The lower colon must be emptied right before the procedure in order to make the rectum and sigmoidoscopy easier to see.
What are the two key methods for obtaining a stool sample?How to Gather the Sample(s) Pass feces into a large, clean container—such as a milk jug with the top cut off—or onto newspaper put under the toilet seat, avoiding contact with urine. Pass your loose stools directly into a container rather than onto newspaper if they are loose.
Which approach would the nurse advocate for a pregnant client who was experiencing constipation?Although increasing fiber intake, drinking more fluids, and exercising are the first-line treatments for constipation, they are not always successful. Consequently, laxatives such bulk-forming agents and lubricants
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which would be the highest expected growth and development occurrences at 9 months of age for an infant who has had appropriate growth assessed at each well-child visit? select all that apply.
Highest expected growth and development occurrences at 9 months of age for an infant is that he or she will pull themselves up and stand for several seconds while holding onto furniture and able to pick up for when sitting in high chair. Should be able to speak "mama" and "dada."
Your kid is lot more mobile and curious at 9 months old. As your baby's interest (and mobility) develops, safety in the home becomes a crucial problem because babies at this age may crawl and stand on their own.
Most frequently, a 9-month-old baby has accomplished the following milestones of growth:
Slower weight gain of 1 pound (450 grammes) every month or 15 grammes (half an ounce) per day.lengthens by 1.5 cm (just over half an inch) every month.Regularity of the bowels and bladder increasesWhen falling is imminent, the parachute reaction causes the person to thrust their hands forward to stop themselves.capable of crawlingsits still for a long timeself-pulls to a standing position.reaches while seated for objectsBangs objects together and is able to grab things between the tips of the thumb and the index finger.shakes or throws thingsTo learn more about growth click here:
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a central nervous system depressant that produces a false feeling of well-being and efficiency (confidence) and results in slower physical reaction time to stimulation is
The central nervous system that produces false feelings of well-being and efficiency (self-confidence) and produces a slower physical reaction time to stimulation is the parasympathetic nerve.
What is the nervous system?The nervous system is an organ system consisting of nerve fibers composed of nerve cells that are interconnected and essential for sensory perception, voluntary and involuntary motor activity of the body's tissues, and various physiological processes of the body.
The nervous system is also divided into two parts, namely the central nervous system and the peripheral nerves. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord, while the peripheral nerves consist of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. The two systems work together to gather information from within the body and from its external environment.
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the nurse is admitting a client with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. when assessing client symptoms, which symptoms require healthcare provider notification of this medical emergency? select all that apply.
Symptoms that require notification of the health service provider about a medical emergency for abruption placenta are bleeding from the intimate organs, severe abdominal pain, back pain, and uterine contractions as if giving birth.
What is the abrupt placenta?Placental abruption is the detachment of the placenta from its normal implantation site in the uterus before birth and is one of the causes of bleeding in pregnant women in the third trimester associated with maternal and fetal death.
Causes of placental abruption are smoking during pregnancy or using drugs during pregnancy, having a history of previous placental abruption, suffering from preeclampsia or eclampsia, and experiencing an injury to the stomach during pregnancy.
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tobacco smoke inhaled and exhaled by the smoker is referred to as: a. sidestream smoke. b. mainstream smoke. c. passive smoke. d. none of these is correct.
B) Mainstream smoke is the term used to describe the tobacco smoke that a smoker inhales and exhales.
Tobacco smoke that smokers exhale. Secondhand smoke might also include cigarette smoke. It has a lot of dangerous, cancer-causing substances, including nicotine. Smoking in public places raises your risk of developing lung cancer and possibly other cancers as well. smoke that emanates from a tobacco product that is burning, such as a cigarette, pipe, or cigar, that has been lit. Secondhand smoke includes sidestream smoke.
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a nurse is caring for a terminally ill client in the home. the family wants to know how to respond when the client asks whether the client is dying. which is the best response by the nurse?
The best response by the nurse would be "Tell me some more about what is on your mind."
How should a nurse treat a terminally ill patient?
Nurses transmit profound messages to their patients, be it through verbal or non-verbal cues.
Some nursing interventions that are efficient are: by providing basic care and medications so to prevent terminal suffering for the patient, offering a presence that is attentive and reassuring, respecting contemplative phases, listening for messages in conversations that are latent, understanding language that is symbolic, respecting dynamics of families, consistently offering empathy, acceptance, tenderness, warmth and respect.
Therefore, the best response by the nurse would be "Tell me some more about what is on your mind."
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a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle) is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. which teaching will the nurse include for this client?
The teaching which the nurse will include for client with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle) is Facial rash. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Systemic lupus erythematosus?Systemic lupus erythematosus is the most common type of lupus disease. SLE is an autoimmune disease which include the immune system attacks its own tissues, which causes widespread inflammation and tissue damage in the affected organs of the body. It can affect the joints, skin, brain, lungs, kidneys, and blood vessels.
Symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus are flare ups with periods of remittance. It is important to teach the clients need for preventing flare-ups by doing things such as avoiding exposure to sun, proper skin care routine, avoiding sources of infection, and reducing stress.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A Nurse is assessing a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Facial rash
B. Thickened skin
C. Chronic back pain
D. Iritis
which nursing intervention(s) would the nurse choose to implement to determine the etiology of the client's anxiety? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
Continue the conversation with the client, give them a tool to test their anxiety, and get their medical history.
An intervention is what?
An intervention is a methodical procedure that can be carried out by family members and friends, under the guidance of a professional such as a registered alcohol and drug counselor, or under the supervision of an interventionist.
How does an intervention proceed?
A team of committed loved ones confronts a person about their addiction during an intervention. They carry out a few crucial tasks: List all the effects their substance usage has had on them as well as the people they care about. Show your support for the person's decision to get therapy.
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the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of discharge teaching for a client with an oxalate urinary stone. which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching by the nurse? select all that apply.
The patient requires additional information from the nurse, as evidenced by the client's comments that "I have to take allopurinol & Tylenol is fantastic to control my pain and I'm so delighted I don't have to make any alterations in my diet."
What is urinary stone?Stones in your bladder are solid lumps of minerals. Stones are formed when minerals in concentrated urine solidify and cause them to form. Whenever you struggle to completely empty your bladder, this frequently occurs. a kidney-related condition in which a tiny, hard deposit accumulates and frequently hurts to pass. In concentrated urine, minerals and acid salts form hard deposits called kidney stones that adhere to one another. When going through the urinary tract, they may be uncomfortable, but they often don't harm the organ permanently.
How do you treat urinary stones and what causes it?1. Consuming waterA development the kidney stones can be prevented by drinking 2 - 3 quart (1.8 - 3.6 liters) liquid every day to keep your urine diluted.
2. Painkillers. Passing over little stones could be painful..
3. Medical treatmentYour doctor may suggest a medication to help your kidney stone clear.
When crystal-forming substances like calcium, oxalate, or uric acid are present in greater amounts in urine than the fluid in urine can dissolve, kidney stones can form. If the substances in urine that prevent crystals from sticking to one another are absent, the circumstances for kidneys to form are favorable.
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the condition of a client with a traumatic brain injury continues to deteriorate despite medical efforts. the decision is made to terminally wean the client from mechanical ventilation. which statement by the nurse is most significant in educating the family regarding terminal weaning?
When the results of mechanical ventilator support are intolerable for the patient, terminal weaning is a therapeutic strategy used to remove such support.
When a patient is deemed brain dead or when there is no chance of cognitive, perceptual, or regulatory recovery, life support is removed.
As they deal with the process of terminal weaning, families run the danger of experiencing increased discomfort. As a result, the National Institute of Health's consensus statement on end-of-life care placed a strong emphasis on the necessity of attending to the needs of family caregivers as they get ready for a loved one's passing. Nurses should be immediately available to offer the family members psychological assistance. She has to make sure the family members fully comprehend the patient's condition
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what are some adverse health effects of overconsuming protein? multiple select question. increased calcium loss in urine increased formation of kidney stones excessive increase in muscle mass increased heart rate at rest dehydration due to increased urine production
Some adverse health effects of overconsuming protein are:
1) Increased calcium loss in urine.
2) Increased formation of kidney stones.
3 )Excessive increase in muscle mass.
4) Dehydration due to increased urine production.
What is Protein?
Protein is an essential macronutrient made up of amino acids that is required for the growth, repair, and maintenance of cells. It is found in both animal and plant sources and is necessary for the body to function properly. Protein is important for building muscle, repairing tissue, producing hormones, enzymes, and other body chemicals, and helping to maintain healthy skin, hair, nails, and bones.
Why should we not overconsume protein?
Overconsumption of protein can lead to a variety of health concerns. Excessive protein intake can cause dehydration, digestive issues such as nausea and diarrhea, and an increased risk of kidney stones and kidney damage. Additionally, high protein diets can cause weight gain due to increased calorie intake and can also impair the body's ability to absorb essential vitamins and minerals.
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which child or group of children is most likely to meet the recommended fitness criteria set for ensuring healthy children and adolescents?
A boy or group of boys aged 9 is most likely to satisfy the suggested fitness standards established to ensure healthy children and adolescents.
What impact does sports activity have on shy kids?Over time, participating in organized sports might boost shy kids' self-esteem and lessen their social anxiety.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding kids in their middle years?They acquire the ability to construct indirect object-direct object sentences. Stefan, a 12-year-old boy, thinks that as long as he is with his friends, it is okay for him to stay out late and that his parents shouldn't have to worry about his safety.
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during a home visit, the nurse discovers that a child in the household who has a disability has been experiencing seizures. the child's parent appears indifferent to the child's physical, emotional, or medical needs and seems to provoke seizure episodes by harsh verbal exchanges with the child. where would the nurse direct a referral?
Child has been experiencing seizures and the child's parent seems to provoke seizure episodes by harsh verbal exchanges with the child so the nurse would direct a referral to Child Protective Services.
Child Protective Services (CPS) provides protection for kids who are in danger of, or are experiencing neglect, physical, sexual, or emotional abuse. the main focus is on the protection of the kid and support for folks to strengthen families and promote safe nurturing homes for kids.
A seizure is a sharp, uncontrolled electrical phenomenon within the brain. It will cause changes in your behavior, movements or feelings, and in levels of consciousness. Having 2 or a lot of seizures a minimum of twenty four hours apart that are not brought on by a classifiable cause is usually thought of to be brain disease.
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a 44-year-old man present for follow-up of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus, which was diagnosed 32 years ago. what change on his fundoscopic examination would indicate a need for urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?
The defining feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is neovascularization. . They are prone to fundoscopic , which can cause retinal detachment, vitreous hemorrhage, and blindness.
Pan retinal laser photocoagulation is frequently used to treat proliferative retinopathy, which necessitates an immediate referral to an ophthalmologist. The degree of fundoscopic control and length of diabetes are both factors that influence the chance of developing diabetic retinopathy. It falls under the proliferative and nonproliferative categories. Nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy, which typically develops 10 to 20 years after the start of diabetes, is characterized by blot fundoscopic , cotton wool patches, and microaneurysms. It's not always the case that nonproliferative retinopathy develops into proliferative retinopathy,
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a coworker is telling you about a recent ems call in which he provided care to a preschooler. based on this description, you know that age of the patient would have been:
We know the patient's age would have been between 3 and 6 years old based on the description provided, which is a recent EMS call from a caregiver providing care to a preschooler.
What is a preschooler?Preschool age is defined as 3 to 5 years old by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. There are, however, no rigid and binding regulations. Some preschools accept children as young as three years old, while others accept children as young as four. The typical beginning age is between three and four years old. In another source, it is mentioned that the age range for preschoolers is 3–6 years old since most children end their preschool period by entering first grade, or kindergarten, at the age of 6.
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Approximately one out of every 2,500 caucasians in the united states is born with the recessive disease cystic fibrosis. According to the hardy-weinberg equilibrium equation, approximately how many people are carriers?.
Recessive illnesses have a ratio of 1/2500=.0004=q2, which is because 1-q=1-.02=.98=p and heterozygous (2pq) carriers make up 4% of the population.
What do you mean by disease?Disease is any adverse variation from an organism's normal structural or functional condition that is often accompanied by a set of symptoms and is different from physical damage in origin. Indicative of its aberrant status, a sick organism frequently displays signs or symptoms.
What are the many sorts of disease?There are four primary categories of disease: physiological illnesses, hereditary diseases (covering both genetic disorders and non-genetic hereditary diseases), deficient diseases, and infectious diseases. Another approach to categorize illnesses is according to whether they are contagious or not.
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a nurse is caring for a 16-year-old pregnant adolescent. the client is taking an iron supplement. what should this client drink to increase the absorption of iron?
Due to the fact that eating slows down absorption, the nurse should advise the client to take the supplement between meals to speed up absorption. The customer should drink water or juice (orange juice is preferred), not milk or antacids, with the supplement.
Which advice should the nurse give to aid with pregnancy-related constipation?Be sure to stay hydrated. Walking is sufficient exercise to ease constipation. Eat or drink prune juice, figs, or both.
Which iron supplement is the best?The three ferrous salts—ferrous fumarate, ferrous sulfate, and ferrous gluconate—are the iron supplements that are most readily absorbed and are frequently regarded as the gold standard when compared to other iron salts.
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a nurse and the facility have been named as defendants in a malpractice lawsuit. in addition to the nurse's attorney, whom else would be appropriate for the nurse to talk with about the case?
The agency's risk manager would be appropriate for the nurse to talk with about the case.
What are the ways for a nurse to avoid a lawsuit?
The best defense for a nurse against a lawsuit would be to provide compassionate and competent nursing care. Carrying malpractice insurance might be prudent, but it will not help avoid a lawsuit.
Attending professional development programs also helps.
They should also make sure they document all observations, actions and decisions. When taken into a courtroom, the patients are the best evidence of care given.
Consistent vigilance and adherence to care procedures on a regular basis are the best protection and help avoid malpractice suits and legal liability.
So, the agency's risk manager would be appropriate for the nurse to talk with about the case.
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which food would a nurse suggest to the parent of a child who has recovered from dehydration due to diarrhea?
Depending on how bad it is, dehydration may require treatment. Kids who are somewhat dehydrated can receive additional liquids at home. Children who are more severely dehydrated can require hospital or ER care.
Oral (by mouth) rehydration is used to treat mild dehydration. Typically, this entails administering oral rehydration solution (such as Pedialyte, Enfalyte, or a store brand). It helps prevent dehydration because it contains the correct proportions of salt, sugar, and water. It is available without a prescription from pharmacies and large-format shops. Speak with your doctor if you are unable to obtain oral rehydration solution. Dehydration can be treated with other fluids.
A precise ratio of water, salt, and sugar makes up an oral rehydration solution (ORS). These solutions can still be absorbed even if your child is vomiting or has severe diarrhea.
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the nurse would consider which disaster management plans to be most applicable if an earthquake hits a metropolitan area causing widespread death and injuries? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The management plans that nurse would use for the earthquake hits a metropolitan area causing widespread death and injuries are Collaboration of more than one groups and healthcare facilities.
Make an Emergency Plan: Create a own circle of relatives emergency communications plan that has an out-of-country contact. Plan wherein to fulfill in case you get separated. Make a deliver package that consists of sufficient meals and water for numerous days, a flashlight, a hearthplace extinguisher and a whistle. Activation” refers to figuring out the reaction stage for the system.
As implemented to the Healthcare Coalition, activation refers back to the selection to transition from baseline operations to HCRT operations with a delegated staffing stage as defined withinside the Coalition's EOP.
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an older adult client is prescribed methylcellulose every morning. what should the nurse emphasize when teaching about this medication?
Combine with a lot of water.
What are the five guidelines for administering medication?One recommendation given to reduce pharmaceutical errors and harm is to use the "five rights": the proper patient, the correct drug, a right dose, that right route, as well as the right time.
How many rights are there?The "five rights" of medication use—the appropriate patient, the right substance, the right time, the right dose, and the right route—are known to the majority of healthcare workers, especially nurses, and are commonly recognized as standards for safe medication practices.
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the nurse is administering a cleansing enema when the client reports cramping. what is the appropriate nursing action?
Answer:
D. Clamp the tube for a brief period and resume at a slower rate.
Explanation:
a client diagnosed with a right ulnar fracture asks why the cast needs to go all the way up the arm. what is the best response by the nurse?
When a client with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) inquires about discomfort in the wrist and numbness in the fingers, the nurse's ideal response is that "CTS is a neuropathy."
If carpal tunnel syndrome is not addressed, what happens?
For those who experience it, carpal tunnel syndrome often gets worse over time. If neglected for a long time, it could lead to irreparable hand dysfunction, including finger numbness and weakness. Therefore, it's critical to diagnose and treat carpal tunnel syndrome as soon as feasible.
Which drug works best to treat carpal tunnel syndrome?
Consider taking analgesics like aspirin, ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, etc.), or naproxen sodium (Aleve). Wear a wrist splint at night that is snug but not tight. You may.
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the nurse is teaching a client about allergic rhinitis and its triggers. what is the most common trigger for the respiratory allergic response?
The most crucial advice while using over-the-counter (otc) allergy drugs is to avoid those that contain pseudoephedrine or phenylephrine.
How can I get rid of my allergic rhinitis?
Although there is no known treatment for allergic rhinitis, the symptoms can be alleviated with the help of antihistamines and nasal sprays. Immunotherapy is a treatment approach that has the potential to bring about long-term alleviation. To prevent allergens, additional steps can be done.
What triggers rhinitis?
Rhinitis is a reaction that affects the eyes, nose, and throat that results from the body's release of histamine in response to airborne allergens. Some of the most frequent causes of rhinitis include pollen, dust mites, mold, cockroach feces, animal dander, odors and odours, hormonal changes, and smoke.
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a patient with diabetes is started on a new prescription for a thiazide diureticin this patient, which laboratory result should be most carefully monitored ?
The nurse should carefully monitor for decreased serum levels of potassium.
What is thiazide diuretics?One of the first drugs prescribed for high blood pressure is thiazide diuretics.
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), chlorthalidone, and indapamide are the three thiazide diuretics that are most frequently used.
The FDA has given both HCTZ and chlorthalidone approval for use in treating primary hypertension.
Chlorothiazide, HCTZ, methychlothiazide, trichlormethiazide, polythiazide, and bendroflumethiazide are examples of thiazide-type diuretics. Thiazide-like diuretics include indapamide, CTDN, and metolazone.
Thiazide diuretics may cause the following adverse effects:
Hypokalemia (reduction in potassium levels in the blood) (decrease in potassium levels in the blood)
Hyponatremia (reduction in sodium levels in the blood) (decrease in sodium levels in the blood)
Metabolic alkalosis (raised pH and rise in bicarbonates in the body)
Hypercalcemia (increase in calcium levels in the blood) (increase in calcium levels in the blood)
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a child has painful, fluid-filled vesicles on the upper lip. what medication does the nurse anticipate teaching parents about?
This young person has herpes. For viral illnesses like herpes simplex, oral antiviral medications are beneficial.
Viral infections cannot be treated with corticosteroids. The antifungal drug griseofulvin is ineffective against viral infections. Viral illnesses are not susceptible to antibiotic treatment.
The general impact that COVID-19 can have on the healthcare system is lessened by the ability to manage SARS-CoV-2 infection without the requirement for hospital admission thanks to oral antiviral medications.
Why are antiviral medications used?
Antivirals are drugs that support your body's defences against specific viruses that can harm you. Drugs that fight viruses are also preventative. They can protect you from infectious diseases and the proliferation of viruses.
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true or false? otc stimulants can cause headaches, breathing problems, and rapid heartbeat when used in high doses.
Yes, it is true that OTC stimulants can cause breathing problems, headaches and irregular heartbeat when used in high doses.
OTC stimulant is A non-prescription–Over-The-Counter substance– e.g., phenylpropanolamine, ephedrine before its banning, pseudoephedrine, caffeine, used as an anorexiant, amphetamine substitute, or stimulant Adverse effects Overdose, adverse drug interactions, toxicity– eg HTN, tachyarrhythmia, seizures, hypertension.
OTC medicines treat a variety of illnesses and their symptoms including pain, coughs and colds, diarrhea, constipation, acne, and others. Some OTC medicines have active ingredients with the potential for misuse at higher-than-recommended dosages.
Misuse of an OTC medicine means:
a. taking medicine in a way or dose other than directed on the package
b. taking medicine for the effect it causes- for example, to get high
c. mixing OTC medicines together to create new products
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a client at 32-weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (pih). the healthcare provide prescribed magnesium sulfate is to control the symptoms. which assessment finding would indicate that therapeutic drug level has been achieved?
Preeclampsia-related seizures or seizures that are followed by preeclampsia-related symptoms, such as elevated blood pressure, are used to diagnose eclampsia.
What is the suggested course of action for hypertension caused by pregnancy?Long-established first-line treatments for the treatment of acute-onset, severe hypertension in pregnant and postpartum women include intravenous (IV) labetalol and hydralazine. The information that is now available shows that oral nifedipine may potentially be used as a first-line treatment.
In most cases, there is no known cause, however risk factors might include drug abuse, abdominal trauma, and high blood pressure in the mother. A severe incidence of placental abruption can have life-threatening effects on both the mother and the unborn child if immediate medical attention is not received.
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the nurse develops a teaching plan for the client about how to prevent the transmission of hepatitis a. which discharge instruction is appropriate for the client?
The nurse develops a teaching plan for the client about how to prevent the transmission of hepatitis A so the discharge instruction is appropriate for the client is that he should ask his family members to wash their hands frequently.
What is discharge instruction?Discharge instruction are the instructions given to the client by the doctors or nurses for the safety of his client and his family members and about the precautions he has to take .
Hepatitis A :it is virus transmitted disease.it causes inflammation in the liver.It is caused because of the Hepatitis A virus.It is found in the blood and stool of infected people.To know kore about Discharge instruction visit
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what lab values are indicative of the renal function for adult patients in acute renal failure? (select all that apply) patho
The normal GFR can change with ageing (as you get older it can decrease). GFR should be 90 or higher on a normal scale.
When the GFR falls below 60, the kidneys are not functioning properly. Once the GFR falls below 15, one is at a greater risk of needing dialysis or a kidney transplant as treatment for renal failure.
What does the term "renal function" mean?
REE-nul FUNK-shun a phrase used to indicate the kidneys' efficiency. The kidneys help maintain the body's chemical balance by excreting waste and surplus water from the blood as urine and by removing waste and excess sodium, potassium, and calcium.
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the nutritionist counsels a client to maintain a daily intake of alpha-linolenic acid to provide essential fatty acids. the client is encouraged to eat which food sources? select all that apply. blueberries walnuts soybeans green, leafy vegetables red, beefy tomatoes
The client is encouraged to eat food sources like walnut, green leafy vegetables, and red-beefy tomatoes.
What is alpha-linolenic acid?
Alpha-Linolenic acid, commonly known as -Linolenic acid, is an important fatty acid in the omega-3 family. Many seeds and oils, such as flaxseed, walnuts, chia, hemp, and many popular vegetable oils, contain ALA. It is known as all-cis-9,12,15-octadecatrienoic acid due to its chemical structure. Alpha-linolenic acid can be found in foods like flaxseeds and flaxseed oil. rapeseed (canola) oil. soybeans as well as soybean oil. A vital omega-3 fatty acid called alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) can be found in nuts like walnuts. For healthy human development and growth, it is essential. By supporting proper heart rhythm and pumping, alpha-linolenic acid is thought to lower the risk of heart disease. Additionally, it may lessen blood clots.
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