a nurse is talking with an older adult patient who unexpectedly mentions having trouble sleeping. what tool besides the pittsburgh sleep quality index (psqi) can the nurse use to assess for sleep disorder.
According to experts, "normal aging" does cause some modifications to sleep disorder.Basically, older folks tend to fall asleep less deeply and feel drowsy earlier in the evening than younger adults.Therefore, expecting that you would sleep as long or as soundly as you did when you were younger is definitely not practical.However, while aging does affect sleep, it's also normal for older persons to experience health issues that might disrupt sleep. You should assist your elderly relatives in checking for these if they complain that they are having trouble sleeping. Understanding what is happening is always the first step to being able to sleep
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49. in the nfpa 704 labeling system, a rating of 4 in any quadrant corresponds to: a. the highest degree of hazard b. a moderately low hazard c. the lowest degree of hazard d. a moderately high hazard
In the NFPA 704 labeling system, a rating of 4 in any quadrant corresponds to: a. the highest degree of hazard.
More than 300 consensus codes and standards are published by NFPA with the goal of reducing the likelihood and consequences of fire and other risks. All across the world, NFPA rules and standards—managed by more than 260 Technical Committees made up of roughly 10,000 volunteers—are adopted and implemented. Any cause of potential danger, harm, or negative health impacts on something or someone is a hazard. Basically, hazard is a risk is the potential for harm or a negative outcome (for example, to people as health effects, to organizations as property or equipment losses, or to the environment).
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a client is seeing the physician for a suspected tumor of the liver. what laboratory study results would indicate that the client may have a primary malignant liver tumor?
The client may have a primary malignant liver tumor, according to the results of a laboratory analysis that showed elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels.
The nurse would palpate the liver where, exactly?Start by palpating the area around the anterior iliac spine in the right lower quadrant. Use one or two hands, palms down, and move up 2-3 cm at a time toward the lower costal margin to palpate the liver. Encourage the sufferer to inhale deeply.
Which drug reduces portal pressure and stops esophageal varices from bleeding?An anti-hypertensive medication known as a beta blocker may help lower blood pressure in your portal vein, reducing the risk of bleeding. Propranolol (Inderal, Innopran XL) and nadolol are two of these drugs (Corgard).
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a multidisciplinary oncology team of health care providers, nurses, and the social worker notes that a client who has been undergoing chemotherapy is now experiencing pancytopenia. when reviewing the laboratory data, which values support this diagnosis? select all that apply.
Decreased RBC, decreased White Blood Cell, decreased platelets. values support this diagnosis
What is Chemotherapy?
It employs drugs. These medications inhibit the growth of cancer cells or kill them. However, some healthy cells that support the growth of hair or the lining of the lips are also destroyed. As a result, it has adverse effects, however they disappear once chemotherapy is finished. When chemotherapy completely eliminates cancer cells, they are unable to divide and therefore cannot grow.
Chemotherapy is used to reduce tumor size or stop the growth and spread of cancer. Tumors can be reduced in size and cancer can stop spreading with chemotherapy.
Chemotherapy may also be used to lessen the size of a tumor that is causing discomfort or pressure. Tumors are reduced in size by chemotherapy, which also lessens pressure and pain.
Chemotherapy does not serve as a substitute for drug-based treatments. Additionally, surgery is necessary to remove cancers, not this.
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a client just learnt a highly neagtive prognosis , which is entirely unexpected what body responses should the nurse anticipate
Accelerated blood pressure (BP), an increased heart rate, and dilated pupils are physical responses that the nurse should prepare for.
When the prognosis is poor, recovery chances are slim. A prognosis of good or exceptional indicates that the patient will likely recover.
What are criteria of prognosis?
A prognostic factor is a variable that can be used to predict whether a patient will recover from a condition or experience a relapse. Tumor-related, host-related, and environmental-related prognostic variables are separated.
Prognostic indicators that indicate a better prognosis are referred to as "good" or "favourable" factors. Poor prognostic variables are those that indicate worse outcomes.
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a critical care nurse is aware of the legislation that surrounds organ donation. when caring for a potential organ donor, the nurse is aware that:
A critical care nurse is aware of the legislation that surrounds organ donation, when caring for a potential organ donor, the nurse is aware that:
-hospitals must alert transplantation programs to possible donors.
What are the policies of organ donation ?The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act (UAGA), which is based on gift law rather than informed consent principles, regulates organ donation under state law in the United States (donation presents neither risks nor benefits to the deceased donor).
The following are the steps in the process:
The Hospital's Identification of the Potential Donor
Assessing the Donor's Eligibility
Approval for the Recovery of Organs
Patient medical care maintenance.
Organ Offering:
Matching Donors and Potential Recipients placing organs regionally and coordinating recovery
The definition of death, and particularly brain death, is a significant problem in organ transplantation. The internal propensity of a particular society to donate organs is another crucial factor of great importance.
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a multigravida client at 41-weeks gestation presents in the labor and delivery unit after a non-stress test indicated that the fetus is experiencing some difficulties in utero. which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the client for additional information about fetal status?
The diagnostic test that the nurse should set up for the client in order to obtain further details on the fetal status is the biophysical profile (BPP).
What is fetus?The unborn child that develops from an animal embryo is known as a fetus or foetus. Following embryonic development is the fetal stage of development. Fetal development in humans starts in the ninth week following fertilization and lasts until birth. An infant or extremely young child is referred to as a "baby." a fetus is an unborn kid. one who is the youngest in a family or group.
In the initial weeks of pregnancy, your developing fetus had a number of name changes. From the time of conception until the eighth week of development, it is typically referred to as an embryo. It is referred to as a fetus after the eighth week till it is born.
What are the stages of fetus and its measurements?Prenatal development takes place in three primary stages. The fetal stage, that last for from the ninth week till birth, follows the embryonic stage, which lasts from third to a eighth week after conception. The first two weeks after conception were recognized as the germinal stage.
Biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur diaphysis length are the fetal biometric measurements that are most frequently taken (FL). Several different formulas can be employed with these biometric measures to estimate fetal weight (EFW)1.
Briefing:BPP analyzes five different factors to provide information about fetal risk surveillance: fetal breathing patterns, fetal movements, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal tone and heart rate. Since the client's pregnancy has extended past the anticipated confinement date, the main concern is the fetal well-being associated with an aged placenta rather than fetal anomaly screening.
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the nurse is caring for an older adult who is hearing impaired and cannot wear his glasses because they are broken. what interventions would be appropriate? select all that apply.
Verify your comprehension of spoken communication. Slowly and properly enunciate your words. Find out if he has a "good ear." Before doing something, explain it.
What precautions ought the nurse to take when looking after the client's glasses?Place the patient's glasses in an accessible location. The nurse should make sure the patient's spectacles are clean and in good working order and place them in an accessible location. While the patient needs to be adequately lit, bright light should be avoided as it may cause glare.
When is eye protection appropriate for a nurse?Powell: Eye protection should be worn at all times, not just when exposure to bodily fluids or contagious viruses and bacteria is likely to happen. If you put on gloves, the general norm is.
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a nurse is developing a care plan for a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation (dic). which nursing intervention should the nurse include?
With the exception of significant bleeding, treatment of underlying disorders is advised in the three kinds of DIC. Blood transfusions are advised for individuals with DIC who have bleeding or significant haemorrhage. Meanwhile, heparin therapy is advised for people with non-symptomatic DIC.
Do you treat DIC with anticoagulants?There is no solid evidence to support the usefulness of regular anticoagulant medication in sepsis-induced DIC, and it should not be utilised therapeutically until further information about the patient group who may benefit from it is available.
Plasma transfusions are used to stop bleeding. Blood clotting factors impaired by DIC are replaced by plasma transfusion. Red blood cell and/or platelet transfusions Anticoagulant medications (blood thinners) are used to keep the blood from clotting.
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a 21-year-old client was diagnosed with hiv 4 years ago, which progressed to aids 1 year ago. now, the client presents with cytomegalovirus. the nurse explains to the client that the infection is caused by a common organism that normally does not cause infection in someone with a healthy immune system. this type of infection is called what?
The client presents with cytomegalovirus which is caused by a common organism that normally does not cause infection in someone with a healthy immune system, so this type of infection is called opportunistic infection.
Opportunistic infections (OIs) are infections that occur additional usually or are additional severe in individuals with weakened immune systems than in individuals with healthy immune systems. individuals with weakened immune systems embody individuals living with HIV. agency are caused by a spread of germs (viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites).
Cytomegalovirus is a genus of viruses within the order Herpesvirales, within the family Herpesviridae, within the taxon Betaherpesvirinae. Humans and alternative primates function natural hosts. The eleven species during this genus embody human betaherpesvirus five, that is that the species that infects humans.
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a 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (pitocin) to augment early labor. which pattern of contractions should alert the nurse to discontinue the oxytocin infusion?
When giving the medication, it is important to be aware of the potential for increased blood loss and afibrinogenemia. There have been cases of severe water intoxication accompanied by convulsions and coma that have been linked to a gradual oxytocin infusion over a 24-hour period.
What needs to be looked out for during an oxytocin infusion?Throughout the infusion, it is crucial to closely monitor the foetal heart rate and the frequency, intensity, and length of contractions. The infusion rate can frequently be decreased if an appropriate amount of uterine activity is reached, aiming for 3 to 4 contractions per 10 minutes.
When giving oxytocin, it's critical to keep an eye on the patient's fluid intake and output as well as the fetus's heart rate and the frequency of uterine contractions.
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a nurse encourages residents of a long-term care facility to continue a similar pattern of behavior and activity that existed in their middle adulthood years to ensure healthy aging. this intervention is based on which aging theory?
Identity-continuity aging theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in the similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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The identity-continuity ageing theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does the philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?
According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?
Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in a similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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a patient has a fractured rib and is breathing less often and with less depth because of the pain. the nurse would document this finding using which term?
A client has a shattered rib, or the discomfort is causing them to breathe more frequently and deeply. The doctor used the terminology fremitus, breathlessness, pulmonary frictional rub, apnoea to describe this result.
What does the term "positive fremitus" mean?
Increased tactile fremitus is a sign of lung tissue that is thicker or inflamed, which can be brought on by conditions like pneumonia. Reduced lung tissue density or air or fluid in the pleural spaces could be the result of conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma.
What does typical fremitus mean?
Sensory fremitus can be experienced consistently throughout both sides of the chest in those with normal lung tissue. The strength of tactile fremitus often decreases forward towards the base of the lungs and is most noticeable close to the collarbones and in the area between the neck and shoulders.
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the nurse understands that medications, although very beneficial to clients, can have harmful effects. when working with older adult clients the nurse should recognize that which outcome is a common result of potent, fast-acting diuretics?
The nurse understands that medications can have harmful effects so with older adult clients the nurse should recognize that urge incontinence is a common result of potent, fast-acting diuretics.
Harmful effects of medications are also called adverse reactions, are unwanted undesirable effects that are presumably associated with a drug. These effects will vary from minor issues sort of a liquid nose to grave events, like a heart failure or liver injury.
Diuretics, typically known as water pills, facilitate free your body of salt (sodium) and water. Most of those medicines facilitate your kidneys unharness a lot of sodium into your body waste. The sodium helps take away water from your blood, decreasing the number of fluid flowing through your veins and arteries.
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a client with graves disease has had radioiodine treatment with worsening of ophthalmopathy. what medication does the nurse prepare to administer that the client will use for several weeks to decrease these symptoms?
A client with graves disease has had radioiodine treatment with worsening of ophthalmopathy. The nurse prepares to administer Radioiodine I-131 that the client will use for several weeks to decrease these symptoms.
What is grave disease?
Graves' disease, an immune system ailment, results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones. Hyperthyroidism can be caused by a variety of illnesses, although Graves' disease is commonly to fault.
The signs and symptoms of Graves' illness can vary significantly because thyroid hormones have an impact on so many different physiological systems. Graves' illness can affect anyone, but it tends to strike women and those under the age of 40 more frequently.
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an (fill in the blank) infection that occurs when a microbe breaks loose from a localized infection and is carried by the circulation to another tissue is
A Focal infection develops when a microbe escapes from a localized infection and travels to another tissue via the circulation.
What exactly is tissue mechanics?Cells define and shape their surroundings, and in turn, they receive biochemical and physical cues from them. Tissue regeneration involves cell recruitment, growth, proliferation, and differentiation, with the latter being a critical stage for regeneration success, avoiding the creation of fibrous tissue typical of repair [9-12]. Tissue is a collection of cells with similar structures that work together as a unit. The intercellular matrix is a nonliving substance that fills the spaces between the cells. This may be plentiful in some tissues while being scarce in others. The body's tissue is made up of cells. The cells share the same origin and appearance. They carry out a specific function in the body.
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Sally Paper is responsible for gathering information for completion of birth certificates at SunnyView Hospital. After the application for the birth certificate is completed, she should forwardeach to the:
Sally Paper is responsible for gathering information for the completion of birth certificates at SunnyView Hospital, and she should forward it to the local vital statistics office.
What is the function of the vital statistics office?The country has a national vital statistics office as well as many local vital statistics offices that collect birth and death data and store it for various purposes. The vital statistics office, which has information on the country's population growth, can be used for various human development projects.
Hence, after the application for the birth certificate is completed, she should forward it to the local vital statistics office.
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what should you communicate to mrs. taylor about the specific benefits of deep breathing and coughing after surgery?
After surgery, there are many benefits of practicing deep breathing and coughing. These exercises will facilitate better breathing and lung clearing.
What are the specific benefits of deep breathing and coughing after surgery?Deep breathing aids in clearing the airway of mucus and anesthetic gases.Coughing assists in clearing the respiratory system of any residual mucus.Exercises that include deep breathing cause the alveoli to hyperventilate and stop compressing.The oxygenation of the body's tissues is enhanced by deep breathing.Deep breathing enhances lung volume and expansion.For the first two to three days following minor surgery, take deep breaths and cough hourly while you're awake. It's a good idea to keep doing these exercises after your operation until you can resume your regular activities. Sitting up throughout these workouts will make them more effective.
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the nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors for developing osteoporosis. what is the most important information for the nurse to include? select all that apply.
Being White or Asian, getting older, having a petite frame, being a woman, smoking, drinking more alcohol, and having a family history of osteoporosis are risk factors for the disease.
Which of the following factors raises the risk of osteoporosis developing?Osteoporosis is caused by a lifelong deficiency in calcium. Low calcium consumption increases the risk of fractures, early bone loss, and decreased bone density.
Who is most at risk of developing osteoporosis?The majority of women over the age of 50 are at risk for osteoporosis. Women are four times as likely as men to have the disorder.
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a client is diagnosed with a type of diabetes that is associated with insulin resistance. which type of diabetes is the client experiencing?
The amount of insulin produced by the pancreas is no longer sufficient to overcome cell resistance. Higher blood glucose levels are the end effect, which can lead to type 2 diabetes or prediabetes.
Why is insulin resistance the name given to type 2 diabetes?Our cells are instructed to absorb glucose from the blood by the hormone insulin. By inducing the proteins in charge of transporting glucose to relocate to the surface of the cells, it does this. This process is impaired in type 2 diabetes (also known as insulin resistance), which raises blood glucose levels.
Are people with type 2 diabetes insulin-resistant?Your fat, liver, and muscle cells do not react to insulin properly if you have type 2 diabetes. Insulin resistance is what causes this.
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a postoperative client has exhibited decreased urine output, hypotension, and tachycardia. which nursing assessment is the priority?
A postoperative client has exhibited decreased urine output, hypotension, and tachycardia has to be checked for his dressing on the prior basis as Shock in a postoperative client results from bleeding.
What is tachycardia?When the heart beat of a person goes over 100 beats per minute then the medical term used for his condition is termed as tachycardia.
Hypotension:It is termed as the sudden drop in the BP i.e. blood pressure .It generally happens when stand or lie down in a bed.
Hence , Such postoperative client having shock needs to be checked for his dressing . this would be proper nursing assessment.
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a clinic nurse has been charged with the responsibility of teaching avoidance strategies to an adult patient who has allergic rhinitis. what measure should the nurse recommend to this patient?
Answer:
"If possible, make sure that no one smokes tobacco in your home."
Explanation:
which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about inhaled glucocorticoids?
the nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client diagnosed with cranial arteritis. what is the priority nursing intervention?
The most important nursing intervention is to give corticosteroids as directed.
Which evaluation result is connected to an early increase in intracranial pressure?The patient's state of consciousness changing is the first sign of elevated intracranial pressure (ICP). Pupil alterations are frequently a late indicator of neurologic problems; they are rarely an instant assessment finding after a concussion.
Which medication from the list below can be taken to prevent seizures after one has occurred?The most effective medications for treating acute seizures and status epilepticus include the benzodiazepines. The benzodiazepines diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), and midazolam are most frequently used to treat status epilepticus (Versed).
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which findings should the nurse expect to assess when completing the health history of a child admitted for possible type 2 diabetes? select all that apply.
The nurse should expect to polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia in the health history of the child.
How is Type 2 diabetes characterized ?Type 2 diabetes mellitus is distinguished by a slow start and is frequently linked to obesity rather than significant weight loss. Most frequently abrupt and accompanied by significant weight loss, type 1 diabetes.
In both kinds of diabetes mellitus, polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are common evaluation results.
An unusually high blood sugar level is a defining feature of type 2 diabetes. This type of diabetes is characterized by the body's improper use and production of insulin. The pancreas secretes the hormone insulin, which aids in controlling blood sugar levels.
Diagnosis
Normal is 5.7% or less.
Prediabetes has a diagnosis rate of 5.7% to 6.4%.
Diabetes is diagnosed when two tests show a 6.5% or higher level.
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a client is taking ibuprofen for the treatment of osteoarthritis. what education will the nurse give the client about the medication?
To prevent upset stomach, take the medication with food.
Which drug is thought to be the patient's first treatment option for osteoarthritis (OA)?Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications
When taken at the recommended doses, over-the-counter NSAIDs like ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, and others) and naproxen sodium (Aleve) typically reduce osteoarthritis pain. By prescription, stronger NSAIDs can be found.
A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug is ibuprofen. To prevent stomach upset, the nurse should advise the patient to take NSAIDs with food. Despite being sold without a prescription, ibuprofen still has side effects. Not NSAIDs, but aspirin is known to cause ringing in the ears.
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a client with degenerative joint disease asks the nurse for suggestions to avoid unusual stress on the joints. which suggestion would be most appropriate?
the form of arthritis that is most common.Some people refer to it as degenerative joint disease.Typically, your hands, hips, and knees are affected.In OA, a chain's tissue begins to deteriorate and the bone beneath it begins to change.
What kind of medication relieves joint pain the best?ibuprofen, acetaminophen, and other over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicines (NSAIDs).Exercise or programs that promote physical activity in the community.Physical therapy exercises are part of exercise therapy.workshops for self-management education.
What prevents joint harm?Exercise and Motion Moving about and getting regular exercise are crucial in preventing long-term joint injury.Most players have heard the phrase "you'll damage your knees" at some point throughout their athletic careers, which may seem paradoxical.But joints also need to be robust, just like the rest of the body.
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A group of students were discussing the integumentary system and the use of transdermal (TD) patches to administer medication. TD patches deliver a consistent dose of medication that diffuses at a constant rate through the skin into the bloodstream. Which student has the correct explanation?
1) Jonathan argued that the hand or foot would be the best place to apply the TD patch because it would have fewer layers to diffuse across to get to the blood supply in the dermis.
2) Gail stated that anywhere on the body other than the hands or feet would be better because the medication would only have four layers to diffuse across to get to the dermis where the blood vessels are located.
3) Kenneth argued that the hand and feet were not good because the sweating and use of the hands and feet would alter the adhesiveness of the patch so he recommended the other areas of the body place the patch.
(HELP NEEDED ASAP. I REALLY APPRECIATE IT)
2. Gail stated that anywhere on the body other than the hands or feet would be better because the medication would only have four layers to diffuse across to get to the dermis where the blood vessels are located.
What is transdermal patches used for?A patch that adheres to your skin and contains medicine is known as a transdermal patch. Over time, your body absorbs the medication from the patch. Some drugs may be taken more comfortably using a patch if you'd prefer not to use pills or injections.Transdermal patches are a type of drug delivery where a pre-prescribed amount of medication is applied as an adhesive patch to the skin and absorbed into the circulation.The patch should be applied to a dry, flat area of skin on your upper arm, chest, or back. Pick a location where there are no cuts, burns, scars, or other skin irritations and where the skin is not overly oily.Learn more about transdermal patches refer to :
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a client is being placed on a low-sodium diet. the client tells the nurse that many favorite foods are high in sodium and the client believes he or she will not be able to give them up. which intervention(s) by the nurse will assist the client with dietary compliance? select all that apply.
Direct the client to lower sodium version of favorite foods.
Help the client balance some favorite foods with salt free foods.
Encourage the client to discuss likes and dislikes.
Explain how to keep a food journal.
Instruct the client on reading food labels.
What is dietary compliance ?The goal of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans is to offer suggestions on what to eat and drink to create a healthy diet that can support healthy growth and development, aid in the prevention of diet-related chronic disease, and meet nutrient requirements.
Compliance is a passive behaviour in which a patient complies with the doctor's instructions." Continued in the article, it states: "Adherence is a more proactive, positive behaviour that forces the patient to alter their way of life because they are required to adhere to a daily schedule, such as wearing a brace as directed.
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nurse is preparing to change a dressing on a client who is receiving negative pressure wound therapy. what sequence of actions should the nurse plan to take
Warming the irrigating solution to 37°C is the nurse's strategy (98.6F).
If a client with dark complexion gets cyanosis, which skin color change would the nurse anticipate seeing?Those with light skin tones will exhibit cyanosis as a bluish/purple color. Cyanosis may give individuals' skin a grayish-green tint if their complexion is naturally yellow-toned. Cyanosis might appear as grey or white in people with darker skin tones, making assessment more difficult.
Who of your clients is at risk for skin changes?A person is susceptible to altered skin integrity due to pressure, shear, and friction from immobility. Patients who are obese, paralyzed, have spinal cord injuries, are bedridden and confined to wheelchairs, have edema, and are paralyzed are also at higher risk.
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which care environment would the nurse suggest to a client with no family nearby who is diagnosed with end-stage lung disease?
Answer:
residential care
Explanation: