A particle moves according to a law of motion s = f(t), t ≥ 0, where t is measured in seconds and s in feet. (If an answer does not exist, enter DNE.) f(t) = t3 − 8t2 + 27t

Answer:

90 planes

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the total number of planes and multiply by the  percentage of planes that took off

120 * 75%

120 * .75

90

Answer:

69.48 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount of wrapping paper needed = surface area of the triangular prism

Surface area of triangular prism is given as, area = Perimeter of triangular base*height of prism + 2(base area)

Perimeter of triangular base = sum of the 3 sides of the prism

Perimeter of base = 3.5 + 3.5 + 3 = 10 inches

Height of prism = 6 inches

Base area = ½*base of triangle * height of triangle = ½*3*3.16 = 4.74 in²

Surface area of triangular prism = [tex] 10*6 + 2(4.74) [/tex]

[tex] S.A = 60 + 9.48 = 69.48 in^2[/tex]

Amount of wrapping paper needed is 69.48 square inches .

Total awpaws and guavas sold in a week = 328

Let the number of pawpas and guavas be x

ATQ

3x + 5x = 328

8x = 328

x = 328/8

x = 41

Pawapas in a week = 123

Guavas in a week = 205

Must click thanks and mark brainliest

Answer:

540 and 50 respectively

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the speed of plane in still air be x and the speed of wind be y.

ATQ, (x+y)*7.5=4425 and (x-y)*7.5=3675. Solving it, we get x=540 and y=50

Answer:

The system of equations you want to be solved is not given. I would however give an example with which the method of elimination will be shown, and can be used in solving problems of the nature.

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the system of equations:

x + y = 7 ................................(1)

2x - y = 8 ..............................(2)

To eliminate x:

First multiply (1) by 2 to have

2x + 2y = 14 ...........................(3)

Next, subtract (2) from (3) to have

3y = 6

y = 6/3 = 2

To eliminate y:

Add (1) and (2) to have

3x = 15

x = 15/3 = 5

Therefore, (x, y) = (5, 2).

Answer:

1500.

There is no need to round here, it is already exact.

Answer:

88%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the fraction by 100:

(22/25) * 100

= 22 * 4

= 88%.

Answer:

I know the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Linear functions are those whose graph is a straight line. A linear function has the following form. y = f(x) = a + bx. A linear function has one independent variable and one dependent variable. The independent variable is x and the dependent variable is y.

Answer:

y-0 = 1/2(x-0)

y = 1/2(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

Point slope form is

y-y1 = m(x-x1)

where m is the slope and (x1,y1) is a point on the line

y-0 = 1/2(x-0)

y = 1/2(x)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  perimeter ≈ 12.4 units

Step-by-step explanation:

The side adjacent to the angle is given. The relationships useful for the other two sides are ...

  Tan = Opposite/Adjacent

  Cos = Adjacent/Hypotenuse

From these, we have ...

  opposite = 5·tan(22°) ≈ 2.02

  hypotenuse = 5/cos(22°) ≈ 5.39

Then the perimeter is ...

  P = a + b + c = 2.02 + 5 + 5.39 = 12.41

The perimeter of ∆ABC is about 12.4 units.

Complete Question

Find the probability of winning a lottery with the following rule. Select the  six  winning numbers from​ 1, 2, . . .​ ,34 . ​(In any order. No​ repeats.)

Answer:

The  probability is  [tex]P(winning ) = 7.435 *10^{-7}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  total winning numbers   n =  34

      The total number to select is   r =  6

The total outcome of  lottery is mathematically represented as

      [tex]t_{outcome}) = \left n } \atop {}} \right. C_r[/tex]

      [tex]t_{outcome}) = \frac{n! }{(n-r )! r!}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]t_{outcome}) = \frac{ 34 ! }{(34 - 6 )! 6!}[/tex]

      [tex]t_{outcome}) = \frac{ 34 ! }{28 ! 6!}[/tex]

     [tex]t_{outcome}) =1344904[/tex]

The  number of desired outcome is  

           [tex]t_{desired} = 1[/tex]

 this is because the desired outcome is choosing the six winning number

   The probability of winning a lottery is mathematically represented as

      [tex]P(winning ) = \frac{t_{desired}}{t_{outcome}}[/tex]

substituting values  

     [tex]P(winning ) = \frac{1}{1344904 }[/tex]

      [tex]P(winning ) = 7.435 *10^{-7}[/tex]

Answer:

10,000

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 10*10*10*10 = 10,000

When the power is positive and in the numerator, the number of places moved or zeros added = the power. This has a power of 4. You add 4 zeros to 1 to get the answer.

Answer:

Cohen's D

Step-by-step explanation:

Cohen's D is a statistic that measures effect size. It shows standardised difference between 2 means.

Effect size is defined as how large the effect of a something is or its magnitude.

Cohen's D works effectively when the sample is >50 (that is for large samples). However a correction factor can be used to make results from small samples more accurate

The formular for Cohen's D is:

D = (mean1 - mean2) ÷ (√({standard deviation1}^2 + {standard deviation 2}^2)/2)

This is the most appropriate method in the given scenario

Answer:

67

Step-by-step explanation:

DM=JM-JD=84-17=67

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that AB = 2x - 3 and AB = 7, therefore:

2x - 3 = 7

2x - 3 + 3 = 7 + 3

2x = 10

2x / 2 = 10 / 2

x = 5

Answer:

[tex]10a + 5(a - 3) = 15 \\ 10a + 5a - 15 = 15 \\ 15a = 30 \\ a = \frac{30}{15} \\ a = 2 \\ 10 \times 2 + 5(2 - 3) = 15 \\ 20 + - 5 = 15 \\ 15 = 15 \\ lhs = rhs\\ thank \: you[/tex]

Answer: a = 2

Solve:

Given

10a + 5 (a - 3) = 15

Expand parentheses and apply the distributive property

10a + 5 · a - 5 · 3 = 15

10a + 5a - 15 = 15

Combine like terms

(10a + 5a) - 15 = 15

15a - 15 = 15

Add 15 on both sides

15a - 15 + 15 = 15 + 15

15a = 30

Divide 15 on both sides

15a / 15 = 30 / 15

[tex]\boxed{a=2}[/tex]

Check:

Left-hand side = 10a + 5 (a - 3)

Left-hand side = 10(2) + 5 (2 - 3)

Left-hand side = 20 + 5(-1)

Left-hand side = 20 - 5

Left-hand side = 15

Right-hand side = 15

15 = 15, therefore, [tex]\boxed{a=2}[/tex] would make the equation true.

Hope this helps!! :)

Please let me know if you have any questions

It is.........................................................

One way to prove this without a truth table is to use a conditional proof. We assume the portion p ^ (p --> q). If that's true, then so is p and p-->q

Using p and p-->q, the modus ponens rule allows us to derive q. It says that if p is true and p --> q, then q must be true as well.

Since we arrive at q, we have found the conclusion we're after. The assumption (p ^ (p-->q)) leads to q, and therefore the entire statement (p ^ (p-->q)) --> q is true for any combination of p,q.

Answer:

-54 is a integer and rational number

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-

Step-by-step explanation:

Forget using calculators.

Test each point by plugging its coordinates into the equation, and checking if the equation holds true.

Don't bother testing (-3,0), because you can't take the square root of -3.

Answer:

Matched or paired data

Step-by-step explanation:

In statistics the different types of study included experimental and observational with the matched or paired data.

The observational study is one in which there is no alteration in the obseravtions or any change. It is purely based on observations.

The experimental study is one in which some experiment or change is brought about to see the effects of the experiment and the results are recorded as before and after treatment etc.

The matched or paired study is one in which two or more groups are simultaneously observed , recorded to find the difference between them or other parameters which maybe useful for the differences or similarities.

Answer:

The product decreases 2022.

Step-by-step explanation:

(x + 1)(y - 1) = xy + 2020

xy - x + y - 1 = xy + 2020

-x + y = 2021

(x - 1)(y + 1) = xy + x - y - 1

  + 2021   =       -x + y

----------------------------------

(x - 1)(y + 1) + 2021 = xy - 1

(x - 1)(y + 1) = xy - 2022

The product decreases 2022.

Answer:

A. 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that before the 1st bounce, the height of the ball is 512 inches.

Say the fraction is x.

Then, after the first bounce, the height of the ball is 512 * x = 512x.

After the second bounce, the height is now x * 512x = 512x².

By similar reasoning, the height after the third bounce is 512x³ and after the fourth bounce, it is [tex]512x^4[/tex].

We also know that after the fourth bounce, the height is 2 inches. So, set 2 equal to [tex]512x^4[/tex]:

2 = [tex]512x^4[/tex]

Divide both sides by 512:

[tex]x^4=2/512[/tex][tex]x^4=2/512=1/256[/tex]

Take the fourth root of both sides:

[tex]x=\sqrt[4]{1/256} =1/4[/tex]

Hence, the answer is A.

~ an aesthetics lover

Answer:

A. 1/4.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is exponential decay so we  have , where x = the fraction:

512(x)^4 = 2

x^4 = 1/256

x= 1 / (256)^0.25

= 1/4

Answer:

On the map:

0.8 mile / 1.5 inches

=  0.533 mile / 1 inch

Total distance on the map:

0.6 inches

distance travelled in miles:

0.6 * 0.533 = 0.32 miles

please mark brainly if you want

Answer:

The answer is A = 0.3 mile

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right in 2021.

Answer:

(g÷f) (x) (1.8) ³x²+⁷x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Im glad to help you

Answer:

[tex] = - \frac{1}{36(6x + 1) ^{6} } + c[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]-\frac{1}{36\left(6x+1\right)^6} +C[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

we're going to us u substitution

[tex]\int (6x+1)^-7 dx[/tex]

[tex]u=6x+1[/tex]

[tex]\int\frac{1}{6u^7} du[/tex]

take out the constant, [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] · [tex]\int u^-7du[/tex]

next use the power rule, [tex]\int x^adx=\frac{x^{a+1}}{a+1},\:\quad \:a\ne -1[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{6}\cdot \frac{u^{-7+1}}{-7+1}[/tex]

simplify by substituting [tex]6x+1[/tex] for [tex]u[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{6}\cdot \frac{(6x+1)^{-7+1}}{-7+1} = -\frac{1}{36\left(6x+1\right)^6}[/tex]

add a constant, [tex]C[/tex]

[tex]-\frac{1}{36\left(6x+1\right)^6} +C[/tex]

Answer:

A) P(Betty is first in line and mary is last) = P(B₁) + P(Mₙ) - (P(B₁) × P(Mₙ/B₁))

B) The method used is Relative frequency approach.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, we are told a sample of n kids line up for recess.

Now, the order in which they line up is random with each ordering being equally likely. Thus, this means that the probability of each kid to take a position is n(total of kids/positions).

Since we are being asked about 3 kids from the class, let's assign a letter to each kid:

J: John

B: Betty

M: Mary

A) Now, we want to find the probability that Betty is first in line or Mary is last in line.

In this case, the events are not mutually exclusive, since it's possible that "Betty is first but Mary is not last" or "Mary is last but Betty is not first" or "Betty is the first in line and Mary is last". Thus, there is an intersection between them and the probability is symbolized as;

P(B₁ ∪ Mₙ) = P(B₁) + P (Mₙ) - P(B₁ ∩ Mₙ) = P(B₁) + P(Mₙ) - (P(B₁) × P(Mₙ/B₁))

Where;

The suffix 1 refers to the first position while the suffix n refers to the last position.

Also, P(B₁ ∩ Mₙ) = P(B₁) × P(Mₙ/B₁)

This is because the events "Betty" and "Mary" are not independent since every time a kid takes his place the probability of the next one is affected.

B) The method used is Relative frequency approach.

In this method, the probabilities are usually assigned on the basis of experimentation or historical data.

For example, If A is an event we are considering, and we assume that we have performed the same experiment n times so that n is the number of times A could have occurred.

Also, let n_A be the number of times that A did occur.

Now, the relative frequency would be written as (n_A)/n.

Thus, in this method, we will define P(A) as:

P(A) = lim:n→∞[(n_A)/n]

Given this pair of probabilities, the probability that Mary is the first is  n(A) = n-1!, while the probability that Betty is last is  n(A) = n-1!

There are n! ways of making this arrangement

We have probability of A: Betty is the first person in this line

Probability of B: Mary is the last person

A U B = p(A) + p(B) - p(A ∩ B)

n(A) = n-1 that is given that Betty is the first person on the line.

then n(A) = n-1!

As the last person on the line P(B) = n-1!

Probability of (A∩B) =( n-2)!  this has Mary as the first and Betty as the last person.

Remaining students that would have to be on this line are n-2

Prob(A∪B) = n(A ∪ B)/n!

= 2(n-2)/n(n-1)

This is the theory that talks about the chances or the likelihood of an event occuring in a pair of events.

Read more on probability here: https://brainly.com/question/24756209

Answer:

2016

Step-by-step explanation:

using USA dollars:

$42000 x .072 (7.2%) = 3024 total commission

3024 x 2/3 = 2016 brokers amount

Answer:

800= about 1.76 lbs

700= about 1.54 lbs

(there are about 453.5 grams in a pound

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

800 grams = 1.76  pounds

700 grams =  1.54  pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

i googled it