Teach that the increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds,The upper respiratory tract was impacted by the edema and hyperemia that follow capillary engorgement, which are symptoms that are frequently observed during pregnancy.A referral is not required.The patient does not require lab work or to be connected to a heart monitor.The patient needs to be made aware that estrogen, not progesterone, is what causes these alterations.
Why folate during and before pregnancy?Before becoming pregnant and up until you are 12 weeks along, it is crucial to take a 400 microgram folic acid tablet every day.Spina bifida and other neural tube problems, such as birth defects, can be prevented with folic acid.
What fruit is beneficial during pregnancy?This includes berries like raspberries, strawberries, blueberries, and just about any other berry you can think of! Berries are a great source of antioxidants, which can protect both mother and fetus from dangerous ailments.
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cpco which screening exam does not require an order, in any setting, but frequently is still requested by the radiology center? a. mammogram b. mri c. lab work d. ct scan
In any situation, a cpco screening exam is not required; yet, the radiology center ct scan commonly requests one nonetheless.
How lengthy is an abdominal CT scan?It will take the test between 30 and 60 minutes getting ready for the scan takes up much of this time.
What organs can be detected on an abdomen-contrast CT scan?The liver, spleen, kidneys, bladder, stomach, intestines, pancreas, adrenal glands, blood vessels, and lymph nodes are all photographed during an abdominal CT scan using a specialized X-ray scanner.
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juanita, who is 85, drives every morning to baby-sit her great-granddaughter, allowing her granddaughter, evelyn, to work full-time. juanita's neighbor, sandra, is 65 and suffering from dementia so her children are preparing to put her in a nursing home. both juanita and sandra are examples that
Both Juanita and Sandra are examples of that how society should avoid using chronological age divisions because people have functional ages.
What are functional age and chronological age?The major descriptor of aging is chronological age. The term "chronological age" refers to one's calendar age, and it is significantly associated with decreased work ability and early retirement. Functional age is a concept that holds that a metric other than chronological age can better reflect one's position in the aging process. The term "functional age" refers to a worker's performance and acknowledges that individuals' abilities and functioning vary with age.
What is an example of functional age and chronological age?Chronological age and functional age are related, but age had no impact on whether a person had a chronic health condition. According to a study, workers who were older in terms of their chronological age, particularly those between the ages of 50 and 59, had more age-related issues, fewer opportunities to continue working, and frequently reported needing more support to continue working in the future. The work ability scores also dropped with age. Workplace obstacles encountered had nothing to do with chronological age. The findings of this study may indicate that employers can take much more proactive steps to support older workers in maintaining a productive working life.
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the nurse is taking the history of a client with diabetes who is experiencing autonomic neuropathy. which would the nurse expect the client to report?
Vital signs, funduscopic examination, restricted vascular and neurologic tests, and a foot evaluation are all part of a diabetes-focused examination. Other organ systems should be evaluated as suggested by the clinical state of the patient.
What effects does diabetes have on the nerve system?High blood sugar affects your nerves, causing them to cease delivering messages to various regions of your body. Nerve injury can result in a variety of health issues ranging from slight numbness to excruciating pain that makes regular tasks difficult. Nerve injury affects half of all diabetics.
Diabetes-related autonomic neuropathy (DAN) is a prevalent and devastating kind of neuropathy. DAN may be found in the majority of diabetic patients using neurophysiologic testing, although it is classed as subclinical based on the presence or absence of symptoms.
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a client being treated for a peptic ulcer seeks medical attention for vomiting blood. which statement indicates to the nurse the reason for the client developing hematemesis?
The symptoms of bleeding peptic ulcers might include abrupt, large upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage that is accompanied by hematemesis, melena, or rectal bleeding, as well as chronic, low-grade hemorrhage that is accompanied by guaiac-positive stool or iron deficiency anemia.
Which statement regarding the development of peptic ulcers is true?C. "Acid damages stomach mucosa that is not shielded, causing peptic ulcers. Because of this, pepsin is released, which prompts the parietal cells to release more pepsinogen and further erode the stomach lining.
What are the reasons for undergoing surgery for a bleeding peptic ulcer?One of the reasons for surgery in peptic ulcers that are bleeding is the failure of first endoscopic hemostasis procedures. Approximately 15-20% of patients will develop rebleeding from their ulcer despite the high success rates of initial endoscopic hemostasis.
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a client has experienced a stroke affecting the reticular formation of the medulla and lower pons. the nurse tells the client's wife that care must be taken with eating to prevent:
The nurse warns the client's wife that aspiration pneumonia must be avoided when eating.
Please check all that apply. Which of the following would be regarded the role of the gastrointestinal tract's secretory glands?The mucosal layer of the GI tract wall is lubricated and protected by mucus, which is produced by the secretory glands. True statement: The mucosal layer of the GI tract wall is lubricated and protected by mucus, which is produced by the secretory glands.
The lower GI tract contains which anatomical structures?The anus and the large intestine make up the lower GI tract. Stool exits your body through a 1-inch orifice at the end of your digestive system called the anus.
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a 61-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of feeling like she was spinning for 1 week. she states the episodes are brief; however, they occur 2 - 3 times per day. it is worse when she turns to her right side while lying in bed. even when she is not dizzy, she feels off balance. she denies tinnitus, decreased hearing, fever, syncope, nausea, vomiting, diplopia, or any other related symptoms. during the dix-hallpike maneuver, the patient exhibits nystagmus, with her eyes beating upward and torsionally when the right ear is turned downward. the nystagmus diminished with each time the maneuver was performed. question: based on the above description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Benign It is highly likely that you have paroxysmal positional vertigo.
Who or what do "they themselves" mean?The word "patient" in English is derived from the Latin word "patiens," which meant to endure or suffer with. This idiom refers to a patient who is exceedingly compliant, endures the necessary suffering, and accepts the interventions of the outside expert.
Exactly what is a patient person?We have the chance to develop patience as it necessitates learning how to wait patiently in the face of discomfort or adversity, which are present almost everywhere. Perhaps, though, patience is the key to a happy existence.
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a patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. his head and chin are thrust forward. this position indicates that he:
A patient is seated in a chair and leans forward with his arms extended. He leans forward with his chin and head. He appears to be in this position because of abdominal muscular contractions.
Which of the following irregular breath sounds is indicative of upper airway obstruction?Stridor, a high-pitched, turbulent sound that can be made when a youngster inhales or exhales, is less melodic than a wheeze. Stridor typically denotes a blockage or narrowing of the upper airway, which is external to the chest cavity.
What is a sign of a patent airway in your patient?The presence or absence of obstructive symptoms (stridor, secretions, snoring, etc.) or signs of a potentially blocked airway (singed nasal/facial hair, carbonaceous sputum, stab to the neck with risk of expanding hematoma) are used to determine the patency of a patient.
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in a client with a dislocation, the nurse should initially perform neurovascular assessments a minimum of every 15 minutes until stable. which complication does the assessments help the nurse to monitor in the client?
Storage-related disorder, A patient with a dislocation should initially have neurovascular assessments done at least once every 15 minutes until stable to check for compartment syndrome.
Describe compartment syndrome.Compartment syndrome develops when pressure inside a compartment rises, limiting blood supply to the area and perhaps harming the muscles and adjacent nerves. As long as there is an enclosed space inside the body, it can happen anywhere. It typically happens in the legs, feet, arms, or hands.
How may compartment syndrome be cured?The best treatment for chronic exertional compartment syndrome is surgery, specifically a procedure known as fasciotomy. It entails slicing apart the rigid tissue that surrounds each compartment of the damaged muscles. Thus, the pressure is reduced.
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which statement by the student nurse requires further teaching about which action would be provided for a client who survived an earthquake and presents with abdominal trauma to the emergency department?
"I should remove an impaled object immediately." by the student nurse requires further teaching about which action would be provided for a client who survived an earthquake and presents with abdominal trauma to the emergency department.
Trauma is an emotional reaction to a traumatic incident, such as an accident, , or natural disaster. Shock and denial are frequent feelings right after an incident. For a longer period of time, reactions can include erratic emotions, flashbacks, strained relationships, and even physical complaints like headaches or nausea. A person experiencing trauma may initially experience fatigue, disorientation, melancholy, worry, agitation, numbness, and detachment. The Latin word nutire, which means to suckle, is the source of the word nurse. This is because it originally solely referred to a wet-nurse and didn't change to refer to someone who looks after the sick until the late 16th century.
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a client reports mild tenderness and swelling near the ankle while running. which nursing instruction would help the client prevent future injury?
Warm up your muscles before engaging in an activity is the nursing instruction would help the client prevent future injury.
What is the ideal pressure injury intervention?The body should be moved around and repositioned frequently to prevent persistent pressure on the body's bony structures. When turned in bed, pressure is relieved on bony parts of the body by using pillows and foam wedges. maintaining a healthy diet to prevent undernourishment and to speed up the healing of wounds.
Edema is a term used to describe an abnormal fluid buildup in the body. Edema frequently affects the feet and ankles; as a result of gravity, swelling is more obvious in these areas. Edema is frequently brought on by prolonged standing or sitting, pregnancy, being overweight, and aging.
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a nurse is caring for a postoperative client after knee arthroplasty. the nurse plans to help the client ambulate but is aware that the client may feel threatened by physical closeness because the client is from a culture that tends to prefer more personal space when interacting with others. using the principles of culturally competent care, what would be the most appropriate nursing action?
The most appropriate nursing action would be that the nurse should listen to patient's customs and beliefs while assessing and make him comfortable,
Culturally competent care in health care describes the flexibility of systems to supply care to patients with various values, beliefs and behaviors, as well as the craft of health care delivery to fulfill patients' social, cultural and linguistic desires.
Knee replacement, conjointly referred to as knee arthroplasty, is a operation to interchange the weight-bearing surfaces of the joint to alleviate pain and incapacity, most typically offered once joint pain isn't diminished by conservative sources and conjointly for different knee diseases like psoriatic arthritis.
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the nurse is assessing a 3-day old infant with a cephalohematoma in the newborn nursery. which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Skin with a yellowish tint.
What is the cephalohematoma treatment?Cephalohematoma typically resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention, so your newborn won't typically require any therapy. After a few weeks or months, the bulge disappears. A doctor might try to drain it occasionally, though it's not usually necessary.
What is a baby who has a cephalohematoma at danger for?Cephalohematomas do raise a baby's risk of anemia, infections, and jaundice. Rarely, a newborn may also have a skull fracture that will naturally mend. If your infant is overly fussy, exhibiting symptoms of jaundice, or refusing to eat or sleep, you should get in touch with your child's healthcare provider.
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a client with a musculoskeletal injury is instructed to alter the diet. the objective of altering the diet is to facilitate the absorption of calcium from food and supplements. considering the food intake objective, which food item should the nurse encourage the client to include in the diet?
Considering the food intake objective, the food item that the nurse should encourage the client to include in the diet is Vitamin D-fortified milk.
The nurse should suggest to the client eating foods high in vitamin D, such as fatty fish, milk with added vitamin D, and cereals. These foods help the body absorb calcium from food and supplements, preventing bone loss and lowering the risk of fracture. The absorption of calcium from food and supplements is not facilitated by red meat, bananas, or green vegetables.
What is the main benefit of calcium?Calcium is required by our body to create and maintain healthy bones. In order to function properly, the heart, muscles, and nerves also require calcium. According to some studies, calcium and vitamin D may also help prevent cancer, diabetes, and high blood pressure in addition to supporting bone health.
What does vitamin D do for?It has long been known that this fat-soluble vitamin aids in the body's absorption and retention of calcium and phosphorus, both of which are essential for bone development. Additionally, research in the lab demonstrates that vitamin D can lessen the growth of cancer cells, aid in the management of infections, and lessen inflammation.
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which percentage of his or her adult weight does an individual gain during the adolescent years
Because they gain at least 40% of their adult weight and 15% of their adult height during this time, adolescents require more nutrition than adults do.
What changes do young adolescents go through?
Growth spurts and changes brought on by puberty occur during adolescence. An adolescent may gain several inches in a few months, then experience very slow development for a while before experiencing another growth spurt. Puberty (sexual maturation) changes can occur suddenly or gradually, depending on the individual.
Which factor has the biggest impact on adolescent obesity?
One of the main factors being researched as an obesity cause is genetics. According to some studies, BMI has a 25–40% heritability.
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a nurse comes to the employee health center for evaluation and is diagnosed with allergic contact dermatitis related to latex. what manifestation would the nurse most likely exhibit?
The manifestation that the nurse would most likely exhibit for evaluation and diagnosis of a client with allergic contact dermatitis related to latex is Blistering (Option b).
What is Blistering medical condition?Blistering medical condition is an uncommon problem associated with complications in the skin, which also may occur in the internal parts of organs in the human body, which is generally treated with dry sterile dressing.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that Blistering medical condition is a non frequent complication associated with health problems in the skin and internal organs.
Complete question:
A nurse comes to the employee health center for evaluation and is diagnosed with allergic contact dermatitis related to latex. What manifestation would the nurse most likely exhibit?
Angioedema
Blistering
Rhinitis
Laryngeal edema
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the nutrition label for a can of soup states that each serving contains 2.3 g of fat, 7.8 g of carbohydrates, and 3.1 g of protein. how many calories are in each serving of the soup?
Calories from food sources (Cals are the same as kcals) In a Cal or kc, there are 64.3 calories.
How do you determine the number of calories in fat, carbohydrates, and protein?65 grams of protein times 4 calories per gram results in 260 calories from protein in total.
400 calories per gram divided by 2=200 grams of carbohydrates results in 800 total calories from carbohydrates.
9 calories per gram divided by 60 grams of fat results in 540 calories from fat overall.
Add the Cal/g of each macro to the total grams of each:
Corn: (3.1 g Protein)(4 Cal/g P) + (2.3g fat)(9Cal/gF) + (7.8g Carbs)(4Cal/gC)= 64.3 Cal.
Nutritional calories (Cals are the same as kcals) There are 64.3 cal in a Cal or kc.
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after teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease about nutrition. the nurse determines that the teaching was effective when the parents identify which of the foods as appropriate for their child? select all that apply
The nurse recommends to include Fruit juice in the teaching plan.
Foods containing gluten, such as rye bread, frozen yogurt, and creamed vegetables should be avoided by children who have celiac disease. Fruit juice is a suitable recommendation for a gluten-free diet.
An immunological response to consuming the protein gluten, which is present in wheat, barley, and rye.
The immunological response to ingesting gluten causes inflammation over time, which harms the lining of the small intestine and can result in health issues. Additionally, it hinders the absorption of some nutrients.
The typical sign is diarrhea. Bloating, flatulence, exhaustion, a low blood count, and osteoporosis are other symptoms. Many individuals have no symptoms.
A strict gluten-free diet that can help manage symptoms and encourage intestinal healing is the cornerstone of treatment.
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which concept is most important for a nurse to communicate to a client preparing to sign an informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy (ect)?
Another crucial step in the procedure is informed consent. Before receiving ECT therapy, a patient must sign a written form of informed permission.
What is the purpose of electroconvulsive therapy?ECT is used to treat severe depression, especially when it's accompanied by psychosis, a desire to harm oneself, or an inability to eat. Depression that is treatment-resistant is extreme depression that doesn't get better with drugs or other therapies.
Exists today's electroconvulsive therapy?ECT is frequently still an option for people who are unable to take drugs for mental health issues for whatever reason. This can significantly alter a person's quality of life if they have issues with organ function or are pregnant. When used in conjunction with medication, it is particularly effective.
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a client with small cell carcinoma lung cancer may secrete an excess of which hormone, causing an ectopic form of cushing syndrome due to a nonpituitary tumor?
Because ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone is improperly secreted, small cell lung cancer (SCLC), which arises from neuroendocrine tissue, can lead to paraneoplastic endocrine disorders including Cushing syndrome (ACTH).
Cushing's is caused by small cell lung carcinoma in what way?In the neuroendocrine cells of your lungs, SCLC begins. These cells behave somewhat similarly to nerve cells. But they are also capable of producing hormones, such as glucocorticoids. You can get Cushing syndrome when a tumour that began in your lungs continuously exposes your body to the hormones it produces.
What triggers ectopic ACTH release?Usually, a hidden, slowly expanding bronchial carcinoid tumour causes ectopic ACTH output. Conventional imaging techniques, such as computerised tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging, might make it challenging to diagnose these very small tumours (MRI).
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a nurse is assessing a client with bone cancer pain. which part of a thorough pain assessment is most significant for this client?
The client with bone cancer is most important when considering the intensity of a pain assessment.
The type of pain that cancer causes is what? Different types of cancer pain exist.It could be achy, scorching, dull, or acute. The sort of cancer you have, its stage of development, its location, as well as your level of pain tolerance, all affect how much pain you experience.
Is cancer pain acute or chronic?Acute or chronic pain syndromes in cancer patients can be widely categorized. Chronic pain syndromes typically have a direct connection to the neoplasm itself or to an antineoplastic therapy, whereas acute pain syndromes typically go hand in hand with diagnostic or therapeutic interventions.
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an older adult client has developed pneumonia. what initial assessment finding would most concern the nurse?
A nursing care plan for pneumonia will prioritise making sure the patient gets enough oxygen. If there are no other issues, the oxygen is delivered using a nasal cannula.
The patient's medical management makes up the majority of a nursing care plan for a patient with pneumonia.
Describe pneumonia
The air sacs in one or both lungs become inflamed when someone has pneumonia. The air sacs may become blocked with liquid or pus (purulent material), causing breathing problems, a fever, chills, and a cough that produces pus or phlegm.
A step-by-step process that focuses on treating the condition by identifying the source and culturing blood is required for the management of pneumonia.
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the food and drug administration (fda) is charged with ensuring the u.s. food supply meets all of the following criteria except being:
The Food and Drug Administration is tasked with ensuring that the U.S. food supply meets all but sustainable standards.
Why is FDA approval important? FDA approves new human drugs and biologics. FDA granting approval means that the FDA has determined that the benefits of the product outweigh the risks of its intended use.The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates the safety, efficacy, and safety of human and veterinary drugs, biologics, medical devices, our nation's food supply, cosmetics, and radiation-emitting products. has a responsibility to protect public health.Products, regulated by FDA include: meal. drug. Medical equipment. Radiation emitting product. Vaccines, blood, biologics. animals and veterinarians. cosmetic. tobacco productsIs it FDA regulated?The FDA creates regulations under the laws of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) or other laws, including the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act, which is administered by the FDA. FDA's regulations have the full force and effect of law.
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a client reporting bone pain has sought care. diagnostic testing reveals that the client has developed osteonecrosis. when addressing the most likely cause of this complication, the nurse should focus on:
The nurse should concentrate on the type and amount of blood flow to the site when addressing particular most likely cause of this complication.
How does blood flow?Blood is pumped into the arterial system in the lungs after entering the right atrium from the body and moving into the right ventricle. The blood returns to the heart using the pulmonary veins after taking up oxygen, passing through the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta before leaving the body through the tissues.
What happens during blood circulation?Blood is pumped into the arterial system in the lungs after entering the aorta from the body and moving into the right ventricle. The blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins, the left atrium, the left ventricle, and the aorta after sucking in oxygen. The aorta then carries the blood to the body's tissues.
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while taking a client history, which assessment findings lead the nurse to suspect the client may have polycystic kidney disease? select all that apply.
Your blood pressure will be measured by your doctor to see whether it is higher than usual.
They could also perform further tests, such urine examinations to look for blood or protein. blood tests to evaluate how quickly your kidneys are filtering your blood.
What is a contributing factor to polycystic kidney disease?Polycystic kidney disease is brought on by abnormal genes, which implies that it typically runs in families. Sometimes a gene will change spontaneously, leaving neither parent with a copy of the altered gene.
The most prevalent PKD symptom is high blood pressure. Patients may have headaches linked to high blood pressure, or clinicians may notice high blood pressure when doing normal procedures.
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a 26-year-old male works in a high-stress sales position. he has a family history of premature heart disease and he is physically inactive. how many risk factors for cvd does he have?
If he continues to live the same lifestyle, the male is three times as likely to get a CVD.
Unhealthy eating habits along with little to no physical activity, consumption of tobacco and alcohol are some of the risk factors respinsible for CVDs and stroke. High blood pressure, high LDL cholesterol, diabetes, smoking, exposure to secondhand smoke, obesity, a poor diet, and inactivity are the main risk factors for heart disease and stroke.
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what to do with a patient who just delivered 2 hours ago and has a history of thromboembolic disease.
Working with your doctor will help you lower your risk of blood clots, especially if you're on bed rest or had a C-section. Exactly how much exercise your doctor recommends. thromboembolic disease Spending a lot of time sitting down Stand up and stretch every hour to two hours. Drink plenty of liquids.
What is thrombosis management?clotting agents.
These medications, which are often referred to as anticoagulants, help to stop blood clots from spreading. Blood thinners reduce the possibility of developing new clots. Blood thinners can be given intravenously, subcutaneously, or orally
Are your legs elevated to avoid thromboembolism?In the evenings, while unwinding and sleeping, keeping your feet elevated can help to promote healthy circulation.
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which condition causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (
A patient who has diabetes mellitus and a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops hypoventilation.
Which condition results in hypoxia because the chest wall moves less slowly?
Additionally, profound drowsiness can decrease respiratory drive, which can lead to hypoventilation, and ankylosing spondylitis or obese hypoventilation syndrome can restrict chest wall motion.
. In the presence of pulmonary hyper-inflation and consequent reduced diaphragmatic efficiency, this can lead to pronounced hypoventilation.
What causes hypoventilation most frequently?Hypoventilation is a condition of diminished or insufficient ventilation. Hypoventilation can be brought on by a variety of reasons. However, abnormalities of the respiratory muscles, neurological diseases, and central nervous system depression are the main causes of hypoventilation.
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what actions by a nurse identify an understanding of the nursing responsibility to treat the patient with consideration to the ethical component of beneficence? select all that apply
One of the cornerstones of nursing ethics is beneficence, which refers to the belief that a nurse's actions should advance good.
One of the cornerstones of nursing ethics is beneficence, which refers to the belief that a nurse's actions should advance good. Doing good is described as consistently putting the needs of the patient first, and this principle underpins all aspects of nursing practice.
Examples of beneficence include the use of vaccines, offering people health advice and counseling, and offering emergency care.
All healthcare professionals, especially nurses, who frequently face ethical challenges resulting from dealing with people's lives, must adhere to the ethical principles of beneficence and others.
These difficulties can overlap with the Code of Ethics.
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the nurse is planning approaches to use to begin the establishment of the nurse-patient relationship. which therapeutic communication techniques will be most useful to achieve this goal? select all that apply.
The establishment of the nurse-patient relationship requires therapeutic communication techniques to function smoothly. Some are:
A. Active listening
B. Open-ended questions
C. Assertiveness
D. Empathy
E. Reflection of feelings
F. Clarification
What are Therapeutic communication techniques?
Therapeutic communication techniques are strategies that healthcare providers use to appropriately and effectively communicate with their patients. These techniques involve expressing empathy, active listening, and using open-ended questions to better understand the patient’s feelings, needs, and concerns. Therapeutic communication can help build a trusting relationship between the provider and the patient, so that the patient feels comfortable enough to discuss their health issues openly.
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a new mother who is a lacto-ovo vegetarian plans to breast feed her infant. which information should the nurse provide prior to discharge
continue taking B12-fortified prenatal vitamins while nursing.
What b12 supplements should I take?A long time ago, it was believed that vitamin B-12, folic acid (vitamin B-9), and vitamin B-6 could protect against heart and blood vessel diseases by reducing the levels of the an amino acid in the body (homocysteine).
Do all multivitamins contain B12?Between 5 and 25 mcg of vitamin B12 are typically found in multivitamin/mineral pills [22].The levels of vitamin B12 for supplements which also contain other B-complex vitamins are typically 50–500 mcg higher, while in supplements that just contain vitamin B12, the levels are 500–1,000 mcg higher.
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