At a nursing conference, the nurse is studying about food limitations related to religion,Hindus consume a vegetarian diet.
Which religions forbid particular foods?Killing living things is detested in Buddhism and Hinduism, and eating flesh is prohibited, Pork is forbidden in Judaism and Islam, while devout Christians and Catholics limit their meat intake on Fridays and days when they observe fasts.
What connections do Buddhism and Hinduism have?Both Buddhism and Hinduism recognize the concepts of rebirth and the laws of Karma, Wisdom, and Moksha, Both Hinduism and Buddhism hold the idea that there are various heavens and hells, or both higher and lower worlds,Most major faiths' founders are not like those of Buddhism or Hinduism.
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which assessment finding exhibited by a patient being assessed for posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) would be considered a defining behavior and support such a diagnosis?
Option C. which says “Describes vivid "flashbacks" of being attacked” will be the correct answer.
One characteristic behavior that is exhibited when an individual has PTSD is that the person re-experiences the traumatic incident. This takes occur by having recurrent and intrusive disturbing recollections of the trauma, including thoughts, images, or perceptions concerning the incident. Sometimes the person has frequent dreams about the occurrence and acts or feels as though it is happening again right now (flashback). The PTSD sufferer typically has trouble recalling all the specifics of the experience and isn't all that interested in recounting what happened. The patient typically exhibits a fairly constrained range of emotions.
What is PTSD?
A condition marked by an inability to recover after being exposed to or seeing a terrible incident. The syndrome can endure for months or even years, with triggers causing strong emotional and physical reactions as well as recollections of the event. Dreams or flashbacks, avoiding circumstances that trigger the trauma, increased sensitivity to stimuli, anxiety, or depression are all possible symptoms. In addition to using medications to manage symptoms, treatment options include various forms of psychotherapy.
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a client comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the right leg. when obtaining the history, the nurse learns that the client has a history of obesity and hypertension. based on this information the nurse anticipates the client having which musculoskeletal disorder?
Degenerative joint disease
Obesity predisposes the client to degenerative joint disease.
What is musculoskeletal disorder ?Pain (which is frequently persistent) and mobility and dexterity restrictions are the typical symptoms of musculoskeletal conditions, which make it harder for people to work and engage in social activities. The most typical type of non-cancer pain involves pain in the musculoskeletal system.
The three most prevalent musculoskeletal conditions, according to reports, are arthritis, back pain, and trauma. Each year, patients seek treatment for these conditions in hospitals, emergency rooms, and doctor's offices.
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a patient who had received 25 ml of packed red blood cells (prbcs) has lower back pain and pruritis. after stopping the infusion, which action should the nurse take next?
Each unit of packed RBCs should require a fresh infusion set from the nurse. The older adult client should receive blood slowly from the nurse, taking up to 4 hours per unit.
With a transfusion of packed red blood cells, which remedy would the nurse hang?A unit of packed red blood cells will be transfused to a patient by a healthcare professional. Because it is a compatible saline solution, only 0.9% sodium chloride is suitable for use with whole blood or blood products.
You should transfuse packed red blood cells using which of the following solutions?Normal saline is always used in transfusion medicine and is the only solution that the AABB recommends as being compatible with blood components.
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cycles of fever which recur every 48 hours is characteristic of: group of answer choices malaria toxoplasmosis balantidiasis giardiasis leishmaniasis
Malaria is distinguished by fever cycles that repeat every 48 hours.
When do the symptoms of malaria appear?Malaria symptoms often occur 10 days to one month after infection. Symptoms vary depending on the type of parasite. Some people do not feel ill for up to a year after being bitten by a mosquito. Parasites can live in the body for many years without creating symptoms. Malaria symptoms include fever and flu-like disease, as well as shaking chills, headache, muscle aches, and weariness. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are also possible side effects. Malaria can induce anemia and jaundice (yellow skin and eyes) due to the loss of red blood cells. Malaria is quite dangerous.
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the nurse on the oncology unit is planning care for four patients. the patient taking which cytotoxic anticancer drug will require ondansetron least frequently?
A cytotoxic anticancer medication like bleomycin will use ondansetron the least often.
Which medication from the list below should be given to a chemotherapy patient to prevent nausea and vomiting?The following common anti-nausea drugs, however, may be prescribed by your doctor if the chemotherapy is anticipated to produce nausea and vomiting: The aperitif (Emend®) Granisetron (Kytril®) and dolasetron (Anzemet®)
Which medication would be most helpful for treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting?Dexamethasone is the most effective antiemetic for preventing delayed nausea and vomiting, according to studies.
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the nurse is educating a client who is breastfeeding her 2-week-old newborn regarding the nutritional requirements of newborns, according to the recommendations of the american academy of pediatrics (aap). which response by the mother would validate her understanding of the information she received?
The response can be "I'll give her/him vitamin D supplements daily for the first 2 months of life."
What is vitamin D?
Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble secosteroids responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, and multiple other biological effects. In humans, the most important compounds in this group are vitamin D3 (also known as cholecalciferol) and vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol). Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption in the gut and maintains adequate serum calcium and phosphate concentrations to enable normal mineralization of bone and to prevent hypocalcemic tetany. It is also needed for bone growth and bone remodeling by osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Without sufficient vitamin D, bones can become thin, brittle, or misshapen. Vitamin D is made in the skin when exposed to sunlight and is also found in some foods. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for osteoporosis, and a low dietary intake of vitamin D can lead to a deficiency.
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which term refers to the progressive ability of the body to adapt to the effects of a drug used at regular and frequent intervals?
Tolerance is a person's diminished response to a drug, which occurs when the drug is used repeatedly and the body adapts to the continued presence of the drug.
When a medicine is taken frequently, a person may grow tolerant to it. For instance, when morphine or alcohol are used repeatedly, increasing amounts are required to provide the same effect. Tolerance often arises from increased drug metabolism (often as a result of increased activity of the liver enzymes involved in drug metabolism) and a decrease in the number of sites (cell receptors) that the drug binds to or the strength of the link (affinity) between the receptor and drug.
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a nurse uses a portable bladder ultrasound device to assess bladder volume for a client who is unable to void. what accurately states information needed to interpret the results?
The information required to interpret the results is accurately stated and the catheter can be connected to a smaller leg bag for ambulation.
How can residual post-void urine be lessened?There are several medications that can help with urinary retention: antibiotics for infections of the bladder, prostate, or urinary system. medications that relax your sphincters or prostate, allowing urine to flow more freely. prescription drugs to shrink your prostate.
How come my bladder doesn't completely empty?When the bladder's muscles are unable to contract effectively to empty the bladder, incomplete bladder emptying happens. This may occur in situations where there has been nerve or muscle damage, which may have been brought on by an accident, surgery, or illness like Parkinson's disease or multiple sclerosis.
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the registered nurse is teaching isometric exercises to an 80-year-old client. which change as a result of aging requires this intervention?
After an arthroplasty treatment, patients are often given a regimen of isometric exercises to do in order to rehabilitate and strengthen the muscles in their legs.
What is isometric exercise?Exercises called isometric contractions include tightening (contracting) a particular muscle or set of muscles. The length of the muscle does not significantly alter during isometric activities. Additionally, the damaged joint is immobile. Exercises that are isometric assist preserve strength. Although ineffectively, they may also increase strength.
Exercises that involve tensing the muscles against a stationary object, known as isometric or static exercises, are often dangerous for older persons because they put a great deal of strain on the heart and may increase blood pressure.
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a client has experienced increasing pain and progressing inflammation of the hands and feet. the rheumatologist has prescribed nsaid use to treat the condition. what client education is most important for the nurse to address with the use of these medications?
Adults' heel discomfort is frequently brought on by plantar fasciitis. Pain that is particularly intense with the first few steps made in the morning is how the condition often shows. Plantar fasciitis often resolves on its own.
In which of the following positions should someone with back discomfort avoid being?Avoid doing anything that cause you to stoop or lean forward at the waist. Try to stand up and lean back slightly while coughing or sneezing to enhance the curvature in your spine. Knees bowed while lying on your side.
Pharmacological treatment, complementary and alternative medicine (CAM), and exercise are frequently used to treat osteoporosis. These therapies' overarching objectives are to maintain appropriate calcium levels, encourage bone formation, lessen bone breakdown, and minimise deficits.
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when do most spontaneous abortions occur? multiple choice question. first trimester second trimester fourth trimester third trimester
Early pregnancy loss only refers to first-trimester spontaneous abortions. However, the majority of spontaneous abortions take place in the first trimester.
Why do miscarriages occur?About 50% of miscarriages in the first trimester (up to 13 weeks of pregnancy) are brought on by chromosomal abnormalities. Your genes are carried by chromosomes, which are little structures found inside your body's cells.
What trimester experiences miscarriages the most frequently?Before the 12th week of pregnancy, the first trimester is when most miscarriages occur. 1 to 5 out of every 100 (or 1 to 5%) pregnancies) experience a miscarriage in the second trimester (between 13 and 19 weeks).
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when assessing a person who is grieving using the grief cycle model, which concept would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind? select all that apply.
The concepts that would be the most important to keep in mind when assessing a person using the grief cycle model are:
People vary widely in their responses to loss. Stages occur at varying rates among people. Some people actually skip some stages of grief altogether.The grief cycle model is a model that attempts to explain the stages of grief when someone is experiencing it. It describes the series of emotions that they experience: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
In reality, most of the time the grief that humans experience is not as discrete as the model may indicate. That's why the model cycle should not be used as an empirical thing. That being said, using the model as a general guide to assess a grieving person is still useful.
The question above is incomplete, but the completed question is most likely as follows:
When assessing a person who is grieving using the grief cycle model, which concept would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind? Select all that apply.
Stages occur at varying rates among people. Some people actually skip some stages of grief altogether. People vary widely in their responses to loss. The stages of grief occur linearly and are static. The stages are relatively discrete and identifiable.Learn more about grief at https://brainly.com/question/16877564
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which statements made by the nurse indicate accurate awareness about the conditions associated with hypothermia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
To keep the person warm, layer on dry blankets or coats. The person's head should be covered, leaving only the face visible. Protect the body from the chilly ground.
Based on condition and stability, which client would the nurse prioritize for care?Because prompt treatment may save the client's life, clients with red tags should receive priority treatment. Because they may have to wait a while for treatment, clients with yellow tags should be given second priority.
Which of the following techniques is safe to employ when warming a hypothermic person?Put dry clothing on the person or wrap them in blankets to keep them warm. Avoid submerging the victim in warm water. Heart arrhythmia can be triggered by rapid heat. If you use hot water bottles or chemical hot packs, wrap them in fabric rather than putting them on your skin.
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the client is scheduled for a polysomnography to determine if the client has obstructive sleep apnea (osa). the nurse instructs the client to:
To find out if the client has obstructive sleep apnea, a polysomnography is scheduled. The client is told to plan on spending the night at a medical facility by the nurse.
Which recommendation for promoting sleep would the nurse give to the patient?The patient should be given instructions on how to improve the sleeping conditions in his home. Before going to bed, drink some milk or have a small snack to help you fall asleep. The patient should get out of bed and engage in some quiet activity until they feel sleepy if they are unable to fall asleep after 15 to 30 minutes in bed.
How would you describe your sleep hygiene?Professionals can assess the quality of their sleep using sleep studies and tools like the Pittsburgh Quality Sleep Index.
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a client has a serum study that is positive for the rheumatoid factor. what will the nurse tell the client about the significance of this test result?
A positive rheumatoid factor test result indicates a high level of rheumatoid factor in your blood.
What is rheumatoid factor?Rheumatoid factors are proteins produced by the immune system that attack healthy tissue in your body. High levels of rheumatoid factor in the blood are most often associated with autoimmune diseases, like rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren's syndrome.
Methotrexate is the first medicine given for rheumatoid arthritis, with another DMARD and a short course of steroid to relieve any pain. These medicines may be combined with biological treatments.
The normal range for rheumatoid factor (or negative test result) is less than 14 IU/ml. Result with values 14 IU/ml or above is considered abnormally high or positive.
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a client who has injured a hip in a fall cannot place weight on the leg and is in significant pain. after radiographs indicate intact yet malpositioned bones, what repair would the physician perform?
Answer:
joint manipulation and immobilization
Explanation:
the client is being seen at 24 weeks' gestation at the prenatal clinic. at her last routine visit, the fundus was located at the umbilicus. today, the fundus is measured and found to be 23 cm. how should the nurse interpret this finding?
The nurse should interpret this as Fundus is at the appropriate level.
Your fundus should be close to your abdominal button after giving delivery (where it was at 20 weeks). After that, it should shrink by a centimeter daily. After having birth, one week later, your fundus should be close to your pubic bone (where it was at 12 weeks).
For instance, the top of the uterus, which is situated opposite the cervix, is referred to as the fundus of the uterus (the opening of the uterus). The bladder's bottom and back are two of the organs that are referred to as the fundus. The term "fundus" refers to the area that is furthest away from an organ's aperture.
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a client with chronic kidney disease (ckd) will be managed with peritoneal dialysis. which description of this type of dialysis is most accurate? the dialyzer is usually a hollow cylinder composed of bundles of capillary tubes. treatment involves the introduction into the peritoneum of a sterile dialyzing solution, which is drained after a specified time. vascular access is achieved through an internal arteriovenous fistula or an external arteriovenous shunt. treatments typically occur three times each week for 3 to 4 hours.
A client with chronic kidney disease will be managed with peritoneal dialysis. The dialyzer is usually a hollow cylinder composed of bundles of capillary tubes.
What is Haemodialysis?
Haemodialysis involves removing blood from your body, cleaning it in an artificial kidney called a dialyzer, and reintroducing it to your body. This three to five-hour procedure could happen in a hospital or a dialysis facility.
Haemodialysis can be performed at home as well. You could require shorter sessions of at-home therapy four to seven times each week. You might decide to perform haemodialysis at home while you sleep at night.
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patient with chronic renal failure, the nurse would educate the patient on which dietary treatments should be excluded? patho
A decline in the kidneys' capacity to remove waste and fluid from the blood is a symptom of chronic renal failure.
What transpires in the event of chronic renal failure?Kidney disease, or CKD, impairs the ability of the kidneys to properly filter blood. Due to this, extra fluid and blood waste build up in the body and may result in various health issues like heart disease and stroke.
Which three stages of chronic renal failure are there?Stage 1 with a GFR of 90 mL/min or higher and normal or high CKD stage 2 (GFR = 60–89 mL/min) Moderate CKD Stage 3A (GFR = 45–59 mL/min) Moderate CKD Stage 3B (GFR = 30-44 mL/min).
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the nurse prepares to conduct a history and complete physical examination. what should the nurse explain to the client as being the major purpose for this comprehensive evaluation?
The assessment of reflexes, which serves as the beginning point for evaluating neurologic functioning, is often carried out after assessing the lower extremities, even though many components of the assessment can be finished at any time.
Before performing the client's physical assessment, what preparations must the nurse make?Prior to starting the physical assessment, the nurse should wash her hands. This applies before obtaining equipment, too. Auscultation and palpitation shouldn't start until after proper hand washing.
Which of the following occurs first when the client's physical condition is assessed?Utilizing your senses of sight, smell, and hearing, examine each bodily system to detect any abnormalities or disorders. Look at the texture, symmetry, movement, size, color, and position.
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a back brace is prescribed for a client who had a laminectomy. which information would the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
A nurse evaluates a patient's medical history before prescribing ziconotide (Prialt) for chronic back pain.
Is laminectomy an extensive procedure?A surgeon removes the lamina in its entirety or mostly during a laminectomy. A more conservative course of treatment has often been exhausted before doing this significant surgery. On the cervical, lumbar, sacral, or thoracic spines, laminectomy can be done.
Is laminectomy a risky procedure?Spinal stenosis symptoms are commonly treated with open lumbar laminectomy surgery. Despite the rarity of this surgery's complications, there may be a few risk factors that could cause the procedure to fail or be delayed.
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which statements are accurate regarding chronic aspirin poisoning? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The correct answer are (1)Chronic aspirin poisoning is often mistaken for viral illness. (5). Chronic ingestion of aspirin occurs when an amount greater than 100 mg/kg per day is ingested for more than 2 days.
Aspirin, commonly known as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication (NSAID) that is used to treat pain, fever, and/or inflammation, as well as to prevent clotting. Aspirin is used to treat inflammatory disorders such as Kawasaki illness, pericarditis, and rheumatic fever.
In high-risk persons, aspirin is also used long-term to help prevent future heart attacks, ischemic strokes, and blood clots.
For pain or fever, the effects usually start within 30 minutes.
Aspirin functions similarly to other NSAIDs, but it also inhibits platelet activity.
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Which statements are accurate regarding chronic aspirin poisoning? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1. Chronic aspirin poisoning is often mistaken for viral illness.
2. Acute ingestion of aspirin is always more serious than chronic ingestion.
3. Peritoneal dialysis is used in the treatment of severe cases of aspirin poisoning.
4. Acute ingestion of aspirin causes severe toxicity when the dosage is 200 to 250 mg/kg.
5. Chronic ingestion of aspirin occurs when an amount greater than 100 mg/kg per day is ingested for more than 2 days
how do the hunger and satiety hormones respond to drastic caloric restriction and weight loss in overweight and obese individuals?
Satiety hormone levels fall and stay at some of these rates for up to a year while hunger hormone levels increase.
What are hormones of hunger?The hormonal steroidogenic receptor is activated by the complex gut hormone ghrelin (GHS-R). The stimulatory effects of ghrelin on food intake, fat storage, and development hormone release are its defining characteristics. The "hunger hormone" ghrelin is well-known for its role.
What occurs when ghrelin levels are high?Ghrelin influences both calorie intake and energy expenditure. According to studies, the rise in ghrelin controls how much food is consumed in terms of energy. Overeating can increase energy expenditure, which results in a decrease in energy.
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the nurse is planning care for a patient with a t3 spinal cord injury. the nurse includes which intervention in the plan to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia?
Nurse is planning care for patient with a t3 spinal cord injury, then intervention that must be included to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia : assist patient to develop a daily bowel routine to prevent constipation.
How to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia when client has T3 spinal cord injury?Autonomic hyperreflexia is that condition in which involuntary nervous system overreacts to external or bodily stimuli.
Autonomic hyperreflexia occurs when nerve messages that used to go up the spinal cord to the brain are blocked.
To reduce the risk of autonomic hyperreflexia: Care should be taken to not let the bladder become too full, pain should be controlled, practice proper bowel care, avoid bladder infections.
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After the physician has discussed euthanasia with a terminal client and his family, the nurse assesses their understanding of the topic. Which of the following statements by the family indicates that learning has occurred?
"It is alright to stop dialysis."
The nurse said : "It is alright to stop dialysis."
What is euthanasia ?Euthanasia is the practice of ending a patient's life in order to relieve their suffering. Normally, the patient in question would have a serious illness or be in excruciating agony.
Different actions are classified as "euthanasia." These distinctions between the various versions are listed below.
Active euthanasia refers to the deliberate killing of a patient, such as administering a deadly amount of medication. Occasionally known as "aggressive" euthanasia.
The deliberate withholding of artificial life support, such as a ventilator or feeding tube, is known as passive euthanasia.
Euthanasia carried out voluntarily: with the patient's permission.
Without the patient's consent, for instance if the patient is unconscious and it is unknown what he or she wants to happen to him or her.
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most cases of sinusitis and otitis media do not require treatment with antibiotics. they will usually resolve on their own due to natural immune responses. group of answer choices true false
Most cases of sinusitis and otitis media do not require treatment with antibiotics. they will usually resolve on their own due to natural immune responses is true.
Antibiotics are not always required to treat sinus infections. In most cases, sinus infections that are not treated with medicine go away on their own. If you don't need antibiotics, they won't help you, and their side effects could still be harmful. Side effects can range significantly, from very modest reactions like a rash to more serious health problems.
The majority of sinus infections are minor, lasting only a few days to a few weeks. Your health is not in danger from them. However, if sinusitis is left untreated, it could get worse. These include nasal polyps, a deviated septum, and severe allergies.
A week-long sinus infection is frequently brought on by viruses. Bacterial sinus infections, however, could last a while.
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a person is taking a long plane trip and wants to take medication to prevent a blood clot from forming. which medication would you recommend?
A person who is boarding a lengthy flight wishes to take medication to avoid developing a blood clot. Aspirin is the drug that would be suggested.
What principal treatment modality is employed for big pleural effusions?To identify and treat pleural effusions, clinicians perform a minimally invasive procedure called thoracentesis. The pleural space, also known as the pleural cavity, has an excessive amount of fluid in this disorder.
In what category does aspirin fall?A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicine (NSAID), aspirin is an acetylated salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) (NSAIDs). These drugs have a wide range of pharmacologic effects, including analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet characteristics, and they lessen the signs and symptoms of inflammation.
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a patient taking an alpha-adrenergic medication for the treatment of hypertension is having a problem with incontinence. what does the nurse tell the patient?
The incontinence will go away once the drug is changed or stopped. If a patient with hypertension who is taking an alpha-adrenergic drug experiences incontinence issues.
What kind of care should someone seek for urine incontinence first?If you have been diagnosed with urge incontinence, bladder training might be one of the first therapies you are given. If you have mixed urine incontinence, bladder training and strengthening your pelvic floor muscles may be combined.
What kind of medication can be utilized to prevent bladder contraction in an incontinence client?Urge incontinence is commonly treated with the anticholinergic drugs tolterodine (Detrol) and oxybutynin (Ditropan; Oxytrol).
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the nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) to assess for signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure. which sign or symptom should be included in the teaching plan?
The signs and symptoms that should be included in the teaching plan are Peripheral edema.
Pulmonary hypertension leads to a COPD complication known as right-sided heart failure.
Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and weight gain as a result of an increase in fluid volume are indications of right-sided heart failure.
Chronic hypoxemia-related disorders are linked to clubbing of the nail beds. Left-sided cardiac failure and hypertension are related. Heart failure patients have diminished appetites.
Peripheral edema is the medical term for leg swelling brought on by fluid retention in the tissues of the leg. It may be brought on by an issue with the kidneys, the lymphatic system, or the venous circulation system.
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What does edward kienholz use in the installation the state hospital to emphasize the complete isolation of the patient and to evoke a shocking impact on the viewer?.
Actual institutional objects edward kienholz use in the installation the state hospital to emphasize the complete isolation of the patient.
How do patients describe who they are?The Latin word "patiens," which means to endure or suffer, is translated as "patient" in English. This terminology describes the patient as being incredibly passive, going through the required pain, and enduring the actions of the outside expert.
Who or what is patient?Since it takes learning to wait patiently in the face of annoyance or suffering, which is almost everywhere, we have the opportunity to develop patience. However, the secret to a contented existence may lie in having patience.
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