Promethazine would be best suited for the prevention of motion sickness. It can be taken orally and before starting the journey.
Antihistamines are drugs which treat allergic rhinitis, common cold, influenza, and other allergies. Typically, people take antihistamines as an inexpensive, generic (not patented) drug that can be bought without a prescription and provides relief from nasal congestion, sneezing, or hives caused by pollen, dust mites, or animal allergy with few side effects. Antihistamines are usually for short-term treatment. Chronic allergies increase the risk of health problems which antihistamines might not treat, including asthma, sinusitis, and lower respiratory tract infection. Consultation of a medical professional is recommended for those who intend to take antihistamines for longer-term use.
Itching, sneezing, and inflammatory responses are suppressed by antihistamines that act on H1-receptors. In 2014, antihistamines such as desloratadine were found to be effective to complement standardized treatment of acne due to their anti-inflammatory properties and their ability to suppress sebum production.
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the nurse prepares thepatient for an abdomina assessment. which examination position would be the most appropriate for this patient?
The nurse prepares the patient for an abdominal assessment, then the examination position that would be most appropriate for this patient is : supine position .
Why is supine position best for the abdominal assessment of patient?The patient in a supine position has the head relaxed and the arms on the side of the body. This is extremely necessary for relaxing the abdominal wall muscles completely.
The supine position helps to inspect, auscultate, percuss, and palpate whereas sitting upright on the examination table makes palpation and percussion very difficult.
A high-Fowler's and left lateral position position makes palpation and percussion difficult.
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an adult client with a history of migraines has been prescribed sumatriptan 50 mg po prn. when should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?
The nurse should instruct the client to take the sumatriptan as soon as they sense a migraine coming.
Sumatriptan is a prescription medication used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by narrowing the serotonin receptors located on blood vessels in the brain. This helps to take away the headache. Sumatriptan tablets generally work within 30 to 60 minutes.
Sumatriptan isn't normally taken on a regular basis. Instead, it should only be taken as soon as the client feels the first sign of a coming migraine. Taking sumatriptan may increase the risk of having abnormal heart rhythm and heart attack.
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which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence? a client a. who is bedfast, with increased serum bun and creatinine levels
When the bladder is abnormally swollen, which frequently happens in a bewildered client (B) who forgets to empty it, overflow incontinence ensues. who struggles with confusion but also frequently forgets to use the restroom
What are incontinence's initial warning signs?
difficulties passing pee, including a sluggish stream, straining to do so, or stopping and starting. issues after urinating, such as the impression that your bladder is still partially full or releasing just few amounts of urination after you think you're done.
Is there a natural remedy for incontinence?
Exercises for the kegels are among the most efficient at-home treatments for urine incontinence. The muscles utilized to stop urine flow are known to be flexed during these workouts. They are helpful for treating incontinence in its early stages.
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a client is being treated for a fractured hip and the nurse is aware of the need to implement interventions to prevent muscle wasting and other complications of immobility. what intervention best addresses the client's need for exercise?
Regular bone density testing, a high-calcium diet, the use of fall prevention precautions, and weight-bearing exercise are what the client needs to do.
What is muscle wasting?
The shrinking and withering of muscle tissue is referred to as muscular atrophy. When a muscle's nerve supply is cut off, it might deteriorate and eventually die. As people get older, they may lose 20 to 40% of their muscle, and with it, their strength.
Corticosteroids have the potential to reduce bone density and increase the risk of fractures.
Hence, the answer is, Health promotion measures after an older adult's hip fracture are regular bone density testing, a high-calcium diet, the use of fall prevention precautions, and weight-bearing exercise are what the client needs to do.
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a young adult is going on vacation to a sunny climate and plans on using a tanning booth to build up a protective tan. which instructions should the nurse provide to the young adult?
Tanning places should be avoided by the adult.
Why should tanning places be avoided?
Your skin cells are harmed by tanning, which also hastens the aging process. The worst outcome is that tanning can cause skin cancer. There is no such thing as a safe or healthy tan, it is a reality. Your risk of developing basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma is increased by tanning.
Squamous cell carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma, the two most frequent kinds of skin cancer, can both be increased by 58% and 24%, respectively, by indoor tanning. Before the age of 20, using a tanning bed can increase your risk of melanoma by 47%, and the risk rises with each use.
Hence, the answer is, the nurse should ask the young adult to prevent using tanning places.
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the family asks the nurse what the usual treatment of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis entails. what is the nurse's best response?
In the condition known as focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), scar tissue forms on the glomeruli, the tiny kidney structures responsible for removing waste from the blood.
A glomerulosclerosis: what is it?Glomerulosclerosis is the scarring of the glomeruli, which are the tiniest blood arteries in the kidneys. These are the microscopic kidney organs that separate blood urine from the body.
What takes place when glomerulonephritis occurs?Inflammation and damage to the kidneys' filtering system are symptoms of glomerulonephritis (glomerulus). It may develop gradually over time or suddenly. The urine is not effectively filtered to remove toxins, metabolic wastes, and excess moisture. Instead, they accumulate in the body, leading to weariness and edema.
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. the nurse has just received an order to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for an assigned patient. approximately how long will the nurse need to stay with the patient to ensure that a transfusion reaction is not occurring?
An effective way to get the client interested in learning about transfusion treatment is to inquire about their personal experiences with it.
By "they themselves," what do they mean?The Latin term "patiens," which meant to suffer with or endure, is where the English word "patient" comes from. This expression is used to describe a patient who is extremely cooperative, puts up with the required discomfort, and tolerates the interventions of the outside expert.
A patient individual is what?We have the opportunity to acquire patience since it requires acquiring the ability to wait patiently in the face of discomfort or hardship, which is present practically everywhere. But perhaps the secret to a good life is patience.
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the nurse prepares to teach how to prevent back injuries for new colleagues attending orientation. what risk factors for back injuries should the nurse caution the colleagues against? select all that apply.
Should the nurse warn the colleagues about the potential risks of back injuries when moving with a client's assistance
What portion of the back is hurt the most frequently?Back pain and injuries most frequently occur in the lower back. Back injuries are frequently sustained: Stress and strain: The region around the muscles typically swells up when a ligament in your back is torn or a muscle is overstretched.
What is the recovery time for a strained back?Back muscle strains normally get better with time, most often within 3 to 4 weeks and many within a few days. With mild or mild lumbar strains, the majority of patients heal completely and are symptom-free in a matter of days, weeks, or even months.
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the nurse manager is orienting a new nurse. which statement by the new nurse would indicate that the nurse manager should intervene?
In the health clinic, the nurse is speaking with the infant's single mother while training a newly licensed nurse. After arriving 10 minutes late for the appointment, the mother is worried that the clinic won't let her bring her child.
What tasks does a nurse manager perform?The duties of nurse managers include managing human and financial resources, ensuring patient and staff satisfaction, maintaining a safe work environment for all parties involved, ensuring that standards and quality of care are upheld, and coordinating the objectives of the unit with the hospital's strategic goals.
How do you handle a negative nurse manager?Never go up to a toxic nursing management alone. Instead, go as a group to confront the manager and find protection in numbers (Lipman-Blumen, 2005). For effective support, they should team together with other nurse managers or executives. When working with a toxic nurse manager, keep your emotional intelligence under control.
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a(n) allergic reaction is when the allergic reaction spreads from a limited area of one organ to other organ systems in the body.
Sensibilities to compounds known as allergens that come into contact with the skin, nose, eyes, and respiratory system cause allergic reactions.
Which of the following 4 allergic reactions are they?An allergic reaction can take one of four different forms when your body is overly sensitive to a stimulus: anaphylactic, cytotoxic, immunocomplex, or cell-mediated. Each one can manifest differently in each person and is triggered in various ways.
What is the term for the transfer of an allergy from one food to another?Cross-contact happens when an allergy unintentionally spreads from a food that contains the allergen to a food that does not. The likelihood that a person with a food allergy would experience a reaction to the food is neither decreased or eliminated by cooking.
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the patient with recent bouts of pharyngitis with acute glomerulonephritis, after reviewing the culture results the nurse would identify which is most likely the common cause of this disease?patho
Infections like strep throat could be the cause of the acute glomerulonephritis.
Other conditions like lupus, Goodpasture's syndrome, Wegener's disease, and polyarteritis nodosa may also be to blame. To prevent kidney failure, an early diagnosis and timely treatment are essential.
Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation of the small kidney filters. Urine is the body's natural way of excreting waste and extra fluid that glomeruli remove from the bloodstream. Glomerulonephritis may start slowly or unexpectedly.
Glomerulonephritis can be an independent condition or a complication of another illness, such lupus or diabetes. The kidneys can get damaged by glomerulonephritis-related inflammation that is severe or persistent. The type of glomerulonephritis a person suffers determines the course of treatment.
Glomerulonephritis can develop as a direct or indirect result of infectious illnesses.
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a client who visits a health care facility for a routine assessment reports to the nurse being unable to control urinary elimination. this has resulted in the client soiling clothes and has led to a lot of embarrassment. which nursing intervention will be appropriate to use with this client?
Due to the client's inability to access the bathroom, functional incontinence develops. The nurse is informed by a patient who attends a medical facility for a normal evaluation that he is unable to regulate his urine elimination.
What is urinary elimination?The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra must all work properly for urine to be eliminated through them. Urine is produced when the kidneys filter waste from the circulation. Urine is moved from the kidneys to the bladder by ureters. Urine is stored in the bladder until the need to urinate arises. Finding the nursing diagnosis of impaired urinary elimination, which is described as dysfunction of urine elimination, is one of the choices. The following signs and symptoms serve as the defining features for this clinical diagnosis: urgency, nocturia, incontinence, frequency, hesitation, and dysuria.
What causes urinary elimination?Constipation, vaginal infections, urinary tract infections, and vaginal irritants are just a few of the many problems that can result in incontinence. Some medicines could momentarily impair bladder control. Incontinence that lasts longer may be caused by weak pelvic floor muscles or a weak bladder.
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what signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client diagnosed with late stage rheumatoid arthritis?
The presence of more than one joint's discomfort, stiffness, swelling, and pain stiffness, particularly in the morning or after prolonged hours of sitting, the same joints on both sides of your body are painful and stiff, The nurse would anticipate seeing fatigue (severe exhaustion) in a patient with late-stage rheumatoid arthritis.
A chronic inflammatory condition known as rheumatoid arthritis affects numerous joints, including those in the hands and feet.
The immune system of the body destroys its own tissue, including joints, in rheumatoid arthritis. Internal organs are attacked in extreme instances.
Joint linings are impacted by rheumatoid arthritis, which results in painful swelling. End-stage rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an advanced stage of the illness without active inflammation, characterized by significant joint destruction and damage.
According to a study, those who have rheumatoid arthritis are almost twice as likely to pass away before the age of 75 and are more prone to have cardiovascular and immune system disease and respiratory issues.
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a heart-lung bypass machine used in some types of open heart surgery belongs to which fda device category?
The class-II FDA device category includes a heart-lung bypass machine used in some forms of open heart surgery.
The FDA's device category for cardiovascular devices includes three different groups of equipment. The classes-I, class-II, and class-III. On the basis of these classifications, they categorised the cardiovascular devices. A control panel and the machine's electrical power and control circuits make up the console for a heart-lung machine used in cardiopulmonary bypass. The console may be used to control the pumps, oxygenator, and heat exchanger, among other essential parts of a gas exchange system. Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) is a surgical procedure in which a machine temporarily replaces the heart and lungs to keep the body's blood and oxygen supply flowing.
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when providing discharge teaching for a client with multiple sclerosis (ms), the nurse should include which instruction?
The instructions that nurse should give while discharging a patient with multiple sclerosis are- Getting lots of sleep, Making a plan for your day's activities. Avoiding being too hot and avoid taking hot bath and showers.
What should be the instructions given to a patient with multiple sclerosis while discharging?Myelin, the protective sheath that protects nerve fibers, is attacked by the immune system in multiple sclerosis, which impairs brain-to-body communication. While discharging, the instructions which should be given by the nurse to the patient are-
Stretching can relieve the signs of tense muscles in addition to taking medicine.Use a cane or another mobility aid, if necessary, to aid in movement and conserve energy.Aerobic exercise may improve your balance, coordination, muscle strength, and muscle tone. A physical therapist can help you select exercises that are risk-free for you.Overall, you should eat fewer fruits and vegetables, and you should limit your daily fluid intake to 1,500 ml.Avoiding being too hot and avoid taking hot bath and showers.Know more about multiple sclerosis at:
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the nurse is actively managing the intravenous fluid administration for a patient who has developed cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction. when performing this aspect of nursing care, what principle should guide the nurse's decision making?
The risk of fluid overload must be weighed against the need for adequate fluid resuscitation. The safe and precise administration of intravascular fluids and drugs is crucially dependent on the nurse.
Due to inefficient cardiac action and a buildup of blood and fluid in the pulmonary tissues, fluid overload and pulmonary edoema are dangers. In order to maintain a sufficient intravascular volume, the patient also needs intravenous fluids. However, limiting fluid intake is not the best way to achieve this equilibrium.
By administering fluid and electrolytes, fluid resuscitation primarily serves to maintain organ perfusion (hemodynamics) and substrate supply (oxygen, among other substances). The majority of circulatory shock states, as well as severe intravascular volume depletion, both need for large-volume IV fluid replacement (eg, due to diarrhoea or heatstroke). Vasoconstriction immediately compensates for intravascular volume shortage. Fluid then migrates from the extravascular compartment to the intravascular compartment over the course of hours, preserving circulation at the price of total body water. However, with significant losses, this compensation is insufficient.
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a client is diagnosed with choledocholithiasis and acute suppurative cholangitis and is being rushed to surgery to prevent which possible complication?
The most often used biochemical marker for acute pancreatitis is serum amylase, however its sensitivity might be lowered by late presentation, hypertriglyceridaemia, and persistent drinking.
What is the nurse's primary concern while caring for a patient with chronic pancreatitis?Chronic pancreatitis patients are at a significant risk of hyperglycemia due to damaged pancreatic cells and an inability to control glucose. The patient's glucose levels should be monitored by the nurse.
Acute pancreatitis is often diagnosed by the presence of stomach discomfort and high serum amylase and/or lipase levels.
Acute pancreatitis patients leak a substantial volume of fluids to the third spacing into the retroperitoneum and intra-abdominal tissues. As a result, patients require immediate intravenous (IV) hydration.
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surgical puncture of the amnion is called: a. amniotomy. b. amniocentesis. c. amniotic. d. cesarean section.
Artificial rupture of membranes (AROM), often known as amniotomy or simply "breaking the water," is the deliberate rupture of the amniotic sac by an obstetrician.
This treatment is frequently carried out during labour management and has a variety of indications.
Risks associated with amniocentesis happen in about 1 in 900 procedures. They consist of: amniotic fluid leakage After amniocentesis, amniotic fluid occasionally escapes through the vagina. Most of the time, the fluid loss is minimal, stops after a week, and has no impact on pregnancy.
What is the purpose of an amnioscope?
The tool can be used to sample foetal blood or amniotic fluid as well as to see the foetus or amniotic fluid.
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a hospitalized client is scheduled to have a sigmoidoscopy. which action would the nurse perform before the procedure?
The lower colon must be emptied right before the procedure in order to make the rectum and sigmoidoscopy easier to see.
What are the two key methods for obtaining a stool sample?How to Gather the Sample(s) Pass feces into a large, clean container—such as a milk jug with the top cut off—or onto newspaper put under the toilet seat, avoiding contact with urine. Pass your loose stools directly into a container rather than onto newspaper if they are loose.
Which approach would the nurse advocate for a pregnant client who was experiencing constipation?Although increasing fiber intake, drinking more fluids, and exercising are the first-line treatments for constipation, they are not always successful. Consequently, laxatives such bulk-forming agents and lubricants
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which of the following is not a specific national health objective of healthy people 2030? multiple choice achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve the health of all groups. create social and physical environments that promote good health for all. attain high-quality lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death. focus on promoting health for older individuals.
Focus on promoting health for older individuals is not a specific national health objective of healthy people 2030.
Healthy people 2030's overarching goals are to: Attain healthy, thriving lives and well-being freed from preventable malady, disability, injury, and premature death. Eliminate health disparities, deliver the goods health equity, and attain health accomplishment to boost the health and well-being of all.
Promoting health is that the method of sanctioning folks to extend management over, and to boost, their health. It moves on the far side a spotlight on individual behaviour towards a good vary of social and environmental interventions. Health promotion enhances the standard of life for all folks. It reduces premature deaths.
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the student nurse prepares a concept map while caring for a client. which would be the first step that the student nurse would take when preparing the concept map?
The first step in providing nursing care is for an RN to gather and analyze data about a client in a structured, dynamic way.
The nurse would use what kind of health information technology to gather employee health information?The electronic health information exchange (HIE), which enables appropriate access to and secure electronic sharing of a patient's vital medical data, contributes to improving the effectiveness, affordability, and safety of patient treatment.
Which of the following scenarios would the nurse consider her family to be her primary source of information?In situations where the client is seriously ill, confused, and unable to respond to queries, the family becomes the main source of information. The patient arrives at the medical center complaining of stomach pain.
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which interventions are appropriate for a client with increased intracranial pressure (icp)? select all that apply
Administering prescription antipyretics, maintaining aseptic technique with an intraventricular catheter, and providing frequent dental care are all viable treatment options for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
What exactly is increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?Growing pressure inside your skull can be caused by a brain injury or another medical problem. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a serious condition that can cause a headache. The pressure can also cause more damage to your brain or spinal cord. Increased ICP can be caused by brain bleeding, a tumor, stroke, aneurysm, high blood pressure, or a brain infection. The goal of treatment is to reduce the elevated intracranial pressure around the brain. Increased ICP has catastrophic consequences, including lasting brain damage and death. Changes in mental status, such as disorientation, restlessness, and mental confusion, are early indicators and symptoms. Movements with no purpose.
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the family of an older adult reports to the nurse manager that the primary nurse failed to obtain a signed consent before inserting an indwelling catheter. which rationale would the | nurse manager consider before responding?
For routine treatments, a separate signed informed consent is not necessary. A consent that was signed at the time of admission covers this routine procedure to address basic physiological needs.
What types of tasks are required of nurses?Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and carry out medical treatments in addition to offering emotional support to patients' families and informing the public about various health issues. The majority of registered nurses work in tandem with physicians and other healthcare professionals in a variety of settings.
Would a nurse be suited for the position?Several post-operative surgical therapeutic responsibilities are under their purview. Many surgical nursing professionals concentrate their work on cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.
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a 42-year-old man with a past medical history of hypertension presents with intermittent fever of 6 weeks duration. he has an associated cough, dyspnea, anorexia, arthralgias, abdominal pain, diarrhea, a widespread rash throughout his body, and back pain. he has come to see you because he has experienced acute left upper and lower extremity weakness and painless hematuria since this morning. he denies chills, a history of travel, sick or confined contacts, exposure to animals, bites, stings, cigarette smoking, otalgia, sore throat, swollen glands, drug use, dysuria, preceding gi or gu infections, previous surgeries, or sexual contact in the past year. his physical exam is remarkable for fever, a generalized petechial rash and petechiae of the mucous membranes, dark red linear lesions of the nailbeds, tender subcutaneous nodules of the digital pads, and nontender maculae on the palms and soles. his heart is notable for a new harsh, medium pitched pansystolic murmur at the apex with radiation to axilla, reduced strengths to the left upper and lower extremities, and splenomegaly. question: what is the most likely diagnosis?
Failing the heart probably the right diagnosis. the apex, showing splenomegaly, diminished strength in the left upper and lower extremities, and radiation to the axilla.
What is covered under Medi-Cal?Many medically required services are covered by Medi-Cal. Included in this are visits to the dentist and doctor, prescription medications, eye exams, family planning, mental health services, and alcohol and drug rehabilitation. The cost of getting to these treatments is covered by Medi-Cal as well.
Do you always get free Medi-Cal?No premium, no co-payment, and no out-of-pocket expenses are required for many people who sign up for Medi-Cal. Budget-friendly prices, including a low monthly premium, will be seen by certain households. A family's monthly cost for Medi-Cal coverage for some children is $39, with a per-child cap of $13.
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the client is scheduled for a meniscectomy of the right knee. the nurse would plan postoperative care based on what surgical procedure?
Right knee meniscectomy is scheduled for the client, and the nurse will organise postoperative care depending on the excision of the damaged joint cartilage.
A torn meniscus cartilage in the knee can be treated with an outpatient, minimally invasive surgical technique called an arthroscopic meniscectomy. Injuries sustained when participating in sports frequently result in the meniscus being torn. The knee is the most typical location for meniscectomy; the surgery involves removing diseased cartilage from the joint. The term "fasciotomy" refers to the cutting and rerouting of the muscle fascia to release constricted muscles. Replacement of one of the articular surfaces of a joint is referred to as hemiarthroplasty. The replacement of a joint with synthetic material is known as whole joint arthroscopy.
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a client presents to the clinic with severe edema. which type of deficiency should be suspected in this client?
Excess fluid in your tissues leads to this swelling (edema), which is frequently brought on by congestive heart failure or a blockage in a leg vein. These are edema symptoms.
How can you eliminate severe edema?Treatment for edema entails a number of steps, including treating the underlying cause (if feasible), cutting back on salt (sodium) in their diet, and, in many situations, using a drug called a diuretic to get rid of extra fluid. Additionally suggested measures include elevating the legs and wearing compression stockings.
How can you tell whether an edema is severe?
If your edema suddenly gets worse, hurts, is new, or if it's accompanied by chest pain or breathing difficulties, seek medical attention right once. The latter could be an indication of pulmonary edema, a serious illness where fluid fills the lung cavities.
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a client has been on an antibiotic for two weeks for treatment of an infection. the client asks the nurse why a superinfection has been caused by this medication. what is the nurse's best response?
The regular microorganisms in your body might be disrupted by antibiotics, leading to the development of new infections.
Why do antibiotics exist?Antibiotics are drugs that treat bacterial illnesses in people and animals by either eradicating the bacteria or making it difficult for the bacteria to grow and reproduce. A germ is a bacteria.
Which medicine eliminates infection?Strong medications called antibiotics are used to treat a variety of ailments. But not everything can be cured by antibiotics, and taking them in excess can also be dangerous. Most illnesses are brought on by 2 primary types of bacteria. Bacteria and viruses are these.
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what are some actions the athlete may take before, during, and after exercise/competition to maintain and replenish fluid intake?
If your workout lasts more than an hour, hydrate with sports drinks. Drink 2 cups of drink four hours before exercising. Consume fluids while exercise to avoid losing more than 2% of your body weight.
Why is exercise so crucial for athletes?Athletes with strong physical fitness can not only improve the efficiency with which they learn sports skills, but also prevent the occurrence of injuries and accidents caused by movement. Physical training, particularly physical quality training, has a significant impact on track preservation. Training is critical, and it should be a part of every professional athlete's everyday regimen. Training allows the body to gradually increase its strength and endurance, enhance its skill levels, and increase drive, ambition, and confidence. Regular exercise can aid in the prevention of weight gain, type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and high blood pressure. Exercises that strengthen the bones, such as jumping, running, or lifting weights, can help maintain bones strong.
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read the following excerpt from a health record: plan i will begin a trial of antacid therapy along with recommended dietary adjustments. if he does not respond to treatment in 1 month, i will schedule him for an egd. what are the correct definition and translation for the procedure for which the patient will be scheduled, should he not respond to initial treatment within a month?
The correct definition and translation for the procedure is EGD = esophagogastroduodenoscopy: esophago (esophagus) + gastro (stomach) + duodeno (duodenum) + scopy (procedure for looking) = procedure for looking inside the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.
The stomach is a muscular, hollow organ in the digestive tract of humans and many other animals, including some invertebrates. The stomach is an enlarged structure and serves as a vital organ of the digestive system. The stomach is involved in the gastric stage of digestion after chewing.
Chemical decomposition with enzymes and hydrochloric acid is performed. In humans and many other animals, the stomach lies between the esophagus and the small intestine. The stomach secretes digestive enzymes and stomach acid to help digest food.
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legal safeguards are in place in the nursing practice to protect the nurse from exposure to legal risks as well as to protect the client from harm. what is an example(s) of legal safeguards for the nurse? select all that apply.
Examples of legal safeguards for the nurses are:
A client provides informed consent for the nurse to perform a procedure.
The nurse explains The Patient Care Partnership to the client.
All client care is documented in a timely manner by the nurse.
What is a nursing home?
A nursing home is a residential care facility for the elderly or disabled. Nursing homes are also known as long-term care facilities, old people's homes, assisted living facilities, care homes, rest homes, convalescent homes, or convalescent care.
Nursing home facility nurses are responsible for caring for the medical needs of the patients as well as being in charge of other employees, depending on their rank. Nursing aides and skilled nurses are usually available 24 hours a day in most nursing homes.
In the United States, nearly one in ten residents aged 75 to 84 stays in a nursing home for five or more years, while nearly three in ten residents in that age group stay for less than five years.
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