A fish-tank has a length of 45 centimeters, a width of 25 centimeters and a depth of 10 centimeters.
Find the volume of the fish tank.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$183.20/(8 hours) = $22.90/hour

13 hours × $22.90/hour = $297.70

Answer:

(x+5)²=0

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know how to explain this.. I'm sorry. It's an algebraic identity. If that helps..

Answer:

4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 1/3(Bh)  where B is the area of the base and h is the height of the pyramid

B = 20(20) = 400      h = 30

V = 1/3(400)(30) = 4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

6/7=x/35

35/7=5

6x5=30

x=30

Answer:

D 6x4

Step-by-step explanation:

so i had this in a test and this was the correct answer, so i wanna help others.

  its D 6x4

Answer:

0.64615384615

Step-by-step explanation:

(2.5 + 2.75)/(8 + 1/8)

5.25/8 1/8

1/8 = 0.125

5.25/8.125 =

=0.64615384615

Hope this helps! I might be wrong

Answer: A (2.5)

Step-by-step explanation: got it right on edge 2021

Answer:

You didnt show a map

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

doge

Step-by-step explanation:

EAnswers avatar

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Answer: Hi i hope your doing good well the answer is 55

Step-by-step explanation: Angles one and two are complementary. So we know the sum of their measures is 90 degrees. So, to find the measure of angle two, subtract the measure of angle one from 90 degrees. We substitute in the given value of the measure of angle one, which is 35 degrees. Subtracting, we find that the measure of angle two equals 55 degrees.

 Hope i helped :)

Answer:

i tried my best. But its not worth it

sowwy

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

ok told you ahhhhhhhhhhhh

Answer:

It should be the last one!! :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

54m^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of Rectangle: 6x8= 48

Area of one triangle: 3

Area of the figure: 48+3+3= 54

Note: added an extra 3 for the other triangle

Answer:

4

Step by step:

This is if the question is saying you completed 87.5% of the exercises. Otherwise, I don't know what it is asking.

87.5% of 32=28

32-28=4

Answer:

0.625

Step-by-step explanation:

i think it's 0.625

Answer:

umm maybe 6/25

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the whole thing would be  (-5,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

1 would be -5

2 would be 4

3 would be (-5,4)

4 would be (4,-5)

Answer:

C 90 ft³

Step-by-step explanation:

surface area = 2 (h · l + h · w + l · w)

The measurements of this rectangular prism is:

h = 2

w = 5

l = 5

2 (2 · 5 + 2 · 5 + 5 · 5)

Using PEMDAS, we have:

2 (10 + 10 + 25)

2 (45)

90 ft cubed

Answer:

sorry i need points but i hope you find what your looking for!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20 of the M&M's are blue.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{2}{3} \times 30 \\ = 20[/tex]

Set of events " rolling a six-sided cube and drawing 6 marbles out of a bag " have an equally like chance of occurring.

Option B is correct.

Probability of series of experiments shown below;

A. When spinning a spinner with 3 sections then probability of one section is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] .

 When tossing a coin, then probability of getting head or tail is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

So that, set A has not equally like chance of occurring.

B. When rolling six-sided cube, probability of getting one number is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

   When one marble is drawn out of 6 marble in a bag, then  probability is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Therefore, set B has equally like chance of occurring.

Learn more about the probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/24756209

Answer:

13.5 is the next term

4, 6, 9, 13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric sequence since there is a common ratio between each term. In this case, multiplying the previous term in the sequence by 3/2

formula= an=a1⋅r^n-1

Answer:

45.5625

Step-by-step explanation:

The pattern seems to be x + (x/2) = y where x is the previous number and y is the next number.

4 + (4/2) = 6

6 + (6/2) = 9

therefore we continue the pattern. In doing so we get:

30.375 + (30.375/2) = 45.5625

Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

The unitary technique involves first determining the value of a single unit, followed by the value of the necessary number of units.

For example, Let's say Ram spends 36 Rs. for a dozen (12) bananas.

12 bananas will set you back 36 Rs. 1 banana costs 36 x 12 = 3 Rupees.

As a result, one banana costs three rupees. Let's say we need to calculate the price of 15 bananas.

This may be done as follows: 15 bananas cost 3 rupees each; 15 units cost 45 rupees.

We have,

Mary earns $247.25 for gardening.

Mary worked for 21.5 hours.

So, Mary earns per hour

= 247.25 / 21.5

= $11.5

Thus, Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

Learn more about Unitary Method here:

https://brainly.com/question/22056199

#SPJ2

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$260,437.50

$108,750

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the complete question :

Fill in the book value at the end of year 1 under each depreciation method when residual value is $36,000 and useful life is 4 years: Depreciation method:

Straight-line           $335,250

Units-of-Output

Double-declining $217,500

Book value = cost of the asset - first year depreciation expense

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

(335250 - 36,000) / 2 = $74,812.50

Book value =  $335,250 - $74,812.50 = $260,437.50

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/4 = 0.5

$217,500 x 0.5 = 108,750

Book value = $217,500 - 108,750 = $108750

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+3x+2-x-1\\ \\ f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+2x+1[/tex]

Answer:

C=6.28 m | A=12.56 m²

explanation:

C=3.14×d

C=3.14×2

C=6.28 m

A=3.14×r²

A=3.14×2²

A=3.14×4

A=12.56 m²

Answer:

0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

We can calculate the probability of picking a red marble by:

- adding all the marbles together

- then subtract the amount of red marbles by the number found previously.

2 + 3 + 5 = 10

10 - 5 = 5

5 is what of 10?

5 is 50% of 10.

50% means 0.5 out of 1.

Your answer is 0.5.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day.

Answer:

The expression represents the amount of money in the bank account after the increase is: x=1.158n.

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information provided, you can say that the amount of money in the bank after the increase would be equal to multiplying the amount at the beginning of the year for the result of adding up 1 plus the percentage of the increase, which would be:

x=n*(1+0.158)

x=n*1.158

x=1.158n, where:

x is the amount of money in the bank account after the increase

n is the amount of money at the beginning of the year