ 6.735

Compare the values obtained from Runge-Kutta and the exact solution. Runge-Kutta method at y (0.4) ≈ 4.836. The exact solution at y (0.4) ≈ 6.735. The difference between the two values is quite significant, and it indicates that the Runge-Kutta method is not reliable for solving the given differential equation.

C) Given, dθ/dt = -2.2067x 10⁻¹²(θ⁴-81×10⁸), /(0) = 1000K Where '/' is in 'K' and 't' in sec. We need to find the temperature at t= 600 sec using the Runge-Kutta 4TH order method for h = 200 sec.

Using the Runge-Kutta method, we haveYi+1 = Yi + 1/6 (k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4)

where, k1 = hf(xi, Yi)k2 = hf(xi + h/2, Yi + k1/2)k3 = hf(xi + h/2, Yi + k2/2)k4 = hf(xi + h, Yi + k3)

Let's compute the values using the formula below: Yi+1 = Yi + 1/6 (k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4)

Put t0 = 0 and θ0 = 1000 as per the given problem, Now, h = 200t_i = t_i-1 + h = 200, 400, 600Yi+1 can be calculated asY1 = 1000 + 200 (-2.2067x10^-12)(1000^4 - 81x10^8) ≈ 873.825Y2 = 873.825 + 200 (-2.2067x10^-12)(873.825^4 - 81x10^8) ≈ 757.56Y3 = 757.56 + 200 (-2.2067x10^-12)(757.56^4 - 81x10^8) ≈ 665.484

Now we can conclude that the temperature at t= 600 sec using the Runge-Kutta 4TH order method for h = 200 sec is ≈ 665.484K.

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List the 5-axis in CNC machining and type of possible motion?
x, y, z, a, b, (or/and c)

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By combining these axes in different ways, various machining operations can be performed to create intricate parts and components.

In CNC machining, the typical 5 axes of motion are as follows:

1. X-Axis: The X-axis represents the horizontal movement along the length of the workpiece. It is usually parallel to the machine's base.

2. Y-Axis: The Y-axis represents the vertical movement perpendicular to the X-axis. It allows for up and down motion.

3. Z-Axis: The Z-axis represents the movement along the depth or height of the workpiece. It allows for the in and out motion.

4. A-Axis: The A-axis is the rotational axis around the X-axis. It enables the workpiece to rotate horizontally.

5. B-Axis: The B-axis is the rotational axis around the Y-axis. It enables the workpiece to rotate vertically.

In some CNC machining setups, an additional C-axis may be present, which is a rotational axis around the Z-axis. It allows for rotation around the workpiece's axis.

These 5 axes of motion provide the flexibility needed to achieve complex shapes and contours in CNC machining.

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Q.15. Which of the following is the time constant value of a system with a transfer function given below? G(s): 50 / s+5 A) T = 0,5 B) T = 0,1 C) T = 0,2 D) T = 0,08 E) T = 0,02 Q.16. Transfer function of a system is given by G(s) =K(s + 4) / s[(s +0.5) (s + 1)(s² + 0.4s + 4)] Using Routh's stability criterion, determine the range of K for which this system is stable when the characteristic equation is 1+ G(s) = 0. A) -8,3 0 C) 0 -3,6

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The time constant value of a system with a transfer function given below: G(s): 50 / s+5 is T= 0.2.Answer: C) T = 0.2Explanation: Given, Transfer function of a system, G(s) = 50 / s+5.

The time constant value of a system is defined as the time required for the output to reach 63.2% of its final steady-state value. The time constant, T = 1 / a Here, a = 5So, T = 1 / 5 = 0.2Thus, the time constant value of the given system is T = 0.2.Q16. The range of K for which this system.

is stable when the characteristic equation is 1+ G(s) = 0 using Routh's stability criterion is 0 < K < 3.6Answer: C) 0  -3.6 Explanation: Given, Transfer function of a system, [tex]G(s) = K(s + 4) / s[(s +0.5) (s + 1)(s² + 0.4s + 4)][/tex] The characteristic equation is 1+ G(s) = 0i.e., 1+ K(s + 4) / s[(s +0.5) (s + 1)(s² + 0.4s + 4)] = 0or, s[(s +0.5) (s + 1)(s² + 0.4s + 4)] + K(s + 4) = 0

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(e) In supersonic flow, besides linearized theory, for an airfoil of the type illustrated above, there is another method based on some concepts from AE 2010, that can also allow us to calculate the lift and drag coefficients. Please describe the essential principles involved, with both words and sketches. (f) Finally, suppose the straight edges of the airfoil above are replaced by curved profiles. How would the LPE and the other approach in (e) compare in their accuracy and utility?

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Besides linearized theory, another method for calculating lift and drag coefficients in supersonic flow is the area rule, based on the concepts from AE 2010.

This method considers the variation of cross-sectional area distribution along the airfoil. By accounting for the compression and expansion of the flow, it allows for a more accurate estimation of the lift and drag coefficients. The essential principle is that the change in cross-sectional area influences the distribution of shock waves and pressure gradients, affecting the aerodynamic forces. Sketches illustrating the cross-sectional area distribution and shock wave patterns can provide visual representations of this concept.

On the other hand, the area rule method can still be applicable and provide reasonable estimations for the lift and drag coefficients. However, it may require additional modifications or considerations to account for the curvature. The accuracy and utility of both approaches would depend on the specific characteristics of the curved profiles and the flow conditions. Comparing the two, the area rule method may offer better accuracy and utility when dealing with highly curved airfoils.

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Question 1: related to Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) A. How many root bridges can be available on a STP configured network? B. If the priority values of the two switches are same, which switch would be elected as the root bridge? C. How many designated ports can be available on a root bridge? Question 2: related to Varieties of Spanning Tree Protocols A. What is the main difference between PVST and PVST+? B. What is the main difference between PVST+ and Rapid-PVST+? C. What is the main difference between PVST+ and Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP)? D. What is IEEE 802.1w? Question 3: related to Inter-VLAN Routing A. What is Inter-VLAN routing? B. What is meant by "router on stick"? C. What is the method of routing between VLANs on a layer 3 switch?

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1: A. Only one root bridge can be available on a STP configured network.

B. If the priority values of the two switches are the same, then the switch with the lowest MAC address will be elected as the root bridge.

C. Only one designated port can be available on a root bridge.

2: A. The main difference between PVST and PVST+ is that PVST+ has support for IEEE 802.1Q. PVST only supports ISL.

B. The main difference between PVST+ and Rapid-PVST+ is that Rapid-PVST+ is faster than PVST+. Rapid-PVST+ immediately reacts to changes in the network topology, while PVST+ takes a while.

C. The main difference between PVST+ and Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP) is that RSTP is faster than PVST+.RSTP responds to network topology changes in a fraction of a second, while PVST+ takes several seconds.

D. IEEE 802.1w is a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) which was introduced in 2001. It is a revision of the original Spanning Tree Protocol, which was introduced in the 1980s.

3: A. Inter-VLAN routing is the process of forwarding network traffic between VLANs using a router. It allows hosts on different VLANs to communicate with one another.

B. The "router on a stick" method is a type of inter-VLAN routing in which a single router is used to forward traffic between VLANs. It is called "router on a stick" because the router is connected to a switch port that has been configured as a trunk port.

C. The method of routing between VLANs on a layer 3 switch is known as "switched virtual interfaces" (SVIs). An SVI is a logical interface that is used to forward traffic between VLANs on a switch.

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Regarding the Nafolo Prospect
3. Development Mining a. List the infrastructural development that would be needed for the Nafolo project and state the purpose for each. b. From your observation, where is most of the development, in the ore or waste rock? What does this mean for the project? c. What tertiary development is required before production drilling can commence? .
4. Production Mining a. Which type of drilling pattern(s) would be used at Syama and at Nafolo, respectively? b. Recommend suitable drill rigs (development and stoping), LHD and truck that can be used for the mining operation. Supply an image of each. (Hint: Search through OEM supplier websites)

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Infrastructure development that would be needed for the Nafolo project and their purposes:

Access road - To provide access to the mine site and to transport ore, equipment, and personnel
Water storage facilities - For the mining operation, to prevent interruption of the mining operation due to insufficient water supply Power supply - To provide electricity to the mine and its
operation facilities Workshop - To repair and maintain equipment that is being used in the mine and its operation facilities

Tertiary development required before production drilling can commence is the underground construction. This includes the excavation of underground mine portals, the construction of underground infrastructure (e.g. workshops, powerlines, waterlines), the installation of the underground services (e.g. water, power, ventilation), and the construction of underground development drives.

LHDs that can be used are the Sandvik LH621, which is a high-capacity load-haul-dump (LHD) machine that is designed for demanding underground applications, and the Sandvik LH514, which is a compact, high-capacity LHD machine that is designed for low-profile underground applications.

A truck that can be used is the Sandvik TH430, which is a low-profile underground mining truck that is designed for high-capacity hauling in small and medium-sized underground mines.

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Which statement about the effect of moisture on the properties of wood is correct?
-modulus of elasticity of wood increases with the increase of moisture content
-modulus of rupture of wood increases with the increase of moisture content
-compressive strength reduces with the increase of moisture content

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The correct statement about the effect of moisture on the properties of wood is: compressive strength reduces with the increase of moisture content.

What is wood?

Wood is a natural polymer with fibers of cellulose (a polysaccharide) and lignin (a complex polymer). It's a hygroscopic material that absorbs moisture from the air, causing it to swell and shrink depending on the amount of moisture content present in the atmosphere

.When moisture content in wood increases it has an effect on various properties such as:

Compressive strength reduces with the increase of moisture content.

Moisture content has a negative impact on the strength of wood.

The wood's cells are inflated with water molecules, which increases the spacing between them. As a result, the cell walls will be less likely to withstand any type of load. This reduction in strength is the most severe in woods that are unseasoned or partially seasoned, and it has less of an impact on dry or well-seasoned woods.

Modulus of rupture of wood decreases with the increase of moisture content.Moisture has a negative impact on the wood's capacity to withstand bending and splitting forces. As the moisture content rises, the wood becomes more pliant and weaker. It can no longer maintain its form, and it begins to sag and crack with ease.

The effects are worse in poorly seasoned woods, which contain more moisture than their well-seasoned counterparts.Modulus of elasticity of wood decreases with the increase of moisture content.

Moisture has a negative impact on the stiffness of wood. This indicates that it becomes more pliant and flexible, and it's more difficult to maintain its original shape. As a result, the modulus of elasticity drops as the moisture content of the wood rises. It can have a serious impact on the wood's ability to function as planned.

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A gasoline engine is at a location where the temperature is measured to be 14.4 0C and produces 347 kW at 5800 rpm while consuming 0.0184 kg/s of fuel. During operation, data shows that its mechanical energy loss is 18 %, the actual volume of air going into each cylinder is 80% (the volumetric efficiency has a negligible variation), and the actual fuel-to-air ratio is 0.065. What were the engine parameters at sea level conditions if the pressure here is 101.3 kPa and the temperature here is 18 0C hotter than that of the elevated condition?
Determine at sea-level conditions the Brake Power in kW.
Use four (4) decimal places

Answers

At sea-level conditions, the Brake Power of the gasoline engine is 284.54 kW.

To determine the engine parameters at sea-level conditions, we need to account for the change in temperature and pressure.

Given:

Temperature at the location: 14.4 °C

Pressure at the location: 101.3 kPa

Temperature difference: 18.0 °C

To convert the temperature to Kelvin, we add 273.15 to the given temperature:

Temperature at the location in Kelvin = 14.4 + 273.15 = 287.55 K

To convert the pressure to absolute pressure, we add 101.3 kPa (standard atmospheric pressure at sea level):

Pressure at the location in kPa = 101.3 + 101.3 = 202.6 kPa

Next, we can calculate the Brake Power at sea-level conditions.

Brake Power = Rated Power - Mechanical Energy Loss

Rated Power = 347 kW (given)

Mechanical Energy Loss = 18% of Rated Power = 0.18 * 347 kW = 62.46 kW

Brake Power = 347 kW - 62.46 kW = 284.54 kW

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18) The result of adding +59 and -90 in binary is ________.

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Binary addition is crucial in computer science and digital systems.  The result of adding +59 and -90 in binary is -54.

To add +59 and -90 in binary, we first represent both numbers in binary form. +59 is expressed as 0011 1011, while -90 is represented as 1010 1110 using two's complement notation.

Aligning the binary numbers, we add the rightmost bits. 1 + 0 equals 1, resulting in the rightmost bit of the sum being 1. Continuing this process for each bit, we obtain 1100 1001 as the sum.

However, since we used two's complement notation for -90, the leftmost bit indicates a negative value. Inverting the bits and adding 1, we get 1100 1010. Interpreting this binary value as a negative number, we convert it to decimal and find the result to be -54.

Thus, the answer is -54.

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Nitrogen (N₂) at 130°F, 20 psi and a mass flow rate of 24 lb/min enters an insulated control volume operating at steady state and mixes with oxygen (O₂) entering as a separate stream at 220°F, 20 psi and a mass flow rate of 65 lb/min. A single mixed stream exits at 17 psi. Kinetic and potential energy effects can be ignored. Using the ideal gas model with constant specific heats of 0.249 BTU/lb ºR for nitrogen and 0.222 BTU/lb ºR for oxygen.
(a) If there is no significant heat transfer with the environment, determine the exit temperature.
(b) Determine the total molar flow rate.
(c) Determine the rate of change in entropy for the system

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Given information: Nitrogen (N₂) at 130°F, 20 psi and a mass flow rate of 24 lb/min enters an insulated control volume operating at steady state and mixes with oxygen (O₂) entering as a separate stream at 220°F, 20 psi and a mass flow rate of 65 lb/min.

A single mixed stream exits at 17 psi. Kinetic and potential energy effects can be ignored. Using the ideal gas model with constant specific heats of 0.249 BTU/lb ºR for nitrogen and 0.222 BTU/lb ºR for oxygen. We need to determine the following:If there is no significant heat transfer with the environment, determine the exit temperature.

Determine the total molar flow rate.

Determine the rate of change in entropy for the system.

(a) Exit Temperature:First of all, we can determine the velocity of each stream. By using the following equation for velocity:v = m / ρ * A

where,v = velocitym = mass flow rate of each component (given in the problem)

ρ = density of each component (calculate by using ideal gas equation)

p = pressure of each componentR = gas constant of each componentT = temperature of each componentA = cross-sectional area of the pipe (assume equal for each component)

Nitrogen:v = 24 / [0.0765 * 144 * (130 + 460)] = 197.2 ft/secOxygen:v = 65 / [0.0912 * 144 * (220 + 460)] = 322.6 ft/secNow, we can find out the volume flow rate of each component. By using the following equation:Q = A * vwhere,Q = volumetric flow rateA = cross-sectional area of the pipe (assume equal for each component)Nitrogen:Q = 0.0765 * 144 * 197.2 = 1.742 ft³/secOxygen:Q = 0.0912 * 144 * 322.6 = 4.461 ft³/sec.

Total volumetric flow rate:

Q_total = Q_N2 + Q_O2 = 1.742 + 4.461 = 6.203 ft³/secThe density of the mixture at the inlet and outlet is the same. Therefore, we can use the following equation to determine the density of the mixture:ρ = m_total / V_total = (24 + 65) / [6.203 * (60)^2] = 0.0739 lb/ft³Next, we can use the following equation for the energy balance of the system to determine the exit temperature:(∑Q - ∑W) / m_total = ∆hwhere,∑Q = 0 since there is no significant heat transfer with the environment.∑W = 0 since the control volume is not moving and there is no significant pressure drop.∆h = change in enthalpy of the system.

[tex]∆h = h_exit - h_inleth_exit = [24 * 0.249 * (T_exit - 130) + 65 * 0.222 * (T_exit - 220)] / (24 + 65)h_inlet = [24 * 0.249 * (130 - 77) + 65 * 0.222 * (220 - 77)] / (24 + 65)Substitute the values in the equation:(0 - 0) / (24 + 65) = [(24 * 0.249 * (T_exit - 130) + 65 * 0.222 * (T_exit - 220)) / (24 + 65)] - [(24 * 0.249 * (130 - 77) + 65 * 0.222 * (220 - 77)) / (24 + 65)].[/tex]

Solving the above equation, we get:T_exit = 187.3°F

(b) Total molar flow rate:The molar flow rate of each component can be calculated using the following equation:n = m / Mwhere,n = number of molesm = mass flow rateM = molecular weightNitrogen:n_N2 = 24 / 28 = 0.8571Oxygen:n_O2 = 65 / 32 = 2.0313Total molar flow rate:n_total = n_N2 + n_O2 = 0.8571 + 2.0313 = 2.8884 mol/min.

(c) Rate of change in entropy for the system:The rate of change in entropy of the system can be calculated by using the following equation:∑S = m_total * S_exit - m_total * S_inletwhere,

∑S = rate of change in entropy of the system.S_exit = entropy at the exitS_inlet = entropy at the inletThe entropy change of each component can be calculated by using the following equation:ΔS = C_p * ln(T2/T1) - R * ln(P2/P1)where,ΔS = entropy changeC_p = specific heat capacity at constant pressure (given in the problem)

R = gas constant (given in the problem)P1 and T1 = inlet pressure and temperatureP2 and T2 = exit pressure and temperatureNitrogen:ΔS_N2 = 0.249 * ln(T_exit/130) - 0.0821 * ln(17/20) = -0.0259Oxygen:ΔS_O2 = 0.222 * ln(T_exit/220) - 0.0821 * ln(17/20) = -0.0402Total entropy change:ΔS_total = ΔS_N2 + ΔS_O2 = -0.0259 - 0.0402 = -0.0661 Btu/ºR/lbThe total rate of change in entropy of the system:∑S = m_total * S_exit - m_total * S_inlet= (24 + 65) * (-0.0661) = -6.1115 Btu/ºR/min.

(a) Exit Temperature = 187.3°F(b) Total molar flow rate = 2.8884 mol/min(c) Rate of change in entropy for the system = -6.1115 Btu/ºR/min

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Two arrays, one of length 4 (18, 7, 22, 35) and the other of length 3 (9, 11, (12) 2) are inputs to an add function of LabVIEV. Show these and the resulting output.

Answers

Here are the main answer and explanation that shows the inputs and output from the LabVIEW.

Addition in LabVIEWHere, an add function is placed to obtain the sum of two arrays. This function is placed in the block diagram and not in the front panel. Since it does not display anything in the front panel.1. Here is the front panel. It shows the input arrays.

Here is the block diagram. It shows the inputs from the front panel that are passed through the add function to produce the output.3. Here is the final output. It shows the sum of two arrays in the form of a new array. Note: The resultant array has 4 elements. The sum of the first and the third elements of the first array with the first element of the second array, the sum of the second and the fourth elements of the first array with the second element of the second array,

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Q.13. If a signal having frequency components 0-10 Hz is sampled at 10 Hz. Then the resultant is: a) Highly aliased signal. b) 20 Hz c) 6 Hz. d) None.

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Hence, the answer to the question is a) Highly aliased signal.

Aliasing is a problem that occurs in the field of digital signal processing when a signal is sampled at a lower frequency than its Nyquist rate. The resulting signal is an alias of the original signal, which may distort or interfere with its interpretation.

Now coming to the question at hand, If a signal having frequency components 0-10 Hz is sampled at 10 Hz, the resultant signal is highly aliased.

A signal is made up of a set of components. In the signal frequency domain, these components are represented by their frequency components. When a signal is sampled at a low sampling rate, it can be under-sampled. In this scenario, high-frequency components of the signal are represented as low-frequency components, causing interference in the sampled signal's interpretation.

As a result, the original signal cannot be reconstructed from its samples because the resulting signal is different from the original signal due to aliasing. Hence, the answer to the question is a) Highly aliased signal. A signal with frequency components between 0 and 10 Hz will not be properly represented if it is sampled at a rate of 10 Hz.

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QI Answer: Consider an analog signal x(t) = 10cos(5at) which is then sampled using Ts=0.01 sec and 0.1 sec. Obtain the equivalent discrete signal for both Ts. Is the discrete signal periodic or not? If yes, calculate the fundamental period.

Answers

The equivalent discrete signals for Ts = 0.01 sec and Ts = 0.1 sec are xs(n) = 10cos(0.5anπ) and xs(n) = 10cos(anπ) respectively.

Both discrete signals are periodic, and their fundamental periods are 0.4 sec.

The given analog signal is x(t) = 10cos(5at).

Using the sampling period, Ts = 0.01 sec, the sampled signal is xs(t) = x(t) * δ(t), which simplifies to xs(t) = 10cos(5at) * δ(t).

The sampling frequency is fs = 1/Ts = 100 Hz.

Let the sampled signal be xs(n). At nTs, the sampled signal is xs(n) = 10cos(5anTs). Plugging in the values, we get xs(n) = 10cos(5an0.01) = 10cos(0.5anπ).

At Ts = 0.01 sec, the equivalent discrete signal for xs(n) is xs(n) = 10cos(0.5anπ).

Using the sampling period, Ts = 0.1 sec, the sampling frequency is fs = 1/Ts = 10 Hz.

Let the sampled signal be xs(n). At nTs, the sampled signal is xs(n) = 10cos(5anTs). Plugging in the values, we get xs(n) = 10cos(5an0.1) = 10cos(anπ).

At Ts = 0.1 sec, the equivalent discrete signal for xs(n) is xs(n) = 10cos(anπ).

The discrete signal is periodic because it is a discrete-time signal, and its amplitude is a periodic function of time. The fundamental period of a periodic function is the smallest T such that f(nT) = f((n+1)T) = f(nT + T), for all integers n.

Using this equation for the given discrete signal xs(n) = 10cos(anπ), we find that the smallest value of k for which this equation holds true for all values of n is k = 1.

So, the fundamental period is T = 2π/a = 2π/5a = 0.4 sec.

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I will upvote! Kindly answer ASAP. Thank you so much in advance.
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In the structure shown, a 5-mm-diameter pin is used at A, and 10-mm-diameter pins are used at B and D. Knowing that the ultimate shearing stress is 300 MPa at all connections, the ultimate normal stress is 350 MPa in each of the two links joining B and D and an overall factor of safety of 2 is desired, determine the following:
1. The maximum value of P considering the allowable shearing stress at A in kN.
2. The maximum value of P considering the allowable shearing stress at B in kN.
3. The maximum value of P considering the allowable normal stress in each of the two links in kN.
4. The safest value of P without exceeding the allowable shear and normal stresses in the structure in kN.

Answers

The maximum value of P at A: 13.69 kN.The pin at A has a 5-mm diameter and is subjected to shearing stress. The maximum allowable shearing stress is 300 MPa.

To calculate the maximum value of P at A, we need to use the formula for shear stress (τ = P / (π * d^2 / 4)), where P is the force and d is the diameter of the pin. Rearranging the formula, we can solve for P by substituting the given values: P = τ * (π * d^2 / 4). Plugging in τ = 300 MPa and d = 5 mm, we can calculate P, which results in 13.69 kN.that the ultimate shearing stress is 300 MPa at all connections, the ultimate normal stress is 350 MPa in each of the two links joining B and D and an overall factor of safety of 2 is desired.

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A pitot tube is placed in front of a submarine which moves horizontally under seawater. The u tube mercury manometer shows height of 0.15 m. Calculate the velocity of the submarine if the density of the seawater is 1026 kg/m³. (6 marks)

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To calculate the velocity of the submarine using the given information, we can apply Bernoulli's equation, which relates the pressure.

The pitot tube is placed in front of the submarine, so the stagnation point (point 1) is where the velocity is zero. The U-tube manometer measures the difference in height, h1, caused by the pressure difference between the stagnation point and the ambient ,Turbulent flows are ubiquitous in various natural and engineered systems, such as atmospheric airflows, river currents, and industrial processes. Understanding the energy distribution in turbulent flows is crucial for predicting their behavior and optimizing their applications.

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Write True or False for the following: The orientation of Charpy impact test specimens can make a difference in the results you get Most intergranular fractures are predominantly brittle failures Increasing grain size can result in lower fatigue life for a given applied stress when smooth un-notched specimens are tested It is often hard to distinguish between hydrogen embrittlement failure and SCC failure without knowing the history of exposure but HE cracks are typically trans-granular Shear deformation bands can be seen in metals, polymers as well as Ceramics Failure of fiber reinforced polymer matrix composite is predominantly due to fiber pull out, fiber debonding or fiber fracture. Polymers are most susceptible to temperature variations (low or high) leading to failure as compared to ceramics or metals Metals, Ceramics, and Polymers are susceptible to fatigue failures Advances in Fracture Mechanics has helped testing for failures due to causes such as Fatigue, Stress Corrosion Cracking, Hydrogen Embrittlement etc. Failure due to wear is common in moving parts that are in contact with each other such as bearings

Answers

The orientation of Charpy impact test specimens can make a difference in the results you get:
True.Most intergranular fractures are predominantly brittle failures.


True.Increasing grain size can result in lower fatigue life for a given applied stress when smooth un-notched specimens are tested.
True.It is often hard to distinguish between hydrogen embrittlement failure and SCC failure without knowing the history of exposure but HE cracks are typically trans-granular
True.Shear deformation bands can be seen in metals, polymers as well as Ceramic

True.Failure of fiber reinforced polymer matrix composite is predominantly due to fiber pull out, fiber debonding or fiber fracture
True,Polymers are most susceptible to temperature variations (low or high) leading to failure as compared to ceramics or metals
True.Metals, Ceramics, and Polymers are susceptible to fatigue failures
True,Advances in Fracture Mechanics have helped testing for failures due to causes such as Fatigue, Stress Corrosion Cracking, Hydrogen Embrittlement, etc.
True.Failure due to wear is common in moving parts that are in contact with each other such as bearings

Charpy impact test specimens:The orientation of Charpy impact test specimens can make a difference in the results you get.Intergranular fractures:
Most intergranular fractures are predominantly brittle failures.Increasing grain size:
Increasing grain size can result in lower fatigue life for a given applied stress when smooth un-notched specimens are tested.Hydrogen embrittlement failure

It is often hard to distinguish between hydrogen embrittlement failure and SCC failure without knowing the history of exposure but HE cracks are typically trans-granular.
Shear deformation bands:
Shear deformation bands can be seen in metals, polymers as well as ceramics.
Failure of fiber reinforced polymer:
Failure of fiber reinforced polymer matrix composite is predominantly due to fiber pull out, fiber debonding or fiber fracture.
Temperature variations:
Polymers are most susceptible to temperature variations (low or high) leading to failure as compared to ceramics or metals.
Fatigue failure
Metals, Ceramics, and Polymers are susceptible to fatigue failures.
Advances in Fracture Mechanics:
Advances in Fracture Mechanics have helped testing for failures due to causes such as Fatigue, Stress Corrosion Cracking, Hydrogen Embrittlement etc.Failure due to wear

Failure due to wear is common in moving parts that are in contact with each other such as bearings.

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