A nightmare differs from a night terror in that generally the subject remembers __________. A. A nightmare, but not a night terror episodeb. A night terror episode, but not a nightmarec. The duration of a night terror episode, but not a nightmared. The duration of a nightmare, but not a night terror episode.

Answers

Answer 1

Both nightmares and night terrors, also known as sleep terrors, fall under the umbrella term of parasomnias, a category of sleep disorders. Unwanted experiences that occur during sleep or during the transition between sleep and wakefulness can be used to classify parasomnias.

Unlike nightmares, sleep terrors are different. A person who has a nightmare wakes up from the dream and might remember specifics, but a person who experiences a sleep terror episode does not. Typically, when kids wake up, they have no memories of their nighttime terrors.

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Related Questions

What is a contraindication for breastfeeding in the less developed parts of the world?.

Answers

The following are the only genuine contraindications to breastfeeding:

children in the US born to mothers with characteristic galactosemia (galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase deficiency) with HIV infection (HIV).

What is Breastfeeding contraindications?

Breastfeeding is contraindicated in cases when the mother has illnesses or addictions that would be hazardous to the infant if the mother continued to breastfeed. Breastfeeding is healthier and the best way to feed a baby since breast milk includes numerous nutrients that formulas found on store shelves lack.

Conditions that could endanger an infant's health if they eat their mother's breast milk are known as contraindications to breastfeeding.

a lactating mother who has an untreated TB infection.

Examples include galactosemia, HIV that is untreated, active tuberculosis that is untreated, human T lymphotropic virus types I or II, drug usage, or moms who are receiving chemotherapy or radiation.

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What kind of claim is used for billing provider fee-for-service claims to commercial health insurance companies?.

Answers

A fee-for-service claim is typically used to bill a provider's services to a commercial health insurance company.

What is health insurance?
A type of insurance known as health insurance as well as medical insurance covers all or a portion of the risk associated with a person needing medical care. The risk is distributed among many people, just like with other kinds of insurance. An insurer can create a regular finance structure, like a monthly premium as well as payroll tax, to provide the funds to pay for health regular care specified in the contract agreement by estimating the overall risk of serious health risk as well as healthcare system expenses so over risk pool. A central organisation, such as a government agency, for-profit corporation, or private company, is in charge of administering the benefit. Health insurance is described as "coverage that provides again for payments of benefits in the event of sickness or injury," as defined by the Health Insurance Association of America.

This type of claim is based on the specific services that were provided to the patient during the visit, and the amount is determined by the insurance company's fee schedule.

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Mateen works at a clinic that provides substance abuse counseling to adults in need. Which of the following inventories would be most useful to him in assisting the individuals he counsels?
MMPI-2

Answers

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2) is the inventory most useful to assist him in providing counseling to adults with substance abuse.

The information from MMPI-2 tests is especially helpful in occupational health settings with complex presentations when there is uncertainty about the patient's actual condition. For instance, the MMPI-2 should typically be able to identify patients who are purposefully or unintentionally somatizing. The MMPI-2 can also be used to evaluate psychological stability in those who operate in "high-risk" fields like law enforcement or the nuclear power industry.

The fact that the MMPI-2 is a strictly licensed test that can only be purchased, administered, and interpreted by a clinical psychologist or psychiatrist with the necessary training is one of the MMPI-2's drawbacks for the occupational health physician.

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Akil is writing a letter asking the school cafeteria to offer healthy snacks. Which is the best evidence to support his claim? students need to have healthy choices, even if they still choose cookies over carrots. Parents should be responsible for teaching their children how to make healthy choices. There should be a wide variety of healthy foods available for purchase in the school cafeteria. Serving healthy foods will have more impact in fighting childhood obesity and the rise in type 2 diabetes.

Answers

Gives you a jolt of energy if you go long hours without eating and your blood sugar levels fall. reduces your appetite and helps you avoid overeating at your next meal. while choosing certain foods like fresh fruit or nuts, provides additional nutrition.

Pick nutritious snacks. To develop the habit of picking a variety of nutritious foods for your snacks, follow the advice for healthy eating. Consider your snack choices. Consume your snacks mindfully, without interruptions like TV. Prepare your snacks in advance.

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You are doing a biochemical analysis of molecules from cells from patients with a certain disease compared to cells from control patients who do not have the disease. You find that patients with the disease have unusually high levels of cytosine molecules with ch3 groups attached to their cells. Which modification has taken place in the cells from the disease patients?.

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The cell modification associated with differential methylation on cytosine bases of disease patients is considered an epigenetic modification, i.e. DNA methylated bases.

What is epigenetics?

Epigenetics is a subfield in genetics that studies how different chemical modifications on the DNA nucleotide sequence and associated chromatin proteins (histones) may alter the expression of certain genes, which has a fundamental importance in developmental pathways as well as to understand disease states.

The epigenetic modifications include DNA methylation grouped on CpG islets (cytosine-rich regions) acetylation and or methylation of histones, non-coding RNA pathways, etc, which work together to shape gene expression in specialized eukaryotic cells.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that epigenetics is a field within genetics that studies how chemical groups added to the DNA and or associated chromatin proteins may alter the expression of genes and thus contribute to the disease state and development.

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To see steady improvements in fitness, a person needs to have incremental increases in _____ over several weeks or months.

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The current Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans state that adults need 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise per week and two days of muscle-building exercise.

Although 150 minutes of exercise per week may seem like a lot, you don't have to complete it all at once. Aim for at least 30 minutes of moderate physical activity each day as a general objective. You might need to exercise more if you want to lose weight, keep it off, or reach certain fitness goals. Regular physical activity lowers the risk of contracting a number of diseases. For significant health benefits, adults need to engage in vigorous-intensity aerobic activity for at least 1 hour and 30 minutes each week.

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People with mood disorders:
may become severely depressed when things are going well or when they encounter mildly upsetting events.
insist that they are suffering from a serious physical illness, even though no medical evidence of the illness can be found.
experience episodes of feeling detached from themselves or feeling that the world around them is unreal.
are incapable of recalling important personal information

Answers

c, episodes of feeling detached

People with mood disorders: may become severely depressed when things are going well or when they encounter mildly upsetting events. Therefore option A is correct.

People with mood disorders can experience episodes of severe depression, even when things are objectively going well or when they encounter mildly upsetting events.

This symptom is commonly observed in certain mood disorders, such as major depressive disorder or bipolar disorder. It is often referred to as "depressive episodes" or "depressive episodes out of proportion."

These individuals may have a persistent feeling of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed, regardless of positive circumstances.

Therefore option A may become severely depressed when things are going well or when they encounter mildly upsetting events. is correct.

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Determine the best resource for checking out specific voluntary accreditation standards and guidelines for a rehabilitation facility is the.

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The best resource for checking out specific voluntary accreditation standards and guidelines for a rehabilitation facility is the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF).

What is rehabilitation?
Rehabilitation
is medical assistance that can help you regain, maintain, or improve the abilities you need to function in daily life. These skills could be cognitive, mental, or physical (thinking and learning). You might have lost them as a result of an illness, an accident, or a side effect from treatment. Your daily functioning and life can be improved by rehabilitation. The main objective of rehabilitation is to assist you in regaining your abilities and independence. However, each person has different objectives. They vary depending on the issue's root cause, whether it's a permanent solution, and the lost skills.

CARF is an independent, non-profit organization that accredits rehabilitation and behavioral health programs. They provide standards, policies, and procedures to help organizations measure and improve the quality of their services.

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Psychopathology includes illnesses or disorders that involve ______________ symptoms.

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Psychological or psychiatric symptoms are involved in pscychopathology.

What is pscychopathology?

Pscychopathology refers to the study related to mental disorders. The study of a person’s abnormal conditions, behavior, cognition, and experiences which differ from societal norms.

An example could be hallucinations. They may be considered a sign of psychopathology.

Abnormal behavior is classified by psychologists by the four D’s. they are: distress, deviance, danger and dysfunction.

There are five major perspectives that dominate psychopathology today:

Biological approachPsychodynamic approachCognitive approachBehavioral approach Humanistic approach

Therefore, psychopathology includes illnesses or disorders that involve psychological or psychiatric symptoms.

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The nurse manager teaches a group of graduate nurses how to respond to angry colleagues effectively. Which statement, if made by a graduate nurse, indicates a need for further instruction?
a. "It is important to consider your colleague's point of view."
b. "Anger may be caused by frustration or fear of loss of control."
c. "I should avoid interactions with angry colleagues."
d. "I may feel uncomfortable when dealing with an angry colleague."
Answer: C
Nurses should be assertive and confront a colleague who is angry instead of using avoidance. When dealing with angry expressions, it is important to consider the other person's point of view. Anger is based on a sense of powerlessness, frustration, and fear of loss of control. It is common to feel discomfort when a colleague expresses anger.
p. 303

Answers

If graduate nurse says c. "I should avoid interactions with angry colleagues.", it indicates further instruction.

Anger is usually a consequence of fear of loss of control, powerlessness or frustration. Though the words of angry person do seem hurtful, they are a buildup of suppressions.

It is suitable to confront such person, which has two benefits. The suppressed emotions find an exit, lightining the mind and heart of person. They may have clear point of view after this. Confronting also provides an opportunity to clear the misunderstanding if any. However, remember to understand the point of view and do not invalidate their feelings.

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which of the following statements about malassezia is false?
a. it causes phaeohyphomycosis.
b. it is a basidomycete. c. it tends to develop into a chronic infection. d. it causes pityriasis. e. it is part of the microbiota of the skin.

Answers

Phaeohyphomycosis is not caused by malassezia.

Phaeohyphomycotic: What is it?

Phaeohyphomycosis refers to illnesses caused by a large group of several organisms collectively referred to as "dematiaceous" or "melanized" fungus.These fungi stand out because most of their melanin is contained in their cell walls, where it probably serves as a virulence factor. It has an impact on the brain, paranasal sinuses, skin, and subcutis (CNS). Phaeohyphomycotic is the name given to infections of the deep tissues and subcutaneous layers brought on by brown-pigmented (dematiaceous) molds that take on a septate mycelial structure in tissue.

As a result, the correct response is that it causes phaeohyphomycotic.

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Luis was thinking about the ecosystem in her favorite park. His favorite species of frog is no longer getting enough food from the environment, so he sees fewer and fewer each year.

In school, he talked about cloning with his class. Luis is wondering if it would help the ecosystem to release cloned frogs into the park. What do you think?

Identify and explain one potential advantage and one potential disadvantage of releasing cloned frogs into the park.

Answers

An ecosystem is a region where different species of plants, animals, and other organisms coexist in harmony with the environment, including the climate and landscape.

What is ecosystem?

An ecosystem is a region where a bubble of life is created by plants, animals, and other organisms interacting with the weather, environment, and other factors.

Abiotic variables, or nonliving components, coexist with biotic components in ecosystems. Plants, animals, and other species are biotic factors. Along with rocks, temperature and humidity are abiotic variables.

Every component of an ecosystem is directly or indirectly dependent upon every other component. An ecosystem's temperature changes frequently have an impact on the types of plants that can grow there, for example.

Animals that rely on plants for food and shelter must change with the times, relocate to another ecosystem, or perish.

Therefore, An ecosystem is a region where different species of plants, animals, and other organisms coexist in harmony with the environment, including the climate and landscape.

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Psychopathology includes illnesses or disorders that involve ______________ symptoms.

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Psychopathology includes illnesses or disorders that involve psychological, emotional, and behavioral symptoms.

What is Psychopathology?

Psychopathology is the scientific study of mental problems, including its causes, symptoms, and remedies. It is a branch of psychology that investigates how abnormal behaviour, ideas, and feelings affect a person's ability to function in everyday life. It seeks to comprehend, explain, and treat psychological issues such as anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder.

What are the symptoms of  Psychopathology?

The symptoms of Psychopathology vary depending on the type of disorder, but in general, they include:

1. Unusual behavior or thinking patterns.

2. Difficulty in interpersonal relationships.

3. Disruption of normal functioning.

4. Feelings of guilt, sadness or anxiety.

5. Impulsive or dangerous behaviors.

6. Substance abuse.

7. Problems with concentration and/or memory.

8. Distorted perceptions or beliefs.

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The type of test that you are taking now which is measuring what you know in psychology is what kind of test?.

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I had a stroke trying to read this bro what

the nutrition facts label on a box of breakfast cereal shows that the product provides 45% of the daily value for iron. which of the following statements is true?

Answers

One serving of cereal provides 45% of the recommended amount of iron for the general population.

The nutrition facts panel is a table that lists the serving sizes for each nutrient included in the meal.

Therefore, 45% of the Daily Value for iron (Fe) signifies that one serving will only provide the consumer with 45% of the recommended daily intake of iron, regardless of the customer's age.

Due to processes used to fortify Cornflakes with vitamins and minerals, it ranks as the cereal with the highest concentration of iron.

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the nurse instructs an older adult client on the use and care of a new hearing aid. which client statement indicates that teaching has been effective?

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''I should expect to change the battery after 80 hours of use.'' is the client statement indicating effective teaching  by the nurse on hearing aid usage.

What are the effective teaching strategies in nursing?Teaching ability, a safe learning environment, clinical competency, caring interpersonal interactions, and evaluation are five qualities that student nurses viewed as essential to effective teaching in nursing practice. Nurse educators need to be highly educated, knowledgeable, clinically experienced, and communicatively skilled. Keeping the wording simple: Keeping things simple also entails educating your patient before discharge. Education of the patient should start during the initial evaluation and last until discharge. The degree of health literacy is unrelated to the degree of literacy. Applying the teach-back method: By ensuring that your patient repeats back precise information, you can be sure they comprehend and close any communication gaps. Be understanding: A patient will struggle to acquire new ideas or recall specifics if they are experiencing discomfort, nausea, or breathing problems.Even with high comprehension abilities, a person may struggle to comprehend medical facts in order to make wise judgments.

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A client is evaluated at a clinic, and the healthcare provider suspects that the client has anemia and a peptic ulcer. To determine if the client has a peptic ulcer, the nurse expects that what diagnostic test will be performed?

Answers

The symptoms that determine the peptic ulcer and anemia are:

Burning stomach pain, feeling of fullness, bloating, intolerance to fatty foods, heartburn and uausea.

Your health practitioner can also additionally use a scope to take a look at your top digestive system. During endoscopy, your health practitioner passes a hole tube prepared with a lens (endoscope) down your throat and into your esophagus, belly and small intestine. Using the endoscope, your health practitioner appears for ulcers.

Thus, the symptoms that a person suffering from peptic ulcer are heartburn and many more.

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Which of these is likely to lower the chances that a teen will use a seat belt?

A. Being alone in the car
B. Having a best friend who uses a seat belt
C. Seat belt laws
D. Having a parent who doesn't use a seat belt

Answers

A. Being alone in a car because there will be no one to enforce the seat belt rule

Laws like seat belt requirements and helmets on bikes often applied to children before adults were required to comply. Which BEST explains why this is
the case?
O A.
Children are less likely to follow laws.
OB.
Children cannot choose to assume a risk.
OC. It is easier to get adults to do something if children do it.
OD. There are many laws that are different for children.
Reset
Next

Answers

Answer: A

Explanation: Because

Yes, you should wear a bike helmet when riding on public roads, is the answer.

Why is it crucial to wear a helmet when biking?

decreasing head injuries A helmet can lessen the impact of a head injury in the event that you are involved in an accident while operating a two-wheeler. Particularly if you are not wearing a helmet and have exposed yourself, head or brain injuries can be fatal.

Why is it crucial for both kids and adults to use a helmet when biking?

When riding a bicycle, both children and adults should always wear helmets:

Bicycle helmets have been demonstrated to minimise the risk of head injuries by up to 85%, according to SAFE KIDS.

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safety is a big concern when using an mri. only magnetically safe objects and people should be allowed into the mri room. safety items include all of the following except:

Answers

Option (b) Metal pen. Magnets together with the ones utilized in MRI scanners are very risky machines, particularly for untrained personnel.

Only magnetically secure items and secure humans have to be allowed to go into an MRI room. Only unique stretchers, MRI-secure monitors, MRI-secure oxygen tanks, and so forth may be utilized in an MRI room. Every MRI web website online ought to have regulations and processes in vicinity to make sure the protection of sufferers and staff.

The Inkless Metal Beta Pen functions a unique steel alloy tip. As you write, tiny quantities of this steel are deposited onto the page. The silvery markings may also resemble pencil, however they're everlasting and smudge-proof.

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Correct Question:

Safety is a big concern when using an MRI. Only magnetically safe objects and people should be allowed into the MRI room. Safety items include all of the following except:

a). MRI-safe monitors

b). Metal pen

c). MRI-safe oxygen tanks

d). Special stretchers

dana has a history of iron-deficiency anemia, and she is being particularly careful during her pregnancy to ensure she is getting enough iron. each morning, she has a prenatal vitamin and a bowl of iron-fortified breakfast cereal. click to select the beverage dana should also have at breakfast that will help to increase the absorption of iron from her prenatal vitamin and the cereal.

Answers

Fiber is a nutrient that can help with pregnancy constipation. Fiber is found in whole grains (such as whole-wheat bread, whole-grain cereals, and brown rice), fruits, vegetables, and legumes (such as beans, split peas, and lentils).

Pregnancy folate deficiency is linked to birth defects such as spina bifida. Pregnant women's RDA for folate is increased by 50% over nonpregnant women's RDA. Constipation treatment begins with increasing dietary fibre and water intake, as well as moderate amounts of daily exercise. If these do not work, laxatives are used as a last resort.

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Why is shampoo not harmful to hair but soap is? select all statements that apply.

Answers

Shampoos are specifically designed to cleanse the hair and scalp without damaging the hair or stripping away its natural oils. Soap is generally too harsh for the hair and scalp and can strip away the natural oils and leave the hair feeling dry and brittle. Soap can also make the hair look dull and greasy.

What is Shampoo?
Shampoo
is a hair care product that is used to clean hair and is typically in the form of a viscous liquid. Shampoo is occasionally sold in solid bar form. The proper way to use shampoo is to apply it to wet hair, massage the shampoo into the scalp, and then rinse it out. Some users might use hair conditioner after shampooing. In order to remove excess sebum from the hair without making it unmanageable, shampoo is typically used. Shampoo is typically created by mixing a co-surfactant, most frequently cocamidopropyl betaine, with a surfactant, most frequently sodium lauryl sulphate or sodium laureth sulphate, in water. Similar to soap, the sulphate ingredient acts as both a surfactant to trap contaminants like oils.

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order the following aspects of emotional development in infancy/toddlerhood, from the earliest to the latest. developmental psychology

Answers

Children eventually learn to deal wit, discuss, and manage emotions like fear, jealousy, rage, and melancholy as part of the "development" component.

How does fear appear?

People get terrified when they perceive a threat or uncertainty from something or someone. For instance, a poor swimmer can be scared of deep water. The feeling of fear in this circumstance serves as a helpful cautionary signal. One might be able to overcome this nervousness by learning safe swimming skills.

What affects a person does fear have?

Our ability to control our emotions, understand nonverbal signs and other indications, contemplate before acting, and behave morally can all be interfered with by fear. This has a detrimental effect on how we think and make decisions, leaving

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Explain the difference between a cell, tissue, organ, organ system, and organism.

Answers

Answer:

The cells form tissue.

The tissues form organs

Organs are needed for the body's function, making it an organ system.

An organism is made up of interconnected organ systems

Explanation:

Hope this helps!!!

The following distinction is important in classifying the nature of interviews used to assess psychopathology (mental illness), especially personality disorders: A) Freudian vs. Jungian B) Rorschach vs. TAT C) Structured vs. unstructured OD) State vs. Trait

Answers

Structured vs unstructured is important in classifying the nature of interviews used to assess psychopathology, especially personality disorders.

What is  Psychopathology?

Psychopathology is the scientific study of mental disorders that are characterized by abnormal thoughts, behaviors, and emotions. It focuses on understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatments of mental illnesses. It involves examining how these disorders affect individuals and their families, as well as the biological, psychological, and social factors that contribute to their development.

What is Personality Disorder?

Personality disorder is a mental disorder characterized by enduring patterns of behavior, thought, and emotion that deviate significantly from an individual's culture. It can lead to significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Common types of personality disorders include paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic, avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders.

Therefore, the correct option is Option C) Structured vs unstructured.

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jacinda has a glass of wine after work because it relieves her anxiety. her wine drinking is likely to continue because it is followed by a reinforcer.

Answers

After work, Jacinda enjoys a glass of wine to help her relax. She will probably keep drinking wine because a bad reinforcer comes after it.

Positive punishments, such as slapping a child when he tantrums, are examples of positive reinforcers. Negative reinforcers, on the other hand, enhance the rate of operant response. A component is added (spanking) to deter unruly behaviour (throwing a tantrum). Negative reinforcement, on the other hand, includes things like eliminating restrictions from a youngster when she complies with the rules.

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the text describes the study of a language created entirely by deaf children in nicaragua. the creation of the language shows strong evidence for a preexisting, innate linguistic capability in humans. match each situation with its result.

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Below is the text that describes the study of a language in Nicaragua that was entirely made up of deaf youngsters.

1. The language has become significantly more sophisticated because to modifications and expansions made by new students.

Correct spelling: Since the school's founding, several new generations of students have attended.

2. Through hand gestures, the kids were able to establish a coherent system of rules and symbols.

Correct label: A special school was established, and deaf youngsters from across the nation were bused there.

3. Children who are deaf created gestural communication systems called "home signs."

Correct label: Deaf students in Nicaragua did not have access to educational opportunities prior to the 1980s because there were no deaf schools in the country.

4. Each gestural system (also known as "house signs") was unique and simplistic.

Correct label: The nation's deaf youngsters were dispersed and left alone.

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Which of the following is NOT considered one of the six basic facial expressions representing emotional states?
a. Disgust
b. Jealousy
c. Surprise
d. Fear

Answers

The six primary facial expressions that correspond to different emotional states do not include jealousy.

In particular, the universality hypothesis contends that facial expressions of the six fundamental internal human emotions—happy, surprised, fear, disgust, rage, and sad—across all cultures (4–7) use the same facial expressions, indicating global recognition.

They named it the Facial Action Coding System, which included 46 distinct facial muscle motions. Ekman derived six fundamental emotions from his research: joy, surprise, sorrow, fear, disgust, and rage.

Emotional expressions include basic actions like sobbing, laughing, or saying "thank you," as well as more sophisticated ones like writing a letter or presenting a gift. They also include facial expressions like smiling or frowning.

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Which of the following refers to a viewpoint that suggests that psychological disorders canonly be understood in the cultural framework within which they occur?a) Cultural fit hypothesisb) Cultural relativismc) Cultural syndromesd) Cultural display rule

Answers

Cultural relativism refers to a viewpoint that suggests that psychological disorders can only be understood in the cultural framework within which they occur.

What do you mean by Cultural relativism?

Cultural relativism is an approach to understanding different cultures and societies by examining them within the context of their own values, beliefs, and practices. It is based on the idea that each culture has its own unique way of viewing the world, and that no single culture is necessarily better or worse than another. Cultural relativism encourages people to be open-minded and tolerant towards different cultures and customs.

Therefore, the correct option is Option B) Cultural relativism.

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The USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service has simplified consumer food safety practices into four key behaviors: clean, separate, cook, and chill. Indicate which food safety principle has been violated in each of the following scenarios.
1. Ray carries burgers out to the grill on a plate. After the burgers have finished cooking, he returns them to the same plate to carry them into the house
2. At his Super Bowl party, Chuck serves tortilla chips with a dip made of ground beef and melted cheese. He and his friend munch all evening on the snacks on the coffee table.
3. Lindsey stops in the middle of preparing dinner to take out the trash. When she returns to the kitchen, she resumes chopping fresh vegetables without washing her hands.
4. Christine pulls her roasted chicken out of the oven and checks to see if it is still pink. The poultry looks like it's cooked thoroughly, so she serves it to her dinner guests
Options:
Separate
Chill
Cook
Clean

Answers

The violated safety behaviour is -

1. Seperate 2. Chill 3. Clean 4. Cook

The four key safety behaviours are described as follows -

1. Clean - It includes practice of two habits, cleaning the hands and vegetables and fruits. It is required to clean or wash the hands with warm water for 20 seconds. Also, thoroughly wash the vegetables.

2. Seperate - Use seperate plates, boards or carrying items to carry raw and cooked food.

3. Cook - Poultry should be cooked at 74° C, ground meat at 72° C and beef and pork at 63° C.

4. Chill - Maintain fridge temperature below 4° C and freezer temperature at -17° C

Not following any of the above points is violation of food safety practices which can result in diseases and disorders.

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The Rodriguez family ate One-third of a pan of brownies, and they plan to divide the remaining brownies into two equal parts. They will take one part to their block party and the other part to share with co-workers. How much of the whole pan of brownies will each place get?A model has 2 shaded parts and 1 unshaded part. which would be the highest expected growth and development occurrences at 9 months of age for an infant who has had appropriate growth assessed at each well-child visit? select all that apply. two poles are connected by a wire that is also connected to the ground. the first pole is 20 ft tall and the second pole is 10 ft tall. there is a distance of 30 ft between the two poles. where should the wire be anchored to the ground (in ft, from the shorter pole) to minimize the amount of wire needed? arturos bank tells him they have placed an eight-day hold on the funds. arturo tells them they cannot do so. is he correct? multiple choice yes, because they must make the funds available on the fifth business day following the day of deposit of the non-local check. yes, because they must make the funds available on the third business day following the day of deposit of the non-local check. no, if one of the checks was over $5,000. no, if one of the checks was over $10,000. yes, because a depositary bank must release funds on the fifth business day after transfer to a federal reserve bank. four resistors of 3.40 ohms, 6.54 ohms, 8.32 ohms, and 1.34 ohms are connected in parallel with a 12.0 v battery. find the total resistance, in ohms, of the circuit. When events generated by a random process have deviated from the population average in a short run, individuals may erroneously believe that the opposite deviation becomes more likely. This summarizes the _____.Answers:illusion of controlgambler's fallacyswitching and double switchinginherent memory bias What did the radical republicans believe should be conditions for the readmission of seceded states?. Which statement best explains why the Find Unmatched Query Wizard must be used with an outer join and not an inner join?a. An outer join is the default type of join and cannot be changed for this type of query.b. An inner join eliminates all unmatched records by design, so it cannot identify records for this type of query. c. Inner joins use data from only one table, and the Find Unmatched Query Wizard needs data from two tables. d. Outer joins are the only type of joins that have the Query Wizard options in the Create tab of the Ribbon. 41) For consumers, goods A and B are complementary goods. The cost of a resource used in the production of A decreases. As a result A) the equilibrium price of B will rise and the equilibrium price of A will fall. B) the equilibrium price of B will fall and the equilibrium price of A will rise. C) the equilibrium prices of both A and B will rise. D) the equilibrium prices of both A and B will fall. the hybridization of the oxygen atom labeled x in the structure below is . the hybridization of the oxygen atom labeled x in the structure below is . sp sp2 sp3 sp3d sp3d2 a university charges students $2,300 less for tuition each year to encourage them to stay in school. the tuition for freshman year is $34,000. write a regression equation for this formula, with y once a agent is removed, growth of microbes might resume. a. germicide b. bactericide c. bacteriostatic d. biocide The Necklace commonlit Is the converse of the following conditional True or False? "If a polygon is a triangle, then it has exactly three sides." as carmen hears a co-worker describe being mugged at gunpoint the night before, she feels fearful and anxious herself as she imagines her co-worker's plight. carmen is displaying which type of empathy? Describe the trend in atomic radius as the atomic number increases across a period. a sample of 17001700 computer chips revealed that 366% of the chips fail in the first 10001000 hours of their use. the company's promotional literature states that 399% of the chips fail in the first 10001000 hours of their use. the quality control manager wants to test the claim that the actual percentage that fail is less than the stated percentage. is there enough evidence at the 0.020.02 level to support the manager's claim? step 1 of 7 : state the null and alternative hypotheses. answer which person is demonstrating the process of initiating structure? multiple choice marouk, who gives employees time to relax and socialize delisha, who assigns tasks to individuals and workgroups glenda, who makes employees feel valued and trusted improving process consistency by utilizing written procedures and visual controls, the element of the 5s procedures is being utilized. a nurse is caring for a terminally ill client in the home. the family wants to know how to respond when the client asks whether the client is dying. which is the best response by the nurse?