The evidence of an effective resuscitation a nurse can see after a newborn resuscitation is pink tongue.
What are the signs of an effective newborn resuscitation?Lack of oxygen to an infant before, during, or after birth is referred to as hypoxia. Cardiac resuscitation should be started if the infant's heart rate is missing or if, after 30 seconds of effective ventilation, the heart rate is still below 60 bpm.
The initial steps of resuscitation are- the newborn should be placed under a radiant heat source to offer warmth. The baby should then be dried off, their airway should be cleared with a bulb syringe / suction catheter if necessary, and their breathing should be stimulated.
An increase in heart rate is the most accurate sign that a reaction to each step was successful. Also, the appearance of pink tongue is also a sign of an effective resuscitation.
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a public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (stis). the nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what sti?
When a client is identified as having Chlamydia-related sexually transmitted infections (STI), the nurse should prepare for the client to take tetracycline.
What is sexually transmitted infections?The majority of STI cases are associated with eight infections. Only four diseases are currently curable: syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomoniasis. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex virus (HSV), HIV, and human papillomavirus are the other 4 viral illnesses that cannot be cured (HPV). The virus that causes AIDS, known as HIV, is the most serious viral STD. The human papilloma virus (HPV), hepatitis B, and genital herpes are additional incurable viral STDs.
What STD Cannot be cured and can you heal from STD without antibiotics?STDs/STIs that cannot be treated are brought on by viruses like HIV, genital herpes, human papillomavirus, hepatitis, and CMV. If a person has a virus-based STI, they are always at risk of infecting their sexual partners and remain permanently infected.
No, don't count on a STI to disappear by itself. Ignoring warning signs, refusing to comply, or rejecting could seriously harm your partner's health and result in long-term problems. Even if you don't experience any symptoms, you still run the risk of developing issues and passing the virus to your sexual partners.
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what is meant by the term etiology?likely future path of an illnessthe different symptoms of a given condition the cause of a disorder frequency with which a given illness occurs
Etiology means - 1. a disease or disorder's origins and progression. 2. the area of medical and psychological science dedicated to the methodical investigation of the root causes of physical and psychological disorders.
What medical term is used to describe a condition that can spread from one person to another?A communicable illness is one that can be spread from one person to another through a variety of different routes, such as coming into contact with blood or other bodily fluids, breathing in an airborne virus, or getting bitten by an insect.
The term "etiology" refers to the illness's root cause. One etiology can cause more than one disease entity, and more than one disease can result from the same etiology. A sequence of mechanistic chemical and cellular steps underlies the development of each disease entity.
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a nurse is working in a clinic where a family member's spouse is treated for a sexually transmitted disease. the nurse is concerned about the risk to family members. what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Encourage the client, if they haven't already, to discuss the diagnosis with the family member. The nurse has no choice but to suggest that the client speak with his spouse.
How are diagnostics and diagnoses different from one another?Diagnoses is the plural form; it is pronounced [dahy-uhg-noh-seez]. The verb for this is diagnose. The term "diagnose" can refer to either an ailment or a patient, but both terms indicate the same thing—to diagnose is to determine what particular condition the patient is dealing with.
What makes a diagnosis significant?Any type of therapy you might get, from medication to surgery, will be based on your diagnosis. A correct diagnosis is essential to avoid wasting time on the incorrect course of treatment. The patient is a key component in making the right diagnosis.
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the nurse is conducting a vision assessment on a 2-year-old child. the nurse should assess for which visual ability in this child?
For a 2-year-old child, the best vision assessment is accomplished by determining whether each eye can fixate on an object, maintain the fixation, and follow the object's movement.
Vision assessment is a procedure that's done to gather information about the health and function of the vision system. For a 2-year-old kid, the assessment is usually done by shining a penlight in the eye to measure the response of their pupil.
Using the penlight, the nurse can check whether the eye can fixate on the light as well as maintain the fixation. They also should check if the child is able to follow the penlight if it's moved around.
One can use something other that interest the child other than penlight, such as toys.
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An example of a dangerous bacterial infection that is resistant to several widely used antibiotics is.
which actions should the nurse perform when administering an im (intermuscular) injection? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
When giving fluticasone propionate to an asthmatic patient, the nurse would rinse the oral cavity with water afterward.
What is the purpose of the mouth cavity?The oral cavity, also known as your mouth, is an oval-shaped aperture in your skull. From the lips to the throat, it runs. It's crucial for several biological processes, including speech, breathing, and food digestion. Tissues in a healthy lip are pink, moist, odorless, and painless.
What's the make-up of the oral cavity?The lips, gingivae, teeth, retromolar trigone, floor of the mouth, facial tissue, mobile tongue, and oral cavity floor are all parts of the oral cavity. Despite not being a member of the oral cavity, the major oral glands are closely related to the anatomy of the nasal cavity.
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which statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence?
"I don't need to assess distal pulses on a client after a femoral arteriography." statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence
The blood flow via the arteries is examined using an arteriography. A damaged or obstructed artery may also be detected using this method. It can be used to spot bleeding or see malignancies in their natural setting. Typically, an arteriography is carried out concurrently with a therapy. Nursing care is defined as support given to sick or disabled people to meet their health care needs by or under the supervision of licensed nursing staff.They all contributed to the three Cs of improving patient experience in healthcare: communication, collaboration, and caring.
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a woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. during assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. what action should the nurse take?
The nurse should take apply ice to the breasts for comfort that is Option B.
What is the importance of applying ice on the breast?Engorgement in a bottle-feeding mother can be treated by placing ice on the breasts for comfort.
Because she is not breastfeeding, ice packs and cabbage leaves can be used to treat this woman's engorgement.
A mother who is bottle-feeding should refrain from any breast stimulation, such as milk expression or pumping.
For at least the first 72 hours after giving birth, a mother who is bottle-feeding should wear a well fitted support bra or breast binder consistently. A baggy bra won't help to suppress lactation. Additionally, the movement of the bra against the breasts may stimulate the nipples, causing lactation to increase.
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a client has a risk for skin breakdown due to incontinence. which nursing actions for the client will help with decreasing this risk? select all that apply.
In individuals with fecal and/or urine incontinence, dermatitis associated with incontinence—a clinical symptom of moisture-related skin damage—is frequently taken into account.The prevalence rate among hospitalized patients has been shown to be as high as 27%.
How may incontinence-related skin deterioration be treated?Think about applying a moisture barrier or skin sealant.A barrier of protection is created on the skin by creams or ointments containing petrolatum, lanolin, or zinc oxide.Some skin care treatments coat the skin with a transparent, protective film, frequently in the form of the a spray or even a towelette.
What nursing interventions are there?These include evaluation, planning, implementation, diagnosis, and assessment.
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the registered nurse (rn) teaches the nursing student about the implementation process of | nursing. which example will the rn use to describe indirect care interventions?
The example given to illustrate indirect care interventions is the dispensing of drugs.
What kind of nurse involvement falls under indirect care?When a nurse helps someone else without directly interacting with the patient, this is known as an indirect care intervention. Attending care conferences, documenting, and talking with other physicians about patient care are a few examples of indirect care interventions.
In this quiz, you'll learn which intervention a nurse would recognize as an indirect nursing intervention.Other members of the healthcare team can be consulted, referrals can be made, advocacy can be done, and the environment can be managed as indirect care interventions. Implementation is the phase that entails action, doing, and actually carrying out the nursing interventions specified in the care plan.
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when teaching a group of nursing students about the liver, the nurse relates that kupffer cells function to remove harmful substances or cells from the portal blood and venous sinusoids through which process?
The nurse explains to a group of student nurses about the liver that kupffer cells work through the Phagocytosis process to remove unwanted cells or chemicals from of the portal blood as well as venous sinusoids.
Phagocytosis is indeed a biological mechanism for ingestion or inhalation and expelling objects with a diameter of more than 0.5 m, such as bacteria, foreign objects, and apoptotic cells. Since phagocytosis occurs in a wide variety of cell types, it is crucial for maintaining tissue homeostasis. phagocytes, a kind of living cell, devour or engulf another cells or particles through a process known as phagocytosis. An amoeba or other free-living single cell might make up the phagocyte, or it could be one of the body's cells like a white blood cell. Phagocytic cells identify encroaching bacteria by the evolutionarily old and receptor-driven process of phagocytosis, which kills them following internalization. Eater, a phagocytosis receptor that is only expressed on phagocytes from Drosophila.
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what is the condition in which the heart does not pump blood as well as it should and blood and fluid back up into the lungs? multiple choice rheumatic heart disease congenital heart disease cardiomyopathy congestive heart failure
Congestive heart failure. Congestive heart failure, often known as heart failure, happens when the heart muscle is unable to pump blood and blood pressure as well as it should.
This commonly causes blood to pool and fluid to build up in the lungs, which can lead to shortness of breath. Some cardiac conditions, such as coronary artery disease (coronary artery disease) or high blood pressure, cause the heart to eventually become too weak or stiff to fill and pump blood effectively. With the right treatment, heart failure symptoms and signs can be reduced, and some patients also might survive longer. Making lifestyle changes, such as decreasing weight, exercising more, eating less salt, and managing stress, can enhance your quality of life. Nevertheless, heart failure puts your life at danger. One way to achieve this is to prevent and treat conditions like coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, insulin, and overweight that can result in heart failure.
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in 2008, the fda approved a sweetener derived from a south american shrub called aspartame; you can purchase this sweetener as a dietary supplement called
Aspartame, a sweetener derived from a South American shrub, received FDA approval in 2008; you can buy it as a dietary supplement called Sweet leaf.
What is sweetener?
A sweetener is a substance that is added to food or beverages to give them the flavor of sweetness, either because it actually contains sugar or a sugar replacement with a sweet flavor. Artificial sweeteners are widely utilized in commercially produced food and beverages today.
Is sugar the only sweetener?
Artificial sweeteners are man-made alternatives to sugar. They could, however, be manufactured using substances that are found in nature, such as sugar or even herbs. Artificial sweeteners are also known as potent sweeteners since they are significantly sweeter than sugar.
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which of the following may be beneficial in staving off dementia but for which research into effectiveness has proved mixed?
There is no option provided, but most likely, staying engaged with social networks may be beneficial in staving off dementia, although research into their effectiveness has proven mixed.
Social engagement is linked to lower rates of disability and death, as well as a lower risk of depression. Maintaining a social life may benefit brain function and maybe even prevent the development of dementia. According to recent research, social isolation greatly increases a person's chance of dying prematurely from any cause, a danger that may rival physical inactivity, obesity, and smoking. Social isolation was also linked to a 50% increase in the risk of dementia.
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communicable diseases are exempt or are not exempt from the privileged communication standard
Communicable diseases are exempt from the privileged communication standard.
What are privileged communication standard?
Privileged communication safeguards the secrecy of contacts between two people who are entitled to a private, protected connection under the law.
Attorney-client, doctor-patient, priest-parishioner, two spouses, and (in certain states) reporter-source ties are examples of relationships that afford the protection of privileged communication.
When persons are harmed or threatened with harm, the privileged communication protection is lost.
Examples of exempt privileged communication standard
Exempt by law and MUST be reported: births and deaths, injuries caused by violence, drug abuse, communicable diseases and STD's
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what should the nurse teach a client with generalized anxiety disorder to help the client cope with anxiety?
Anxiety disorders are taught by nurses Be nonthreatening and composed. When interacting with the client, keep your cool and be non-threatening.
What anxiety intervention is the most successful?The most successful type of psychotherapy for anxiety problems is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). CBT, which is typically a brief course of treatment, focuses on giving you the knowledge and skills you need to reduce your symptoms and gradually resume the activities you've put off due to anxiety.
Which diagnostic tool is best for determining whether a patient has anxiety?An interview tool frequently used to measure anxiety is the Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A). It evaluates a number of the GAD-related symptoms even though it predates modern conceptualizations of the disorder. There are subscales for somatic and mental anxiety in the HAM-A.
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the nurse note a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and noncommunicative during the past two weeks. which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client? a. encourage the client's family to visit more often b. schedule a daily conference with the social worker
Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation.
What is depression ?Depression is a mood disorder that results in a constant sense of sadness and boredom. It affects how you feel, think, and behave and can cause a variety of emotional and physical issues. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression.
Consistent attempts to draw the client into conversations which focuson non-threatening subjects can be an effective means of eliciting a response, thereby decreasing isolation behaviors. There is not sufficient data to support the effectiveness of A as an intervention for this client. Although B may be indicated, nursing interventions can also be used to treat this client. C is too threatening to this client.
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when planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, what does the nurse understand is the primary treatment goal?
While planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, the nurse should understand as the primary treatment goal that the treatment of oxygenation needs of heart muscles should be priorly done.
What is cardiogenic shock?Meaning:Also known as Cardiac ShockThe condition when heart is not able to pump out blood in abundance to the brain and to all other vital organs.Symptoms Pressure and squeegeeing pain in the center of your chest.shortness of breadth.Chest pain episode increases.4 Stages of shockinitialcompensatoryprogressiverefractoryMedication:Treating oxygenation needs of heart muscles.intravenous fluids to support BP and Functioning of heart.To know more abut cardiogenic shock visit
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a client is newly diagnosed with diabetes. the nurse would instruct the client to monitor for which indication of hypoglycemia?
A client has just received a diabetes diagnosis. The client would be given instructions from the nurse to watch for Kussmaul respirations, which are a sign of hypoglycemia.
How should a patient with hypoglycemia be monitored?If you experience any of the warning signs or symptoms of low blood sugar, use a blood glucose meter to measure and show your blood sugar level. When your blood sugar level falls below 70 mg/dL, you have hypoglycemia.
Which symptom should the nurse point out as being the most typical indicator of hypoglycemia when training a diabetic client?Looking pale is one of the initial symptoms of diabetic hypoglycemia (pallor) Shakiness. a feeling of faintness or dizziness.
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a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine (prozac) for post traumatic stress disorder. which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
the statement of a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine (prozac) for post-traumatic stress disorder that the nurse must include in the teaching is "I will take this medication before going to work."
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant drug that works by increasing the natural substance serotonin in the brain. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is responsible for regulating emotions, sleep, and appetite. When the number of serotonin increases, emotional disorders, and mental disorders can also be overcome.
Things to note before taking fluoxetine do not drive a vehicle or do activities that require alertness after taking fluoxetine because this drug can cause drowsiness.
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the nurse provides a cool glass of water to a client with inflamed throat tissue. what condition should the nurse caution the client to avoid when drinking very hot liquids while having an inflamed throat?
The client has the condition called Hyperalgesia due to which she gets inflamed throat while drinking hot water.
What is Hyperalgesia ?A sign of hyperalgesia is experiencing substantially more intense pain in circumstances where feeling pain is expected. Disruptions in your body's pain-processing mechanisms are the source of it. Burns and many other injuries and illnesses can frequently result in this.
Examples could be back discomfort, leg pain, neck pain, or headaches. Some people call the discomfort "diffuse" or "spreading," respectively. Some people may complain of aches and pains all throughout their bodies. The nature or experience of the pain has changed throughout time.
Opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH) is characterized as a nociceptive sensitization condition brought on by opioid exposure. A paradoxical reaction to the condition causes a patient taking opioids for pain management to actually become more sensitive.
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a client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 units of u-100 regular insulin and 25 units of u-100 isophane insulin suspension (nph) to be taken before breakfast. at about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. what is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?
A client with diabetes mellitus experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness, these are due to serum glucose level less then 70.
Diabetes mellitus refers to a bunch of diseases that have an effect on however the body uses blood glucose (glucose). Glucose is a very important supply of energy for the cells that frame the muscles and tissues. It is also the brain's main supply of fuel. the most reason for diabetes varies by kind.
The glucose serum is that the simplest and most direct single check offered to check for diabetes. The check measures the number of glucose within the fluid portion of the blood. It's referred to as a “serum” check thanks to this fluid portion of the blood. There are multiple elements to the blood.
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which neurological test should the nurse implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity?
The neurological test that the nurse should implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity is Finger to nose.
What are neurological test?A neurological test is described as the assessment of sensory neuron and motor responses, especially reflexes, to determine whether the nervous system is impaired.
A neurological test typically includes a physical examination and a review of the patient's medical history, but not deeper investigation such as neuroimaging.
A neurological test assesses motor and sensory skills, hearing and speech, vision, coordination, and balance. It may also test mental status, mood, and behavior.
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the healthcare team is planning health protection interventions for a client. which interventions would be considered primary prevention activities? select all that apply.
Regulation of the use of potentially dangerous products and enforcement of laws requiring safe and healthy behaviors instruction on safe and healthy habits.
Which practices fall under the category of primary prevention? Check all that apply.Activities for primary prevention are intended to stop or delay the beginning of disease. Primary-level interventions include practices like eating wholesome foods, working out, applying sunscreen, wearing seat belts, and getting immunized.
What practice is a patient's primary preventative intervention?Interventions designed to stop the development of disease, injury, or disability are referred to as primary prevention. The population that does not already have the disease that an initiative is trying to prevent is the focus of primary prevention strategies. A well-known example of primary prevention is vaccinations.
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the nurse is teaching breastfeeding to prospective parents in a childbirth education class. which instruction should the nurse include as content in the class?
Feed your baby whenever they ask for food, which should be every two to three hours.
What are classes on birthing called?Lamaze Method Lamaze classes view delivery as a natural and healthy process because it is the most popular childbirth technique in the U.S.Lamaze classes do not encourage or oppose the use of medications or other standard medical procedures during labor and delivery.
How can I become a better mother?Classes on childbirth education are typically provided in hospitals, birthing facilities, doctor's offices, and private residences.You can also ask your doctor or a hospital for information on birthing education classes Friends and family .
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the client has just been diagnosed with bladder cancer and asks the nurse what causes it. what would be the nurse's best response to the client?
When a tumor—a development of abnormal tissue—forms in the bladder lining, the condition is referred to as bladder cancer.
Can bladder cancer typically be cured?cancer's stage (whether it is superficial or invasive bladder cancer, and whether it has spread to other places in the body). The prognosis for early bladder cancer is frequently favorable.
Who is most susceptible to bladder cancer?The primary risk factor for bladder cancer. Smokers are at least three times more likely than non-smokers to develop bladder cancer. About half of all bladder malignancies are caused by smoking.
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in preparation for being discharged to home, the nurse is teaching a client with a chronic right ankle stasis ulcer about wound care. what statement by the client indicates a need further teaching?
The nurse will cover the use of graduated compression socks in client education prior to discharge.
What is chronic in the body?an ailment or illness that often lasts for three months or more and has the potential to develop worse over time. Elderly persons are more likely to have chronic diseases, which can usually be treated but not cured. Leukemia, heart disease, strokes, diabetic, & rheumatism are the most prevalent chronic illness categories.
Does chronic mean permanent?An chronic condition is defined by Wikipedia as a sickness that develops over time or a physical health condition that really is persistent or has long-lasting impacts. Whenever a disease has a longer than three-month duration, the word "chronic" is frequently used.
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nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? select all that apply.
Option A, B, and D are correct when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas.
Two primary tasks are carried out by the pancreas: Produces chemicals (enzymes) that aid in digesting as part of its exocrine function. Function of the endocrine system: Releases hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. Glands in the pancreas secrete chemicals that aid in digestion and regulate blood sugar. Diabetes types 1 and 2 affect the pancreas often. Pancreatitis and pancreatic cancer are two more pancreas disorders. This tells us that option A, B, and D are correct.
Along with other hormones, pancreas creates glucagon and insulin. Diabetes results from inadequate insulin production by the pancreas or improper insulin utilisation by the body.
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Complete question is:
A nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. Which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? Select all that apply.
• "Internal secretion of hormones is the function of the endocrine pancreas."
• "The endocrine pancreas secretes hormones through a ductless gland."
• "The exocrine pancreas secretes hormones from excretory ducts."
• "The exocrine pancreas secretes pancreatic enzymes into the GI tract."
true or false? adding butter to all of paul's food and making sure to feed him as many calories as possible may cause health complications for paul, as it would for someone at any age.
It is true that feeding Paul as many calories as possible while adding butter to everything he eats could lead to health issues, just as it would for anyone of any age.
Calories are a unit of measurement for the energy content of food and beverages. We frequently consume more calories from food and drink than we burn off, and our bodies store the extra as body fat. If this keeps happening, we may eventually start to gain weight. As a general rule, a strong guy needs about 2,500 kcal (10,500 kJ) every day to maintain a healthy weight.
Butter has a lot of calories and fat, especially saturated fat, which is linked to heart disease. If you have cardiovascular disease or are trying to cut calories, use this ingredient sparingly.
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the nurse is assessing with a head injury a client for decerebrate posturing. which position indicates the client has decerebrate posturing?
The nurse is examining a client who has a head injury for decerebrate posture. which posture suggests that the client has adopted a decerebrate stance
When should you visit a doctor after striking your head?
When an individual or group has a brain injury and exhibits the following signs and symptoms: nausea or vomiting that occurs frequently. a longer-than-30-second period of unconsciousness a persistent headache
What should you do if you bump your head?You can provide a cold pack for their head by using an ice bag or a bag of frozen beans wrapped in such a tea towel. If symptoms like moderate vertigo and a headache worsen, obtain medical help right away.
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