The nurse should begin by determining the client's oxygen saturation. If the client is stable, the nurse can palpate the upper chest skin to feel for air. If the patient is in danger, the nurse summons the Rapid Response Team.
What are the nursing obligations during oxygen administration?Nurses play an essential role in identifying variables that can impair oxygen delivery to the lungs and tissues, as well as ensuring that patients who may require supplemental oxygen therapy are examined and managed safely and efficiently. This page discusses the architecture and physiology of oxygen delivery to the lungs and body tissues, as well as the frequent indications and contraindications for supplementary oxygen therapy. It also addresses how nurses can determine a patient's clinical requirement for supplemental oxygen therapy, as well as the safety precautions that must be taken.
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a patient is learning to cope with a newly diagnosed chronic illness. to help the patient adjust, which actions should the nurse take?
Nursing care will be important in assisting the child to correctly integrate the disease into each stage of growth and development.
What conditions qualify as chronic illnesses?A general definition of a chronic disease is a condition that lasts for a year or longer, necessitates continuous medical care, restricts daily activities, or both. The main causes of death and disability in the US are chronic diseases like diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.
What is a disability in terms of chronic illness?While not all impairments are chronic health issues, certain chronic health issues are. Disabilities and chronic health issues can be obvious or invisible. You can't tell from someone's appearance whether they have a disability or a long-term health issue.
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an older client who is an avid gardener has severe wrinkling of the skin over the face and hands and is diagnosed with solar elastosis. which action should the nurse teach this client?
Solar elastosis is the action that has to be taught.
What is solar elastosis?
The skin loses its elastic properties without supporting connective tissue. Solar elastosis is characterized by thicker, yellowed skin that has deep creases that do not smooth out with stretching. It can be used to treat a variety of illnesses, including skin cancers other than melanoma and precancerous skin conditions such as solar elastosis. Additionally, it has substantial cosmetic value in that it minimizes the appearance of facial creases or lines.
Hence, the answer is solar elastosis.
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a client in a hospice program has increasing pain, and the nurse is collaborating with the client to make a pain management plan. which plan will be most effective for the client?
The nurse must plan a systematic approach towards the pain management.
Explain the systematic approach.The aim of pain management is to prevent behavioral and physiological signs of pain from occurring continuously.
The ideal objective for pain management is that the client's or family's subjective report of pain is acceptable and documented using a pain scale.
Utilizing data from the client's medical history and a hierarchy of pain measurement, the nurse and client/family should create a systematic strategy to pain management.
It is important to frequently assess pain. The patient shouldn't be given medication until the pain is at the midpoint on the pain scale, nor should the patient be given so much that they lose consciousness.
The aim is to provide pain relief all day long, not just during certain hours.
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a set of concepts, definitions, relationships, and assumptions or propositions derived from nursing models or from other disciplines and which project a purposive, systematic view of phenomena by designing specific interrelationships among concepts for the purposes of describing, explaining, predicting, and/or prescribing is called:
A nursing theory is a set of concepts, definitions, relationships, and assumptions or propositions derived from nursing models or from other disciplines and project a purposive, systematic view of phenomena by designing specific inter-relationships among concepts for the purposes of describing, explaining predicting, and/or prescribing
What is a nurse theory ?A tentative, intentional, and systematic view of phenomena is projected by nursing theory, which is described as "a creative and rigorous structuring of ideas." Nurses can acquire knowledge that will improve patient care through methodical inquiry, whether in nursing research or practice.
Nursing theories can be divided into three main categories, grand theories, mid-range theories, and practice-level theories. Others may be influenced by various nursing theory levels.
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the nurse would administer desmopressin cautiously, with close monitoring, to the client with what comorbidities? select all that apply.
The nurse would administer desmopressin cautiously, with close monitoring, to the client with what comorbidities,Hyponatremia ,Asthma ,Epilepsy.
Hyponatremia: How is it treated?The most common treatments for hyponatremia are diuresis, isotonic saline, and fluid restriction when there is euvolemia (in hypervolemia). Depending on the presentation, a mix of these treatments can be required.To treat extremely symptomatic hyponatremia, hypertonic saline is employed.
Which asthma medication works the best?The major form of treatment is using inhalers, which are tools that allow you to breathe in medication.If your asthma is severe, tablets and other therapies can also be required.An asthma nurse or doctor will typically help you develop a personal action plan.
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what are some alternative treatment options for pregnancy-induced hypertension that can be used if it is too soon to deliver the infant?
Bed rest, magnesium sulfate treatment are some alternative treatment options for pregnancy-induced hypertension that can be used if it is too soon to deliver the infant
In order to keep pre-eclampsia patients from having seizures, magnesium sulfate treatment is employed. Additionally, magnesium sulfate treatment can help extend a pregnancy by up to two days. This makes it possible to provide medications that hasten the development of your baby's lungs.
A potentially harmful pregnancy condition marked by hypertension.
After 20 weeks of pregnancy, pre-eclampsia typically develops in a woman whose blood pressure had previously been normal. For both mother and child, it may result in significant, even deadly, consequences.
There might be no signs at all. The two main symptoms are high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Water retention and leg swelling are other potential symptom
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the goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
Identification of serious injuries is the aim of the secondary survey and this is the reason for examining everything from head to toe.
What is secondary survey while examining a patient?
A quick yet complete head-to-toe examination assessment is used in the secondary survey to find any potential serious injuries. Setting priorities for ongoing management and review is beneficial. It should be carried out once the initial stabilization and primary survey are finished.
The primary and secondary surveys provide comprehensive and logical features of patient evaluation. The assessment's elements can be used with most patients, even though they are typically used in trauma situations. A thorough clinical portrait of the patient will be produced by this method.
secondary research :
mental condition
respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and airway.
Blood pressure, heart rate, and capillary refill time.
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which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to identify in a client experiencing spinal shock
Alterations in body temperature are symptoms of spinal shock. changes in skin tone and hydration (such as dry and pale skin) abnormality in the function of sweat (decreased or increased sweating, flushing).
What symptoms could be caused by spinal shock?The first sign of spinal shock is a brief increase in blood pressure, which is followed by hypotension, flaccid paralysis, urine retention, and fecal urinary incontinence. If the symptoms do not go within 24 hours, it may necessitate a prolonged period of recuperation and a longer stay in rehabilitation.
What identifies spinal shock the best?[12] The sensory levels in the rostral zone of a spinal shock (ASIA grade A) are spared, those in the next caudal level have diminished sensation, and the levels below have no sensation.
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subfertility/infertility is said to exist when a couple has failed to achieve pregnancy after how many months of unprotected sexual intercourse?
Subfertility is said to exist when a pregnancy has not occurred after at least 1 year of engaging in unprotected coitus.
The terms subfertility and infertility are often used interchangeably, but they aren’t the same. Subfertility is a delay in conceiving. Infertility is the inability to conceive naturally after one year of trying.
In subfertility, the possibility of conceiving naturally exists, but takes longer than average. In infertility, the likelihood of conceiving without medical intervention is unlikely.
According to research, most couples are able to conceive spontaneously within 12 months of having regular unprotected intercourse.
Most of the causes of subfertility are the same as infertility. Trouble conceiving may be due to problems with male or female infertility, or a combination of both. In some cases, the cause is unknown.
Ovulation problems
The most common cause of subfertility is a problem with ovulation. Without ovulation, an egg isn’t released to be fertilized. There are a number of conditions that can prevent ovulation.
Fallopian tube obstruction
Blocked fallopian tubes prevent the egg from meeting the sperm. It can be caused by endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) scar tissue from a previous surgery, such as a surgery for ectopic pregnancy
a history of gonorrhea or chlamydia
Uterine abnormalities
The uterus, also called the womb, is where your baby grows. Abnormalities or defects in the uterus can interfere with your ability to get pregnant. This can include congenital uterine conditions, which are present at birth, or an issue that develops later.
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an ongoing process that considers the risk to electronic information and the data itself to determine if there is adequate security for the system to keep exposure to loss or alteration of phi to a minimum.
Risk management is an ongoing process that assesses the risk to electronic information resources and the information itself in order to develop adequate security for a system that will decrease the danger and vulnerability in order to secure the PHI or protected health information.
Understanding the Security Rule for PHI?The Security Rule protects a subset of the information protected by the Privacy Rule, which is any personally identifiable health information created, received, maintained, or transmitted in electronic form by a covered entity. The Security Rule refers to this data as the "electronic protected health information", or e-PHI. The e-PHI is, for sure, are confidential.
According to the Security Rule, confidentiality is defined as the prohibition against unauthorized users accessing or disclosing e-PHI. The security rule further supports the 2 additional purposes of e-PHI, which are: integrity and availability. The integrity indicates that e-PHI is not changed or destroyed in such an unauthorized manner. Meanwhile, the availability indicates that an authorized individual may access and use e-PHI on demand.
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question 8 of 20 the nurse is creating a discharge teaching plan for a client with a latex allergy. which information should be included? select all that apply.
The nurse is putting together a discharge plan for the patient, encouraging them to wear medical alert bracelets, and teaching them to stay away from known allergens.
What should be done if the patient has a latex allergy?If you are suffering or suspect that you are having an anaphylactic response, get emergency medical attention. Speak with your healthcare provider if your latex exposure results in less severe symptoms. If you can, visit your healthcare practitioner as soon as you react. This will make diagnosis easier.
What occurs if a person has a latex allergy?When latex particles are inhaled (breathed in) or latex is physically contacted, people with latex allergies may experience an allergic reaction. A response to latex can cause skin irritation, rash, hives, runny nose, and other symptoms.
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when teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to conserve energy, what instruction should the nurse give the client about breathing when lifting heavy objects?
The nurse must inform the client to exhale while lifting up heavy objects.
Why should the client exhale and not inhale while doing heavy chores ?Compared to inhaling, exhaling uses less energy. Therefore, elevating while exhaling lowers reported dyspnea and conserves energy. Lips pursed together delay exhalation and provide the client greater control over breathing. Lifting while holding your breath is akin to lifting after you exhale but before you inhale.
The Valsalva maneuver, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias, is comparable to this, hence it shouldn't be advised.
The golden rule for the majority of strength training activities is to exhale when exerted.
During the exertion, keep breathing and exhale carbon dioxide to keep your lungs ready to take in oxygen as your muscles relax. This enhances endurance so you can exercise for a longer period of time and keeps your blood pressure constant.
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a nurse is caring for a confused client and develops a plan of care based on a least restraint policy. which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to implement based on this policy?
The customer is vulnerable to harm from confusion. The client is free to wander about the apartment while wearing the alarm bracelet, but it will go off if the customer tries to leave. The other choices are inadequate because they are constrictive and inappropriate in this circumstance.
What is Chronic Confusion?
According to medical dictionaries, confusion is a state of disordered consciousness that impairs one's ability to think clearly and make decisions. There are two types of confusion: acute confusion, also known as delirium, and chronic confusion, generally known as dementia. A certain risk factor or underlying cause is linked to acute confusion, which frequently develops abruptly over the course of hours or days. Chronic confusion, in contrast, is a long-term, progressive, and probably degenerative process and happens over months or years. Any age range, gender, or clinical issue can fall under either category.
The symptoms of chronic confusion might typically include difficulties with memory recall, problem-solving, language, and attention. Additionally, there may be issues with perception, reasoning, judgement, abstract thinking, communicating, expressing emotions, and carrying out everyday duties. Chronic confusion can be caused by a variety of conditions, including depression, brain infections, tumors, head trauma, multiple sclerosis, abnormalities brought on by hypertension, diabetes, anemia, endocrine problems, malnutrition, and vascular disorders.
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while at a coworker's house, a nurse discusses with the coworker a client whom the nurse suspects of physically abusing the client's child. the next day, the client is moved to another nursing unit after a surgical procedure and comes under the care of the coworker, who is also a nurse. the coworker confronts the client about the alleged physical abuse. the client is shocked and angered by the accusation and denies it categorically. what would be the charge if the client were to file a suit?
The client is shocked and angered by the accusation and denies it categorically. The charge if the client were to file a suit, then the first nurse could be charged with slander.
What is Slander?
A stated statement that is untrue and meant to harm the positive perceptions that others have of someone; the crime of making this type of statement
What evidence is required for slander?
A plaintiff must demonstrate four elements in order to establish defamation prima facie the first one is false statement that is presented as fact, publication of the statement or its dissemination to a third party, negligence-level fault, damages or some other harm to the subject's reputation.
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which term should be used to describe the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in a person's which chronic kidney disease uremia anuria oliguria
The term that is used to describe the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes leading to a chronic kidney disease is called uremia.
What are nitrogenous wastes?The term nitrogenous wastes has to do with the products that are wastes and they contain nitrogen. The are mostly found in the urine. We know that the kidney is the organ in the body that is concerned with the filtration of urine and the disposal of nitrogenous wastes.
In some cases when there is a serious kidney disease, the kidney becomes unable to perform its filtration functions causing an accumulation of nitrogenous wastes to remain in the kidneys, unable to be removed. This process increases the amount of waste in the blood flow, which is also called Uremia.
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the nurse is teaching a client about histamine release during an anaphylactic reaction. what does histamine release in anaphylaxis cause?
In anaphylaxis, histamine release results in an increase in stomach output, dilated capillaries, and constricted bronchial smooth muscle.
What happens to histamine when anaphylaxis strikes?During an allergic reaction, the body releases histamines, which expand the blood vessels and cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Fluid leakage may cause the lungs to enlarge. Anaphylaxis can also cause problems with heart rhythm.
Is anaphylaxis brought on by histamine release?Itching is caused by histamine's interaction with nerves. Food allergies may result in nausea and diarrhea. Additionally, it tightens the lungs' muscles, making it harder to breathe. The most concerning case of histamine-induced reactions is anaphylaxis, a severe reaction with a high mortality risk.
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The fda has approved a new gene therapy drug described as the most expensive ever. How much per treatment?.
Mass.'s CHICOPEE (WWLP) –The most costly medicine currently available on the market has just received FDA approval.Patients with the rare disease hemophilia B are given the medication, known as Hemgenix, which costs $3.5 million per dose.
Which type of gene therapy is the priciest?Hemgenix is significantly more expensive than Novartis' Zolgensma gene therapy for spinal muscular atrophy (SMA), which has a similar single-shot formulation and costs close to $2 million per dosage, makes it the most expensive medication in the world, according to a study cited by the National Library of Medicine.
Which injection costs the most money in the entire world?The hemophilia B gene therapy developed by CSL Behring was given the green light by US regulators. This one-time infusion frees patients from ongoing treatment but comes at a steep price of $3.5 million per dosage, making it the most costly drug in the world.
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a 20-year-old female presents to the office and reports a 4-month history of intermittent upper abdominal pain and burning. it occurs 2 hours after meals. based on her symptoms, she most likely has:
Based on her symptoms, she most likely has: Epigastric pain
What is Epigastric Pain ?
Upper abdominal pain is referred to as epigastric pain. It might indicate an illness. Included in common causes are: acid reflux (stomach acid flowing up into the esophagus) Gastritis (irritation of the stomach lining) (irritation of the stomach lining) Most frequently, the bacteria named H. influenzae are caused by aspirin or NSAID medications like ibuprofen.
Overeating, drinking alcohol while eating, or ingesting oily or spicy foods can all cause epigastric pain. Digestional disorders like lactose intolerance, acid reflux, and peptic ulcer disease can all cause epigastric pain.
The most noticeable sign is soreness or discomfort in the epigastrium. On occasion, soreness will concentrate on one side. Linked to dysphagia, regurgitation, and heartburn. stomach ache or discomfort, heartburn, motion sickness, nausea, and hematemesis.
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the nurse notes bulging and separation of an abdominal incision while assessing a client. what is the purpose of applying a binder?
It supports muscles, eases discomfort, encourages deep breathing, reduces swelling and fluid retention, keeps dressings and bandages in place, and hastens the healing of wounds and incisions.
What steps may a nurse take to avoid cross-contamination?Changing gloves right away after usage shields the client from microbial infection. Cross-contamination is a method error that has substantial ramifications for clients who are already seriously affected.
Nurses are required to use personal protective equipment while handling the designated bodily fluids in accordance with the universal precautions regulation. The single most crucial nursing action to prevent infection is hand washing, which is another effective weapon in the nurse's armoury against contamination.
To prevent bringing infections into a wound, an aseptic method is employed when changing bandages.
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which client would require endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation among clients who were assessed with sudden changes in neurological status after an earthquake?
An endotracheal tube is inserted into the client, who is then put on mechanical ventilation to help reduce ICP increases brought on by suction.
who underwent evaluation for unexpected changes in neurological state following an earthquake?Each component of the client's neurologic condition is given a numerical score according to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The client's neurologic function declines with decreasing GCS score. Client 3 is beginning to see the agony, earning a score of 2. The client's aberrant flexion motor reaction received a score of 3, and the verbal response received a score of 2 due to its incomprehensibility. 2+3+2=7 is the final score as a result. A score of 8 or less implies the need for artificial ventilation and endotracheal intubation. Customer 1 will have a 12 GCS rating. Client 2 will be assigned a GCS of 13. Client 4 will be assigned a GCS of 9.
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a nurse is teaching an elderly client about developing good bowel habits. which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that additional teaching is required?
To avoid constipation, I must frequently take laxatives. The client's statement alerts the nurse that more instruction is needed.
What causes constipation most frequently?Consuming too little fiber from sources like fruit, veggies, and grains a modification to your daily routine or way of life, such altering your dietary patterns. having little discretion when using the bathroom. avoiding the want to go to the bathroom.
Which foods make you constipated?If you don't consume sufficient rising foods, such as fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, you risk developing congestion. Constipation may result from consuming an excessive amount of high-calorie meats, dairy products, yolks, pastries, or processed meals. lacking in liquids.
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when developing a teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes, the nurse should explain that an increase thirst is an early sing of diabetes ketoacidosis (dka), which action should the nurse instruct the client to implement if this sign of dka occur? a. resume normal physical activity b. drink electrolyte fluid replacement c. give a dose of regular insulin per sliding scale d. measure urinary output over 24 hours.
c. give a dose of regular insulin per sliding scale action should the nurse instruct the client to implement if this sign of dka occur.
What is the initial advice for a diabetic who has just received a diagnosis?Consume a range of foods, such as lean meats or meat alternatives, whole grains, fruits, vegetables, non-fat dairy products, and veggies. Try to limit your food intake. Avoid eating too much of one kind of food. Eat regularly spaced meals throughout the day.
Postoperative DKA may be precipitated by anaesthesia and surgical stress, abrupt insulin discontinuation or inadequate perioperative care, postoperative infection, protracted poor oral intake, and severe dehydration.
The most popular intravenous fluid used to treat DKA is normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride).
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Bacteria, viruses or fungi that invade and grow in the bladder or kidney can cause.
a patient who is receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea and vomiting. which action would be beneficial to the patient?
A chemotherapy-treated cancer patient reported having terrible nausea and vomiting. For the patient's best interests, ondansetron [Zofran] should be administered.
What relieves nausea and vomiting brought on by chemotherapy?Eat bland items like crackers and dry bread. To reduce food's flavor and scent, eat it cold or at room temperature. Avoid foods that are fried, spicy, sugary, or greasy. Several times a day, try eating modest portions of calorie-dense, convenient foods like pudding, ice cream, sherbets, yogurt, and milkshakes.
Which medication would be most helpful for treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting?Dexamethasone is the most effective antiemetic for preventing delayed nausea and vomiting, according to studies.
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10. which information will the nurse include when teaching range-of-motion exercises to a patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
Your joints' flexibility and range of motion can be increased with stretches and range-of-motion exercises.
What is the most typical rheumatoid arthritis complication?You have an increased risk of cardiovascular disease if you have rheumatoid arthritis (CVD). A illness affecting the heart or blood vessels is referred to as cardiovascular disease (CVD), which also encompasses potentially fatal issues including heart attacks and strokes.
What is the leading cause of death in rheumatoid arthritis patients?Rheumatoid arthritis patients have a roughly doubled risk of passing away before the age of 75 and a higher risk of dying from cardiovascular disease and respiratory issues.
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a nurse is administering lorazepam to a client with status epilepticus. the nurse will be prepared to administer which additional drug to treat the status epilepticus for the next several hours?
Correct option is B, Lorazepam (Ativan).
To stop motor movements, lorazepam is first given intravenously. The administration of phenytoin comes next. Beta blockers like atenolol and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors like lisinopril are not given to treat seizure activity. These drugs are frequently used to treat heart failure and hypertension.
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which complications is edith jacobson at risk for because of her age and hip fracture? (select all that apply.)
Due to her hip fracture, the patient is at risk for pneumonia, pressure ulcers, and mental decline.
What is Edith Jacobson's top priority in terms of results?What is Edith Jacobson's preferred outcome in light of her hip fracture? - With an assistance device, the patient can walk without worrying about falling.
What actions would the nurse note as being indicative of Mrs. Jacobson's level of awareness (LOC) lethargy?Lethargy would be represented by a patient who opens her eyes, responds to a question, and then goes back to sleep when consciousness levels are being discussed. Obtunded refers to awakening to only loud noises and appearing disoriented, whereas stupor refers to awakening that requires mental effort.
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which action should the nurse implement when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client?
The bladder must be empty in order to measure the fundal height properly and prevent the uterus from rising.
Which assessment result in the early stages of labor needs to be reported right away to the healthcare provider?Patients are advised to notify their healthcare professional right away if they notice anything unusual, including hematomas, unusual discharge, odors, or severe pain.
What does nursing management entail during the initial phase of labor?The following are the nursing duties for this stage: Update the patient on the status of her labor. Help the patient breathe pant-blow. Monitor the mother's vital signs and the fetal heart rate every 30 to 1 hour, or as directed by the doctor.
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when providing nutrition education to the client with diabetes, the nurse should include which statement regarding fat intake?
Avoiding saturated fats is vital if you have diabetes. High intakes of saturated fat and consumption of high fat diets are linked to an increased risk of type 2 diabetes.
For those with diabetes, fat is a necessary component of a healthy, balanced diet. Saturated fats, however, can raise your chance of developing heart disease or a stroke. Therefore, it is preferable to limit your intake of saturated fat to less than 10% of your daily calorie intake.
Fatty fish, particularly salmon, halibut, mackerel, tuna, sardines, sea bass, herring, pompano, and lake trout, are good suppliers. 1-2 times every week, eat fish. Flax seeds, walnuts, canola oil, soybeans, and soy products are vegetarian sources of omega-3 fatty acids, but they might not be as efficient as meat-based sources.
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twenty-year-old leslie learned she is hyperopic after having her eyes examined. what best describes her eye condition?
Leslie, age 20, has hyperopia, and after analyzing her test results, it was discovered that her eyeballs are abnormally lengthy.
Are you hyper- or myo-sighted?
Having trouble seeing up close or at a distance determines if you have myopia or hyperopia. It is challenging to see things up close when you are farsighted (hyperopia), and it is challenging to see things far away when you are nearsighted (myopia).
How is an eye that is hyperopic fixed?
Both intraocular lens implantation and laser refractive surgery (LASIK) are options for treating hyperopia. Both techniques offer a quick and efficient fix that also enables the simultaneous correction of astigmatism, presbyopia, and other refractive flaws in addition to hyperopia (eyestrain).
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