Identity-continuity aging theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in the similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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The identity-continuity ageing theory is the process of guaranteeing that mental attributes like self-awareness, sentience, sapience, and the capacity to understand how one's environment and self interact.
What does the philosopher's continuity theory of personal identity entail?
According to Locke, psychological continuity determines one's personal identity. He believed that the foundation of one's personal identity, or "self," was consciousness, namely recollection, rather than the substance of either the soul or the body.
What does it mean to have a constant psychological state?
Experts in psychology claim that continuity in psychology refers to the capacity to proceed in a similar continually and endlessly. Gestalt Theory discusses perception and the development of continuous patterns as prerequisites for continuity in general.
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the clinic nurse is preparing to explain the concepts of kohlberg's theory of moral development with a parent. the nurse should tell the parent that which factor motivates good and bad actions for the child at the preconventional level?
The preconventional level provides the reasoning, the child uses external and physical events (such as pleasure and pain) as the source for decisions about moral rightness or wrongness, his standards are based strictly on what will avoid punishment or bring pleasure.
Lawrence Kohlberg was inspired by Jean Piaget’s work on moral judgment to create a stage theory of moral development in childhood.
The theory includes three levels and six stages of moral thinking. Each level includes two stages. The levels are called preconventional morality, conventional morality, and postconventional morality.
Since it was initially proposed, Kohlberg’s theory has been criticized for overemphasizing a Western male perspective on moral reasoning.
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the nurse is assessing a client admitted with a deep vein thrombosis with an elevated red blood cell count. the admitting diagnosis is polycythemia vera. what is the hallmark clinical sign of pv?
Answer:
splenomegaly
Explanation:
a client has a risk for skin breakdown due to incontinence. which nursing actions for the client will help with decreasing this risk? select all that apply.
In individuals with fecal and/or urine incontinence, dermatitis associated with incontinence—a clinical symptom of moisture-related skin damage—is frequently taken into account.The prevalence rate among hospitalized patients has been shown to be as high as 27%.
How may incontinence-related skin deterioration be treated?Think about applying a moisture barrier or skin sealant.A barrier of protection is created on the skin by creams or ointments containing petrolatum, lanolin, or zinc oxide.Some skin care treatments coat the skin with a transparent, protective film, frequently in the form of the a spray or even a towelette.
What nursing interventions are there?These include evaluation, planning, implementation, diagnosis, and assessment.
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the nurse is conducting a vision assessment on a 2-year-old child. the nurse should assess for which visual ability in this child?
For a 2-year-old child, the best vision assessment is accomplished by determining whether each eye can fixate on an object, maintain the fixation, and follow the object's movement.
Vision assessment is a procedure that's done to gather information about the health and function of the vision system. For a 2-year-old kid, the assessment is usually done by shining a penlight in the eye to measure the response of their pupil.
Using the penlight, the nurse can check whether the eye can fixate on the light as well as maintain the fixation. They also should check if the child is able to follow the penlight if it's moved around.
One can use something other that interest the child other than penlight, such as toys.
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a client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 units of u-100 regular insulin and 25 units of u-100 isophane insulin suspension (nph) to be taken before breakfast. at about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. what is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?
A client with diabetes mellitus experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness, these are due to serum glucose level less then 70.
Diabetes mellitus refers to a bunch of diseases that have an effect on however the body uses blood glucose (glucose). Glucose is a very important supply of energy for the cells that frame the muscles and tissues. It is also the brain's main supply of fuel. the most reason for diabetes varies by kind.
The glucose serum is that the simplest and most direct single check offered to check for diabetes. The check measures the number of glucose within the fluid portion of the blood. It's referred to as a “serum” check thanks to this fluid portion of the blood. There are multiple elements to the blood.
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the use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called
The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects is called Inappropriate polypharmacy.
What is Inappropriate polypharmacy ?
Polypharmacy may or may not be necessary. It may not be appropriate for a variety of reasons, such as prescribing more medications than necessary, medications with unfavorable side effects, or medications in combination that have negative drug-drug and drug-disease interactions.
A definition of polypharmacy that acknowledges the use of both appropriate and inappropriate pharmaceuticals would read, for instance, "polypharmacy extends from the use of a high number of medications to the use of possibly inappropriate medications, medication underuse and duplication."
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as much as 80 percent of the risk for cancer is related to lifestyle or environmental factors. group of answer choices true false
The bulk of cancer deaths associated with recognised risk factors are caused by tobacco use, infectious diseases, poor food, excessive body weight, physical inactivity, and alcohol use.
Does lifestyle have an impact on cancer?
The various studies that have been conducted on the potential causes of CA (cancer) have shown that many intrinsic and extrinsic variables can contribute to its development and occurrence. The external factors that have received the most attention include cigarettes (lifestyle choices) and their connection to the development of pulmonary CA in smokers, as well as bricklayers' high occupational exposure to asbestos (workplace exposure), a material that is frequently used in the production of sheets and which, among other things, causes stomach and lung CA.
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the nurse is assessing the breasts of a caucasian woman who has just been diagnosed with paget disease. what would the nurse expect to find?
The nurse anticipates finding cramping and abdominal pain.
What is the ideal patient position for detecting breast retraction or dimpling?The patient is seated facing the examiner as the breasts are initially visually evaluated. The patient is told to raise their hands above their heads and place them on their hips.
What part of the breast experiences breast cancer cases the most frequently?The glands that produce breast milk are called lobules. Lobular malignancies are tumors that develop here. The milk is transported to the nipple by ducts, which are tiny channels that emerge from the lobules. The most typical place for breast cancer to begin is here.
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a client will be receiving a bone graft from an unrelated individual. which type of graft does the nurse inform the client that he or she will be receiving?
The nurse needs to inform the client that he or she will be receiving Allograft.
What is allograft ?A tissue allograft is a transplant of tissue from one member of the same species to another. For instance, an allograft that is given to the recipient in an allotransplantation is a liver from one person.
Allografts are utilized in a variety of operations to reduce pain, restore limb function, save lives, and enhance patient quality of life. dental surgery, plastic surgery, neurosurgery, and orthopedics.
Graft fractures (28% and 29% of patients, respectively) and subluxation (32% and 29% of patients, respectively) were the most frequent complications in the proximal and distal allograft groups. The most frequent outcomes (both 23%) in the intercalary allograft group were nonunion and hardware failure.
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a nurse is working in a clinic where a family member's spouse is treated for a sexually transmitted disease. the nurse is concerned about the risk to family members. what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Encourage the client, if they haven't already, to discuss the diagnosis with the family member. The nurse has no choice but to suggest that the client speak with his spouse.
How are diagnostics and diagnoses different from one another?Diagnoses is the plural form; it is pronounced [dahy-uhg-noh-seez]. The verb for this is diagnose. The term "diagnose" can refer to either an ailment or a patient, but both terms indicate the same thing—to diagnose is to determine what particular condition the patient is dealing with.
What makes a diagnosis significant?Any type of therapy you might get, from medication to surgery, will be based on your diagnosis. A correct diagnosis is essential to avoid wasting time on the incorrect course of treatment. The patient is a key component in making the right diagnosis.
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a child is hospitalized with nephrotic syndrome. which measurement is best for the nurse to determine the child's edema?
Pallor, edema, anorexia, and proteinuria are among the assessment results that the nurse should be prepared to see. Also, the nurse should keep checking the eye to measure the child's edema.
How nephrotic syndrome causes edema in children?The term "nephrotic syndrome" refers to a kidney disorder in which an excessive amount of protein is excreted in the urine due to damaged renal blood vessels. Nephrotic syndrome typically results from damaged glomeruli that permit excessive protein leakage from blood into urine.
Edema is a term for swelling in the body tissues brought on by an accumulation of fluid; it most frequently affects the face, eyelids, feet, ankles, and abdomen. The loss of albumin through the urine and too much sodium are the two main causes of edema.
The most typical symptom of pediatric nephrotic syndrome is swelling around the eyes.
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a client presents at the primary health care provider's office with complaints of a ringlike rash on the upper leg. which question would the nurse ask first?
The nurse should ask the client if he has been camping the last month or any nearby weeks.
What does ring like structure on the upper leg indicate?The fungal condition known as ringworm leaves your skin with a circular, ring-like appearance.
In warm, wet parts of the body, jogger's itch (tinea cruris) is a fungal infection that results in a red, itchy rash. The rash frequently appears on the inner thighs and groin and may resemble a ring. Because it affects so many athletes, jock itch has earned its name. Those who sweat a lot or are overweight are likewise more likely to experience it.
A ring-shaped rash that is itchy, scaly, and slightly elevated is frequently caused by ringworm. Typically, the rings begin small and then spread outward. A rash known as ringworm of the body (tinea corporis) is brought on by a fungus.
The rash is typically round and irritating, with clearer skin in the center.
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when teaching a group of nursing students about the liver, the nurse relates that kupffer cells function to remove harmful substances or cells from the portal blood and venous sinusoids through which process?
The nurse explains to a group of student nurses about the liver that kupffer cells work through the Phagocytosis process to remove unwanted cells or chemicals from of the portal blood as well as venous sinusoids.
Phagocytosis is indeed a biological mechanism for ingestion or inhalation and expelling objects with a diameter of more than 0.5 m, such as bacteria, foreign objects, and apoptotic cells. Since phagocytosis occurs in a wide variety of cell types, it is crucial for maintaining tissue homeostasis. phagocytes, a kind of living cell, devour or engulf another cells or particles through a process known as phagocytosis. An amoeba or other free-living single cell might make up the phagocyte, or it could be one of the body's cells like a white blood cell. Phagocytic cells identify encroaching bacteria by the evolutionarily old and receptor-driven process of phagocytosis, which kills them following internalization. Eater, a phagocytosis receptor that is only expressed on phagocytes from Drosophila.
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which actions should the nurse perform when administering an im (intermuscular) injection? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
When giving fluticasone propionate to an asthmatic patient, the nurse would rinse the oral cavity with water afterward.
What is the purpose of the mouth cavity?The oral cavity, also known as your mouth, is an oval-shaped aperture in your skull. From the lips to the throat, it runs. It's crucial for several biological processes, including speech, breathing, and food digestion. Tissues in a healthy lip are pink, moist, odorless, and painless.
What's the make-up of the oral cavity?The lips, gingivae, teeth, retromolar trigone, floor of the mouth, facial tissue, mobile tongue, and oral cavity floor are all parts of the oral cavity. Despite not being a member of the oral cavity, the major oral glands are closely related to the anatomy of the nasal cavity.
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It's the law. Under New York law, you can get a citation for riding your bike while listening to music using headphones or earbuds in both ears. It is lawful, however, to listen to music with only one earbud keeping the other ear free.
Sensory deprivation. One of the main ways that people alert each other to danger on the road is through sound. Whether it's honking, yelling or ringing a bicycle bell, you're less likely to hear any of these warnings if you're listening to music putting you at higher risk of an accident.
Decreased attention. The more stimuli you have to contend with, the more difficult it is to dedicate your full attention to one particular task. If you get caught up in a song or story you're listening to while cycling, it can increase your distractibility which could have disastrous consequences.
The majority of cycling-related accidents involve a cyclist and a motor vehicle. Not surprisingly, the injuries a cyclist suffers in such collisions tend to be disproportionately serious and often fatal. Therefore, if you're cycling in traffic, foregoing the headphones can prove to be a life-saving decision.
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Anthony has secretly been taking anabolic steroids to improve his athletic performance. Which of the following is a side effect that might tip off his friends and teammates that he has been abusing steroids?A) He is no longer aggressive or violent.B) His skin is remarkably free of acne.C) He has noticeably grown breasts.D) His cholesterol levels have never been lower.
Option C is the correct answer.
Anabolic steroids are prescription-only medicines that are sometimes taken without medical advice to increase muscle mass and improve athletic performance.
If used in this way, they can cause serious side effects and addiction.
Anabolic steroids are manufactured drugs that copy the effects of the male hormone testosterone. They have limited medical uses and are not the same as corticosteroids, a different type of steroid drug that's more commonly prescribed.
Side effects include:-
1. reduced sperm count
2. infertility
3. shrunken testicles
4. erectile dysfunction
5. hair loss
6. breast development
7. increased risk of prostate cancer
8. severe acne
9. stomach pain
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what is the condition in which the heart does not pump blood as well as it should and blood and fluid back up into the lungs? multiple choice rheumatic heart disease congenital heart disease cardiomyopathy congestive heart failure
Congestive heart failure. Congestive heart failure, often known as heart failure, happens when the heart muscle is unable to pump blood and blood pressure as well as it should.
This commonly causes blood to pool and fluid to build up in the lungs, which can lead to shortness of breath. Some cardiac conditions, such as coronary artery disease (coronary artery disease) or high blood pressure, cause the heart to eventually become too weak or stiff to fill and pump blood effectively. With the right treatment, heart failure symptoms and signs can be reduced, and some patients also might survive longer. Making lifestyle changes, such as decreasing weight, exercising more, eating less salt, and managing stress, can enhance your quality of life. Nevertheless, heart failure puts your life at danger. One way to achieve this is to prevent and treat conditions like coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, insulin, and overweight that can result in heart failure.
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a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine (prozac) for post traumatic stress disorder. which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
the statement of a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine (prozac) for post-traumatic stress disorder that the nurse must include in the teaching is "I will take this medication before going to work."
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant drug that works by increasing the natural substance serotonin in the brain. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is responsible for regulating emotions, sleep, and appetite. When the number of serotonin increases, emotional disorders, and mental disorders can also be overcome.
Things to note before taking fluoxetine do not drive a vehicle or do activities that require alertness after taking fluoxetine because this drug can cause drowsiness.
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when planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, what does the nurse understand is the primary treatment goal?
While planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, the nurse should understand as the primary treatment goal that the treatment of oxygenation needs of heart muscles should be priorly done.
What is cardiogenic shock?Meaning:Also known as Cardiac ShockThe condition when heart is not able to pump out blood in abundance to the brain and to all other vital organs.Symptoms Pressure and squeegeeing pain in the center of your chest.shortness of breadth.Chest pain episode increases.4 Stages of shockinitialcompensatoryprogressiverefractoryMedication:Treating oxygenation needs of heart muscles.intravenous fluids to support BP and Functioning of heart.To know more abut cardiogenic shock visit
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a client at a health care facility is being treated for cancer of the bladder. the physician uses a urinary diversion to help the client with urinary elimination. what describes a urinary diversion?
When urine flow is obstructed or when it is necessary to get around a diseased part of the urinary system, a surgical technique called urinary diversion establishes a new pathway for pee to leave your body.
The ureters are surgically inserted somewhere else, either one or both. Your body's drainage system for getting rid of urine, which is made up of waste and surplus fluid, is called the urinary tract. Urine should pass from your kidneys through your ureters, bladder, and urethra before leaving your body. The urine may accumulate in your bladder, ureters, or kidneys when it is unable to flow regularly. This accumulation of urine may result in discomfort, renal failure, urinary tract infections, calculi or stones, damage to the urinary system, or all of the above. A accumulation of urine in the urinary system can be fatal if addressed.
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in 2008, the fda approved a sweetener derived from a south american shrub called aspartame; you can purchase this sweetener as a dietary supplement called
Aspartame, a sweetener derived from a South American shrub, received FDA approval in 2008; you can buy it as a dietary supplement called Sweet leaf.
What is sweetener?
A sweetener is a substance that is added to food or beverages to give them the flavor of sweetness, either because it actually contains sugar or a sugar replacement with a sweet flavor. Artificial sweeteners are widely utilized in commercially produced food and beverages today.
Is sugar the only sweetener?
Artificial sweeteners are man-made alternatives to sugar. They could, however, be manufactured using substances that are found in nature, such as sugar or even herbs. Artificial sweeteners are also known as potent sweeteners since they are significantly sweeter than sugar.
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an injury causing any restriction of normal activity beyond the day of the injury's occurrence is a(n): a. unintentional injury. b. fatal injury. c. disabling injury. d. fatal injury.
An injury is considered to be disabling if it prevents you from engaging in your usual activities for more than one day after the accident.
What are the top 5 inadvertent wounds?Automobile accidents, suffocation, drowning, poisoning, fire/burns, falls, sports, and recreational activities are some of the most typical unintentional injury kinds in the United States.
What kind of harm are considered unintentional?Accidents are not injuries since they may be prevented. Instead of being unpredictable, uncontrollable phenomena, injury incidents are predictable, avoidable occurrences with obvious causes. Accidents that cause injuries but weren't intended to do so are referred to as unintentional injuries.
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which resource(s) does the nurse utilize to identify the right client when administering medications? select all that apply.
The client's medication, allergy , and medical background must all be reviewed by the nurse.
The nurse should go over the client's medication, allergy, and medical history to prevent any potential issues. To make sure that the correct drug is administered at the proper time and by the proper route, the nurse should read and match the medication's label with the patient's medical record at least three times (before, during, and after preparing the medication). The drug must be given between 30 and 60 minutes prior to the planned time to be considered timely and in accordance with the doctor's recommendation. The safe preparation of drugs is encouraged by giving oneself enough time and few distractions.
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which type of pharmacologic therapy does the nurse anticipate administering to a client for treatment of a spastic bladder in order to decrease bladder hyperactivity?
The pharmacologic therapy nurse should anticipate administering to a client for treatment of a spastic bladder in order to decrease bladder hyperactivity is anticholinergic medications.
What is a bladder spasm?A bladder function issue that results in an unexpected urge to urinate.
Although it can happen in men, overactive bladder typically affects women. Risk factors include getting older, diabetes, and an enlarged prostate.
The need to urinate could be difficult to suppress and result in unintentional urine leakage (incontinence). It could be humiliating or restrict activity.
Exercises for the pelvic floor muscles, prescription drugs, and nerve stimulation are some treatments that can lessen or get rid of symptoms.
What triggers bladder spasms?Constipation can result in bladder spasms in addition to OAB and UTIs. excessive use of alcohol or coffee. Several drugs, including furosemide and bethanechol (Urecholine) (Lasix).
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the nurse is slowly advancing a nasogastric (ng) tube when the client begins to gasp and is unable to vocalize. which scenario has likely occurred?
The nurse is slowly advancing a nasogastric (ng) tube when the client begins to gasp and is unable to vocalize. The patient's airway contains the NGT.
What is nasogastric tube ?A tube that is put into the stomach through the nose, then down the neck and esophagus. It can be used to remove items from the stomach as well as to administer medications, liquids, and liquid food. Enteral nutrition refers to feeding someone through a nasogastric tube.
The single-lumen Levin and double-lumen Salem's sump NG tubes are the two most widely used varieties. The double-lumen sump tube is suitable for continuous lavage or irrigation of the stomach, whereas the single-lumen tubes are best for decompression. Both can be applied to either goal.
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the client has just been diagnosed with bladder cancer and asks the nurse what causes it. what would be the nurse's best response to the client?
When a tumor—a development of abnormal tissue—forms in the bladder lining, the condition is referred to as bladder cancer.
Can bladder cancer typically be cured?cancer's stage (whether it is superficial or invasive bladder cancer, and whether it has spread to other places in the body). The prognosis for early bladder cancer is frequently favorable.
Who is most susceptible to bladder cancer?The primary risk factor for bladder cancer. Smokers are at least three times more likely than non-smokers to develop bladder cancer. About half of all bladder malignancies are caused by smoking.
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which neurological test should the nurse implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity?
The neurological test that the nurse should implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity is Finger to nose.
What are neurological test?A neurological test is described as the assessment of sensory neuron and motor responses, especially reflexes, to determine whether the nervous system is impaired.
A neurological test typically includes a physical examination and a review of the patient's medical history, but not deeper investigation such as neuroimaging.
A neurological test assesses motor and sensory skills, hearing and speech, vision, coordination, and balance. It may also test mental status, mood, and behavior.
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which statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence?
"I don't need to assess distal pulses on a client after a femoral arteriography." statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence
The blood flow via the arteries is examined using an arteriography. A damaged or obstructed artery may also be detected using this method. It can be used to spot bleeding or see malignancies in their natural setting. Typically, an arteriography is carried out concurrently with a therapy. Nursing care is defined as support given to sick or disabled people to meet their health care needs by or under the supervision of licensed nursing staff.They all contributed to the three Cs of improving patient experience in healthcare: communication, collaboration, and caring.
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a 69-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the er after a month-long episode of headaches and confusion. based on his alcoholism, a likely cause of his neurologic symptoms is:
Chronic subdural hematoma is the correct option
What is Chronic subdural hematoma?
A long-standing blood clot on the surface of the brain beneath its outer coating is known as a chronic subdural hematoma (SDH).
Patients with brain atrophy, or the shrinking or wasting away of brain tissue as a result of age or disease, are most likely to develop these liquid clots when they are 60 years of age or older. Minor head trauma can tear blood vessels over the brain's surface as the brain shrinks inside the skull over time, which can lead to a steady buildup of blood over several days to weeks.
Symptoms:
Up to 80% of patients report having a headache as their primary complaint. Lethargy, memory loss, disorientation, weakness, nausea, vomiting, decreased vision, and seizures are some other symptoms.Large hematoma patients may experience varied degrees of paralysis and unconsciousness.In addition to dementia, stroke, transient ischemic attacks, encephalitis, and various brain lesions like tumors or abscesses, a chronic subdural hematoma can also mimic a number of other brain diseases and disorders.Hence, Chronic subdural hematoma is the correct answer
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what is meant by the term etiology?likely future path of an illnessthe different symptoms of a given condition the cause of a disorder frequency with which a given illness occurs
Etiology means - 1. a disease or disorder's origins and progression. 2. the area of medical and psychological science dedicated to the methodical investigation of the root causes of physical and psychological disorders.
What medical term is used to describe a condition that can spread from one person to another?A communicable illness is one that can be spread from one person to another through a variety of different routes, such as coming into contact with blood or other bodily fluids, breathing in an airborne virus, or getting bitten by an insect.
The term "etiology" refers to the illness's root cause. One etiology can cause more than one disease entity, and more than one disease can result from the same etiology. A sequence of mechanistic chemical and cellular steps underlies the development of each disease entity.
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