The baby's current condition (i.e., the Apgar scores at 1 and 5 minutes) and any therapy or resuscitation that was recommended will most likely determine whether or not they need immediate care.
What kind of job are nurses expected to do?Registered nurses (RNs) oversee and carry out medical procedures, educate the public about different health conditions, and offer patients and their families emotional support. In a number of contexts, the majority of registered nurses work in conjunction with physicians and other healthcare professionals.
Can a nurse carry out the job?They are responsible for a number of post-operative surgical therapeutic duties. Many surgical nursing professionals choose to focus on that particular area whether it comes to obstetrics, pediatric surgery, or cardiac surgery.
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when analyzing the behaviors of a 23-year-old who meets the criteria for antisocial personality disorder, the nurse recognizes that which nursing diagnosis would be pertinent to his care? 1 point risk for self-mutilation
C. Impaired Social Interactions is the correct answer.
Impulsive, cunning, and dishonest behaviour are all characteristics of an antisocial personality disorder patient. Patients with this illness engage in criminal activity rather regularly. Patients with borderline personality disorder are more appropriately diagnosed with self-mutilation and disturbed identity. Cluster A diseases would be more likely to experience social isolation.
What is Personality Disorder?
If you have a rigid and unhealthy habit of thinking, acting, and behaving, you may have a personality disorder. A personality disorder makes it difficult for the sufferer to perceive and relate to others.
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a client is admitted on the day of surgery for an arthroscopy of the left knee. which nursing activities should be completed prior to administering anesthesia to the client to avoid wrong-site surgery? select all that apply.
The root cause of wrong-site surgery involves a breakdown in communication between the client and family and the health care team.
In the preoperative evaluation, information such as the client's identity, surgery location, and procedure should be verbally appraised and validated with medical records and radiographic diagnostic findings. This information should be gathered into a checklist that the intraoperative team may go through again and again, reducing undue distraction and delay in the operating room.
The operating room nurse is responsible for calling a "time out" so that each surgical team member can double-check the correct site of surgery, verify the site using the operative consent form, and ensure that the surgeon has marked the operative site on the client.
Showing the client an anatomic model will help them understand where the surgery will take place, but it will not prevent anyone from identifying the wrong site on the client.
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a full term infant is admitted to the newborn nursery. after careful assessment, the nurse suspects that the infant may have an esophageal atresia. which symptoms are this newborn likely to exhibit?
The nurse thinks the baby might have esophageal atresia. This infant is likely to display symptoms of cyanosis, coughing, and choking.
Can you self diagnose symptoms?Self-diagnosis is not only unpleasant, but it may also be risky. Making quick judgments about the ailment you have could lead to you receiving unfair treatment. People who self-diagnose psychological syndromes risk missing a physical condition that relates to their symptoms by doing so.
What are the types of symptoms?Three basic categories of symptom exist: Resolving signs: Remittance symptoms are those that become better or go away completely. Chronic symptoms are those that last a long time or come back frequently. Symptoms that have previously appeared, gone away, and then come back are referred to as relapsing symptoms.
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a client develops an immunodeficiency disorder after receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer. the client asks the nurse if he was born with this deficiency. what is the nurse's best response?
The ideal answer from the nurse is, "You have established a secondary immunodeficiency condition as a result of your treatment."
When the immune system becomes ineffective, autoimmune illness develops. 90% fewer T-cells are present. Disorders of the immune system can be either inherited or acquired. You are born with a congenital, or main, disease. A secondary or acquired ailment is one that develops later in life. The following tests taken by a nurse might be used to identify an autoimmune disorder: treatment for antinuclear antibodies (ANA). testing for autoantibodies. White blood cell difference in CBC with complete blood count (CBC with WBC differential). However, a person's Cd4 cell count might drop below 500 and still experience some OIs. The CD4 cell count of HIV-positive individuals increases their risk for OIs whenever it drops below 200. However,the nurse inform a person's Cd4 cell count might drop below 500 and still experience some OIs.
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an adult client complains of dark stools for the past 3 days. which lab should the nurse review right away?
Answer:
Dark stool may indicate presence of blood. Therefore, a complete blood count should be assessed to check for blood loss.
Explanation:
teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. the nurse should
The nurse should avoid the client to intake herbs like Soy isoflavones
Why should you avoid herbs while taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism?Levothyroxine is a type of thyroid medicine that is used to treat conditions like goiter, Hashimoto's disease, and poor thyroid function (hypothyroidism).
The herb most frequently linked to the treatment of hypothyroidism is Fucus vesiculosus, sometimes known as bladderwrack. Due to its high iodine concentration, this kelp and seaweed supplement is frequently used in the treatment of hypothyroidism.
Many patients mix their thyroxine with water that has been infused with herbal extracts. Thyroxine's effectiveness was significantly decreased when combined with herbal brews.
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a child has painful, fluid-filled vesicles on the upper lip. what medication does the nurse anticipate teaching parents about?
This young person has herpes. For viral illnesses like herpes simplex, oral antiviral medications are beneficial.
Viral infections cannot be treated with corticosteroids. The antifungal drug griseofulvin is ineffective against viral infections. Viral illnesses are not susceptible to antibiotic treatment.
The general impact that COVID-19 can have on the healthcare system is lessened by the ability to manage SARS-CoV-2 infection without the requirement for hospital admission thanks to oral antiviral medications.
Why are antiviral medications used?
Antivirals are drugs that support your body's defences against specific viruses that can harm you. Drugs that fight viruses are also preventative. They can protect you from infectious diseases and the proliferation of viruses.
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the nurse is teaching care of the newborn to a group of prospective parents and describes the need for administering antibiotic ointment into the eyes of the newborn. which infectious organism will this treatment prevent from harming the infant?
Nurse is teaching care of newborn and describes the need for administering antibiotic ointment in eyes of the newborn. Infectious organism that this treatment will prevent is gonorrhea.
What is done to prevent gonorrhea in infant?Gonorrhea may infect an infant during delivery as the infant passes through the birth canal. If it is left untreated, infants can develop eye infections.
A sexually transmitted bacterial infection that, if untreated, may cause infertility.
Erythromycin ointment is instilled in the lower conjunctiva of each eye within 2 hours of birth to prevent ophthalmica neonatorum and infection caused by gonorrhea including conjunctivitis which is an infection caused by chlamydia.
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what are some adverse health effects of overconsuming protein? multiple select question. increased calcium loss in urine increased formation of kidney stones excessive increase in muscle mass increased heart rate at rest dehydration due to increased urine production
Some adverse health effects of overconsuming protein are:
1) Increased calcium loss in urine.
2) Increased formation of kidney stones.
3 )Excessive increase in muscle mass.
4) Dehydration due to increased urine production.
What is Protein?
Protein is an essential macronutrient made up of amino acids that is required for the growth, repair, and maintenance of cells. It is found in both animal and plant sources and is necessary for the body to function properly. Protein is important for building muscle, repairing tissue, producing hormones, enzymes, and other body chemicals, and helping to maintain healthy skin, hair, nails, and bones.
Why should we not overconsume protein?
Overconsumption of protein can lead to a variety of health concerns. Excessive protein intake can cause dehydration, digestive issues such as nausea and diarrhea, and an increased risk of kidney stones and kidney damage. Additionally, high protein diets can cause weight gain due to increased calorie intake and can also impair the body's ability to absorb essential vitamins and minerals.
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an older adult client is prescribed methylcellulose every morning. what should the nurse emphasize when teaching about this medication?
Combine with a lot of water.
What are the five guidelines for administering medication?One recommendation given to reduce pharmaceutical errors and harm is to use the "five rights": the proper patient, the correct drug, a right dose, that right route, as well as the right time.
How many rights are there?The "five rights" of medication use—the appropriate patient, the right substance, the right time, the right dose, and the right route—are known to the majority of healthcare workers, especially nurses, and are commonly recognized as standards for safe medication practices.
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which statement should the nurse convey to the mother of a 3-year-old son who has not achieved urinary continence?
The nurse should inform the mother of a 3-year-old boy who has not gained urine continence that boys sometimes take longer to attain daytime urinary continence.
Which type of incontinence is brought on by a detrusor muscle that is hyperactive and causes uncontrollable bladder contractions?Patients frequently mention triggers for urge incontinence, such as chilly temperatures, running water, or inserting a key into a lock. A urodynamic diagnosis of leakage accompanied by uncontrollable detrusor muscle spasms is called detrusor overactivity incontinence.
Why does incontinence occur?Numerous conditions, such as urinary tract infections, vaginal infections or irritations, or constipation, can cause incontinence. Some medications have the potential to cause momentary bladder control issues. Weak pelvic floor muscles or a weak bladder may be to blame for incontinence that lasts longer.
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during a home visit, the nurse discovers that a child in the household who has a disability has been experiencing seizures. the child's parent appears indifferent to the child's physical, emotional, or medical needs and seems to provoke seizure episodes by harsh verbal exchanges with the child. where would the nurse direct a referral?
Child has been experiencing seizures and the child's parent seems to provoke seizure episodes by harsh verbal exchanges with the child so the nurse would direct a referral to Child Protective Services.
Child Protective Services (CPS) provides protection for kids who are in danger of, or are experiencing neglect, physical, sexual, or emotional abuse. the main focus is on the protection of the kid and support for folks to strengthen families and promote safe nurturing homes for kids.
A seizure is a sharp, uncontrolled electrical phenomenon within the brain. It will cause changes in your behavior, movements or feelings, and in levels of consciousness. Having 2 or a lot of seizures a minimum of twenty four hours apart that are not brought on by a classifiable cause is usually thought of to be brain disease.
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tobacco smoke inhaled and exhaled by the smoker is referred to as: a. sidestream smoke. b. mainstream smoke. c. passive smoke. d. none of these is correct.
B) Mainstream smoke is the term used to describe the tobacco smoke that a smoker inhales and exhales.
Tobacco smoke that smokers exhale. Secondhand smoke might also include cigarette smoke. It has a lot of dangerous, cancer-causing substances, including nicotine. Smoking in public places raises your risk of developing lung cancer and possibly other cancers as well. smoke that emanates from a tobacco product that is burning, such as a cigarette, pipe, or cigar, that has been lit. Secondhand smoke includes sidestream smoke.
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a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle) is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. which teaching will the nurse include for this client?
The teaching which the nurse will include for client with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle) is Facial rash. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Systemic lupus erythematosus?Systemic lupus erythematosus is the most common type of lupus disease. SLE is an autoimmune disease which include the immune system attacks its own tissues, which causes widespread inflammation and tissue damage in the affected organs of the body. It can affect the joints, skin, brain, lungs, kidneys, and blood vessels.
Symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus are flare ups with periods of remittance. It is important to teach the clients need for preventing flare-ups by doing things such as avoiding exposure to sun, proper skin care routine, avoiding sources of infection, and reducing stress.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A Nurse is assessing a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Facial rash
B. Thickened skin
C. Chronic back pain
D. Iritis
The loops of henle create a concentration gradient in the interstitial fluid surrounding the loop, with the concentration highest in the _____ and lowest in the _____ of the kidney.
The loops of henle create a concentration gradient in the interstitial fluid surrounding the loop, with the concentration highest in the inner medulla and lowest in the cortex of the kidney.
The nephron's Loop of Henle is a U-shaped tubular structure that is recognised for preserving a concentration gradient there.
The Henle loop is found in the renal medulla of the kidney, beneath the proximal tubule, which is found in the renal cortex.
Due to the strong concentration gradient created by the Henle loop in the inner medulla, water is reabsorbed in the descending tubule. The ascending limb has a modest concentration gradient in the cortex because it is impervious to water but permeable to ions.
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a perioperative team is performing time-out prior to a cardiac bypass procedure. list the components of the time-out process. ati
The Universal Protocol has three elements: pre-procedural confirmation, site marking, & time out.
Before making the surgical incision or beginning the process, the whole surgical team checks the patient's identification, the treatment, and the surgical site. A time-out is also a place set aside for team members to raise any issues they may have about the safety of the patient or the treatment.
Best practices advise that the physician who will be doing the surgery should lead the time out, with participation from the whole team who will be attending to the patient throughout the treatment.
Making one person accountable for calling the timeout is an efficient technique to ensure team compliance & maintain planned time-outs. In the majority of ORs, the circulation.
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a coworker is telling you about a recent ems call in which he provided care to a preschooler. based on this description, you know that age of the patient would have been:
We know the patient's age would have been between 3 and 6 years old based on the description provided, which is a recent EMS call from a caregiver providing care to a preschooler.
What is a preschooler?Preschool age is defined as 3 to 5 years old by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. There are, however, no rigid and binding regulations. Some preschools accept children as young as three years old, while others accept children as young as four. The typical beginning age is between three and four years old. In another source, it is mentioned that the age range for preschoolers is 3–6 years old since most children end their preschool period by entering first grade, or kindergarten, at the age of 6.
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Approximately one out of every 2,500 caucasians in the united states is born with the recessive disease cystic fibrosis. According to the hardy-weinberg equilibrium equation, approximately how many people are carriers?.
Recessive illnesses have a ratio of 1/2500=.0004=q2, which is because 1-q=1-.02=.98=p and heterozygous (2pq) carriers make up 4% of the population.
What do you mean by disease?Disease is any adverse variation from an organism's normal structural or functional condition that is often accompanied by a set of symptoms and is different from physical damage in origin. Indicative of its aberrant status, a sick organism frequently displays signs or symptoms.
What are the many sorts of disease?There are four primary categories of disease: physiological illnesses, hereditary diseases (covering both genetic disorders and non-genetic hereditary diseases), deficient diseases, and infectious diseases. Another approach to categorize illnesses is according to whether they are contagious or not.
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which action would the nurse take when performing endotracheal tube suctioning on a patient with thick secretion
To avoid hypoxemia, the nurse should give oxygen for 30 seconds after the last suction and before beginning the next.
How is endotracheal suctioning carried out?The suction pressure should be between 120 and 140 mm Hg. To achieve this, unlock the suction control valve (thumb valve), fully depress the valve, and adjust the vacuum regulator. Just enough suction should be applied to efficiently remove secretions. The injury to the tracheal mucosa may increase with high negative pressure levels.
Can an endotracheal tube be suctioned?Intensive care units routinely suction endotracheal tubes (ETTs) to remove mucus and maintain an open airway so that an intubated patient's oxygenation and ventilation can be maximized. Hypoxia may result with ETT suction because of oxygen suction from Alveoli and the lung.
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a client has been diagnosed with aortic stenosis and asks the nurse what this means. the most appropriate response would be:
Answer:
The valve opening is narrowed and produces increased resistance to blood flow out of the left ventricle and into the aorta.
Explanation:
if your patient presented with edema in their lower extemity what soft tissue technique would you use
If patient presented with edema in their lower extremity the soft tissue technique of effleurage and kneading should be used.
What causes edema in extremities?Some causes of edema in the extremities include: Any obstruction, including a blood clot in a vein, can stop the flow of blood. Edema develops as a result of fluid leakage into the surrounding tissue as venous pressure rises. Varicose veins: These typically develop as a result of broken valves.
Which drug treats edema the best?Loop diuretics are frequently the first drug of choice when a clinician is treating edema directly. In certain circumstances, a physician might also advise taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicines (NSAIDs).
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the nurse would consider which disaster management plans to be most applicable if an earthquake hits a metropolitan area causing widespread death and injuries? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The management plans that nurse would use for the earthquake hits a metropolitan area causing widespread death and injuries are Collaboration of more than one groups and healthcare facilities.
Make an Emergency Plan: Create a own circle of relatives emergency communications plan that has an out-of-country contact. Plan wherein to fulfill in case you get separated. Make a deliver package that consists of sufficient meals and water for numerous days, a flashlight, a hearthplace extinguisher and a whistle. Activation” refers to figuring out the reaction stage for the system.
As implemented to the Healthcare Coalition, activation refers back to the selection to transition from baseline operations to HCRT operations with a delegated staffing stage as defined withinside the Coalition's EOP.
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true or false? otc stimulants can cause headaches, breathing problems, and rapid heartbeat when used in high doses.
Yes, it is true that OTC stimulants can cause breathing problems, headaches and irregular heartbeat when used in high doses.
OTC stimulant is A non-prescription–Over-The-Counter substance– e.g., phenylpropanolamine, ephedrine before its banning, pseudoephedrine, caffeine, used as an anorexiant, amphetamine substitute, or stimulant Adverse effects Overdose, adverse drug interactions, toxicity– eg HTN, tachyarrhythmia, seizures, hypertension.
OTC medicines treat a variety of illnesses and their symptoms including pain, coughs and colds, diarrhea, constipation, acne, and others. Some OTC medicines have active ingredients with the potential for misuse at higher-than-recommended dosages.
Misuse of an OTC medicine means:
a. taking medicine in a way or dose other than directed on the package
b. taking medicine for the effect it causes- for example, to get high
c. mixing OTC medicines together to create new products
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a 44-year-old man present for follow-up of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus, which was diagnosed 32 years ago. what change on his fundoscopic examination would indicate a need for urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?
The defining feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is neovascularization. . They are prone to fundoscopic , which can cause retinal detachment, vitreous hemorrhage, and blindness.
Pan retinal laser photocoagulation is frequently used to treat proliferative retinopathy, which necessitates an immediate referral to an ophthalmologist. The degree of fundoscopic control and length of diabetes are both factors that influence the chance of developing diabetic retinopathy. It falls under the proliferative and nonproliferative categories. Nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy, which typically develops 10 to 20 years after the start of diabetes, is characterized by blot fundoscopic , cotton wool patches, and microaneurysms. It's not always the case that nonproliferative retinopathy develops into proliferative retinopathy,
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given the fact that acute pancreatitis can result in severe, life-threatening complications, the nurse should be assessing the client for which complication?
The symptoms of acute pancreatitis might also include disorientation, respiratory failure, or coma but not necessarily stomach pain. Possible findings the nurse should look for include pleural effusion, slight jaundice, tachycardia, and hypotension.
What is acute pancreatitis ?The pancreatic becomes inflamed over a short period of time in acute pancreatitis, a dangerous disorder. A tiny organ behind the stomach and beneath the ribs is the pancreas.
Gallstones or excessive alcohol use are the primary causes of acute pancreatitis, however sometimes no cause may be found.
Upper abdomen pain is one of the indications and symptoms of acute pancreatitis.
radiating back ache from your abdomen
sensitivity to touch in the abdominal region.
Fever.
rapid heartbeat
Nausea.
Vomiting
The pancreas becomes inflamed and enlarged during a brief period of time in acute pancreatitis. The pancreas is a little organ that aids in digestion and is situated behind the stomach. Most people with acute pancreatitis start feeling better within a week or so and don't experience any more complications.
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a client at a health care facility has died after a prolonged illness. a nurse is assigned to perform postmortem care for the client. which intervention should the nurse perform when providing postmortem care?
The nurse should perform interventions that are respectful and compassionate to the deceased.
What do you mean by Postmortem?
Postmortem is a medical examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death. It is usually performed by a pathologist, who examines the body and its organs to identify any underlying diseases or injuries that may have led to the death of the individual.
The interventions included in the postmortem care assigned to the nurse are: covering the body with a sheet or blanket, closing the eyes and mouth of the deceased, straightening the limbs, and positioning the body in a dignified manner. The nurse should also remove any tubes or equipment that were used while the client was receiving care. The nurse should document the care provided in the client's medical record. The nurse should also ensure that the family is given the opportunity to view the body and to spend time with it, if desired. Lastly, the nurse should document the time of death and any other pertinent information related to the death.
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Explain the perspective of holistic medicine and the importance of preventative medicine. Write at least two sentences.
Holistic medicine is a type of treatment that focuses on the whole person—their mind, body, emotions, and spirit—in order to achieve optimal health and wellness. A holistic physician can treat a patient using any type of healthcare, including conventional medicine and alternative therapies.
A medical facility known as preventive medicine was established by the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS) and serves a crucial role by concentrating on the wellbeing of the local populations. The goal of preventive medicine is to promote wellbeing and health as well as to avert illness, disability, and death.
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a client with a history of acute coronary syndrome asks why she needs to take aspirin 81 mg every day. the most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
"Aspirin can aid in preventing blood clot formation." Salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) is indeed the antiplatelet medication of choice for ACS patients to stop platelet aggregation.It is thought that aspirin speeds up reperfusion and lessen the risk of rethrombosis because it works by preventing the formation of prostaglandin thromboxane A2.The third option does not exhibit therapeutic communication, and this amount of aspirin is not suitable for relieving pain.
What three forms for acute coronary syndrome are there?Patients with suspected or confirmed acute myocardial ischemia or infarction are referred to as having acute coronary syndrome (ACS).The three conventional kinds of ACS are unstable angina, ST-elevation myocardial infarction, and non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
Is there a cure for acute coronary syndrome?Acute coronary syndrome can be prevented or treated with the appropriate lifestyle modifications and medications, allowing a person to continue a normal life.
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an older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. she has most likely experienced a(n)
When her pain persisted, she went to her primary care doctor.
What is the most typical reason for falls among senior people?Risk factors for falling include postural hypotension, issues with balance and gait, and age-related loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia), which causes an excessive drop in blood pressure when you get up from lying down or sitting.
Which of the following conditions frequently affect senior joints?The most prevalent type of arthritis in older persons is osteoarthritis. Additionally, it is among the most typical causes of physical disability in adulthood. When the tissues that cushion the ends of the bones within the joints degenerate over time, it results in osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint condition.
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what action should the nurse implement to decrease the client's risk for hemorrhage after a cesarean section?
PPH is more common in people with placental issues like placenta accreta, placenta previa, placental abruption, and retained placenta. PPH risk is further increased by an overextended uterus.
What nursing technique is frequently applied to preserve uterine tone?Intravenous oxytocin takes effect right away and increases uterine contractions to aid in uterine muscle tone maintenance.
What causes hemorrhage during C section?Excessive haemorrhage associated with caesarean section, commonly defined as blood loss in excess of 1000 ml, is frequently underestimated, but is documented as occurring in more than 5-10% of caesarean sections.
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