Hello. You forgot to enter the answer options. The options are:
a. A commercial product can be easily customized to accommodate the unique needs of the hospital. b. A homegrown system cannot be certified by the Certification Commission for Healthcare Information Technology. c. The commercial version is considered one of the "Best of Breed" products. d. A homegrown system is typically interfaced with the organization's ADT system and downstream systems.
Answer:
c. The commercial version is considered one of the "Best of Breed" products.
Explanation:
The commercial version is very expensive requiring a higher economic investment, than the investment that would be placed on a home system. However, the commercial version is considered "Best of Breed", that is, this version has an extremely superior quality which justifies its price and the more safety of its use, guaranteeing a very efficient and pleasant result. The domestic version may even work efficiently, but not in the same way as the commercial version.
4
.
1. In what region of the country would you expect
this patient to live?
Iren by people who
he visited to Zoo every week and to what the animal Tilak was also a message to discover the soul at a collection of animals at home to get to dog and baby owl and baby monkey one evening Sudheer brought the
PLEASE HELP ASAP!! The Joint Commission is qualified to recommend that hospitals implement patient-centered health-care teams because _____. a. it is a branch of the federal government b. it certifies more than 19,000 hospitals and is in a position to know what works c. they have invested in the professional development hospitals must purchase to introduce SBAR d. the board comprises former patients and physicians with deep experience in health-care teams
Answer:
(A)
Explanation:
It certifies more than 19,000 hospitals and is in a position to know what works. Thats pretty much its own explanation there, don't know how it could be worded better. Although based off of todays data it certifies more than 22,000 in todays age.
Answer:
b. it certifies more than 19,000 hospitals and is in a position to know what works
Explanation:
____ is a term describing a response of your body to a foreign pathogen.
O A. Infection
O B. Inflammation
O C. Erythema
O D. Allergy
Answer:
infection
Explanation:
Answer:
A. Infection
Explanation:
Infection is a term describing a response of your body to a foreign pathogen.
True or False: There are 25 minerals that our bodies need to function properly.
An elderly man who was stabbed several times has a puncture wound in the left anterior chest walls in the region of the fourth or fifth rib. There is minimal bleeding from the chest wound. The initial blood pressure reading was 120/70 mm Hg, but dropped to 102/86 mm Hg. This is an example of:
Answer:
Hypovolemic. Shock
Explanation:
Excessive blood loss causes a drop in blood pressure. This is called hypovolemic shock.
how is that ion channels that let in positive charge could hyperpolarized a hair cell?
A. they feature unique residues that allow positive charge to go both directions
B. their ligands let out potassium ions, creating a negative electrochemical gradient
C. their ion channels are partially open at a resting state, and so closing them reduces the positive charge going into the cell
D. Ion channels that bind inverse agonist will reverse active ion transport, but only in the axon Hillock, leading to hyperpolarization down the axon
Answer:
B. their ligands let out potassium ions, creating a negative electrochemical gradient
Explanation:
A ciliated cell would be hyperpolarized by the action of positive ion kennels, when that cell received an inhibitory stimulus and the action of these channels allowed its ligands to release potassium ions (K +) and allow the entry of chlorine ions (Cl-), creating a negative electrochemical gradient, since the interior of the cell will have a negative potential greater than the external environment, which will be more positive. The result of this is to inhibit the spread of an action potential in the cellular environment.
According to current dietary recommendations, trans fat intake should be limited. How is this best accomplished? a. Select foods containing manufactured rather than naturally occurring trans fats. b. Read labels to select foods that say "polyunsaturated fatty acid free." c. Avoid all processed foods such as bakery items, packaged cookies, and store-bought bread. d. Use fat replacers, such as olestra, which provide the same nutrient content as regular fats without being saturated. e. Choose foods with <10% of calories from saturated fat per serving and no hydrogenated oils in the ingredients list.
Answer:
The correct option is;
c. Avoid all processed foods such as bakery items, packaged cookies and store-bought bread
Explanation:
Dietary trans fat comes primarily from consuming processed bakery foods and packaged items such as crackers, cakes, cookies, margarine, popcorn, potato chips, fried potatoes, breakfast cereals although the frying process does not form the trans fat
80% of the dietary trans fat come from processed food or oils while the remaining are found in natural food sources
Limiting the consumption of processed foods which make up the 80% source of dietary trans fat is the most effective way of reducing trans fat intake.
Public health officials are concerned about a possible epidemic of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). It presents as a rapidly-progressing skin abscess accompanied by significant tissue destruction or "flesh-eating." Which condition has led to the concern that this disease may become an epidemic
19. You must always drive:
A. offensively.
B. defensively.
C. under the speed limit.
D. all of the above.
under the speed limit..we must be careful not to drive too fast.
Doctors and nutritionists use BLANK as a screening tool to assess weight in adults. They generally make further assessments to determine the amount of body fat that the person actually has.
Answer:
BMI
Explanation:
Answer:
BMI
Explanation:
Got it correct on my assignment
Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate
The available options are:
a) Push-up plus off a wall → shoulder IR/ER → seated DB press
b) Shoulder IR/ER → push-up plus → seated DB press
c) Shoulder IR/ER → seated DB press → push-up plus
d) High-rep bench press → shoulder IR/ER → abdominal crunch
Answer:
A. Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press
Explanation:
A push-up plus off a wall is an example of a closed chain exercise as the arm is fixated to a stationary surface.
It also make your shoulder blades to move freely, making serratus anterior stronger, a vital muscle that keeps scapula stable and helps it rotate upward. This in turn reduces shoulder impingement when push-ups plus off a wall is done.
Shoulder IR/ER also helps to correct the imbalance in the rotator muscles of the shoulder.
Also, seated DB press strengthens all muscles of the shoulder in a functional way.
Pectoralis minor, serratus anterior, and the rhomboids connect the scapula to bones on the axial skeleton. Would the loss of function of these muscles have any effect on the function of the deltoid or rotator cuff muscles, which act on the arm? Explain.
Answer:
The interpretation including its given problem is outlined in the following section on either the interpretation.
Explanation:
Pectoralis significant, anterior serratus, rhomboids lose certain movements that contribute to more mechanisms affecting the arm.
Pectoralis minor:
Scapula without the pass.No Lower formation.Anterior Serratus:
No grab scapula. Does not deliberately touch as well as push.Rhomboids:
No downwards spin.No scapula acceleration.explain the difference between past time focus and present time foucs
Answer: Past time focus is that we are paying attention to the things that we have experienced in the past Present time is that you are focusing on immediate gratification. Especially appreciate life, nature, and the people around them.
Explanation: BecauseThird individual solitary straightforward present demonstrative type of center is centers or focuses.
A hospital client's health status has declined sharply, and a referral to palliative care has been made. A nurse has suggested a referral to spiritual care, but a colleague states, "That is not likely necessary because the client's health record states 'no religion.'" How should the nurse best respond to the colleague's statement
Lucille is a 4-year-old who has never visited a dentist, even though her family has dental insurance that allows for free regular check ups. Her parents say that they will start taking her to the dentist when her first permanent tooth erupts. What should her parents know about the advisability of delaying dental care
Answer:
Delaying dental care for a 4 year old girl is very bad because she have to know more about what a dentist is called and how to be able to take care of her teeth.
emergency medical technicians are sometimes told to speak in the lower voice when responding to older patients, why is this?
A. lower voice sound sound more authoritative
B. The eardrums of older people are heavier and do not vibrate as well to high voices
C. conductive hearing loss typically begins in high frequency hair cells
D. lower frequencies require higher sound pressures according to the Fletcher Munson curve
E. sensorineural hearing loss typically begins in high frequency hair cells
Answer:
Option E
sensorineural hearing loss typically begins in high-frequency hair cells
Explanation:
In presbycusis, most old people cannot hear the high-frequency sounds, because of some loss of hair cells in their cochlea. unlike some other vertebrates like fishes and reptiles, these hair cells can be re-generated. However, in Humans, they cannot be.
As a result of these sounds that have higher pitches such as the buzzing of a mosquito, are muffled to them. Therefore, talking in a frequency is necessary, as this will aid the old people hear the medical technicians better.
On a visit to the family physician, a client is diagnosed with a bunion on the lateral side of the great toe, at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
This question is incomplete because the options are missing; here is the complete question:
On a visit to the family physician, a client is diagnosed with a bunion on the lateral side of the great toe, at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A. "Bunions are congenital and can't be prevented."
B. "Bunions may result from wearing shoes that are too big, causing friction when the shoes slip back and forth."
C. "Bunions are caused by a metabolic condition called gout."
D. "Some bunions are congenital; others are caused by wearing shoes that are too short or narrow."
The answer to this question is D. "Some bunions are congenital; others are caused by wearing shoes that are too short or narrow."
Explanation:
Bunions are bumps or deformities that form in the joints of the toe, which can cause pain and swelling in the zone. Additionally, in terms of causes, the development of bunions is the result of either congenital factors (abnormalities from birth) or environmental factors, especially the friction and pressure caused by shoes that are short or narrow. Besides this, bunions can be treated through different options depending on symptoms which include medicines, shoe inserts, and surgery. According to this, option D explains the causes of bunions and it is ideal to include in a teaching session about this condition.
A client being discharged from the hospital to home with a diagnosis of tuberculosis is worried about the possibility of infecting family members and others. Which information should reassure the client that contaminating family members and others is not likely?
The options of this question are missing; here are the options:
Which information should reassure the client that contaminating family members and others is not likely?
A. The family does not need therapy, and client will not be contagious after 1 month of medication therapy
B. The family does not need therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 6 consecutive weeks of medication therapy
C. The family will receive prophylactic therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 1 continuous week of medication therapy
D. The family will receive prophylactic therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy
The answer to this question is D. The family will receive prophylactic therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy.
Explanation:
Tuberculosis is a serious contagious disease. Due to this, in tuberculosis treatment, the purpose is not only to stop the infection but to prevent this spreads to others. Indeed, the treatment for tuberculosis includes a set of medicines that stop the infection in the patient, which takes several weeks to end the infection; however, after 2 or 3 weeks the patient should not be contagious. Besides this, the family of the patient or anyone who has close contact with the patient should receive prophylactic therapy or medicine to prevent the development of the disease.