(A) Electricity and Magnetism
A). Three point charges are aligned along the x axis as shown in
Fig. Find the electric field at (a) the position (2, 0) and (b) the
position (0, 2).

Answer:

1. p = 562.3 kg*m/s

2. F = 142.7 N

Explanation:

1. The linear impulse (p) is given by:

[tex] p = mv [/tex]

Where:

m: is the passenger's mass = 73.7 kg

v: is the speed = 7.63 m/s

[tex] p = mv = 73.7 kg*7.63 m/s = 562.3 kg*m/s [/tex]

Hence, the magnitude of the linear impulse experienced by a passenger is 562.3 kg*m/s.

2. The average force can be calculated using the following equation:

[tex] F = \frac{m(v_{f} - v_{0})}{t} = \frac{73.7 kg(7.63 m/s - 0)}{3.94 s} = 142.7 N [/tex]  

Therefore, the average force experienced by the passenger is 142.7 N.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

Power  = 124.50 W

Explanation:

Given that:

The Sound intensity of a speaker output is 102 dB

and the distance r = 25 m

For the intensity of sound,

[tex]\beta (dB)= 10 \ log_{10 } (\dfrac{I}{I_o})[/tex]

where;

the threshold of hearing   [tex]I_o = 10^{-12} (W/m^2)[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{102 }{10}= log_{10}( \dfrac{I}{10^{-12}})[/tex]

[tex]10^{10.2} = \dfrac{I}{10^{-12}}[/tex]

[tex]I = 10^{10.2} \times 10^{-12}[/tex]

I = 0.01585 W/m²

If we recall, we know remember that ;

Power = Intensity × A rea

Power = 0.01585 W/m² × 4 × 3.142 × (25 m)²

Power  = 124.50 W

Answer:

(a) 0.829 m/s

(b) 3.27 m/s

(c) 0.000153 m²

55.8%

Explanation:

(a) Flow rate equals velocity times cross-sectional area. (1 L = 0.001 m³)

Q = vA

(0.001 m³ / 2.00 s) = v (48 × π (0.002 m)²)

v = 0.829 m/s

(b) Use Bernoulli equation.  Choose point 1 to be the exit of the pump, and point 2 to be exit of the shower head.  Choose 0 elevation to be at point 1.

P₁ + ½ ρ v₁² + ρgh₁ = P₂ + ½ ρ v₂² + ρgh₂

(1.50 atm × 1.0×10⁵ Pa/atm) + ½ (1000 kg/m³) v² + 0 = (1 atm × 1.0×10⁵ Pa/atm) + ½ (1000 kg/m³) (0.829 m/s)² + (1000 kg/m³) (10 m/s²) (5.50 m)

1.50×10⁵ Pa + (500 kg/m³) v² = 1×10⁵ Pa + 414.5 Pa + 55000 Pa

v = 3.27 m/s

(c) Flow rate is constant.

Q = vA

(0.001 m³ / 2.00 s) = (3.27 m/s) A

A = 0.000153 m²

Flow rate is proportional to the pressure difference and the radius raised to the fourth power.

Q ∝ ΔP r⁴

Q₂/Q₁ = (ΔP₂/ΔP₁) (r₂/r₁)⁴

Q₂/Q₁ = (1.120) (0.840)⁴

Q₂/Q₁ = 0.558

The flow decreases to 55.8% of the original value.

Answer:

Explanation:

Regarding the point of "Flow rate is proportional to the pressure difference and the radius raised to the fourth power", flow rate depends on pressure, cross-section area and speed.  As speed also depends on cross-section area, flow rate becomes dependent on pressure and cross-section area squared.

In a round pipe like blood vessel, the cross-section area is equal to pi*radius squared. So flow rate is proportional to the pressure difference and (radius squared) squared; i.e. the radius raised to the fourth power.

The new flow rate = (1.12)*(0.84)^4

=0.5576 or 55.76% of the original flow rate

Answer:

10 seconds

Explanation:

As it starts from rest, then u=0

and by III rd equation of motion:

Answer:

Explanation:

If the ray were not deviated, it would travel straight through the mirror. Due to the mirror, the incident ray is reflected at 30°. The ray travels 30° + 30° = 60°. The angle of deviation is 180° - 60° = 120°.

Answer:

I believe the electromagnetic field should be reversed.

Explanation:

When a student creates an electromagnetic wave and then reverses the direction of the current, the direction of the magnetic field will be reversed.

An electromagnetic wave may be defined as a type of wave that is significantly created as a result of vibrations between an electric field and a magnetic field. These waves are composed of oscillating magnetic and electric fields.

According to the context of this question, when an individual is constructing an electromagnetic wave and then reverses the direction of the current, it will eventually affect the direction of the magnetic field in the same direction with respect to the current. So, if the direction of the current is reversed, the direction of the magnetic field would also be reversed.

Therefore, when a student creates an electromagnetic wave and then reverses the direction of the current, the direction of the magnetic field will be reversed.

To learn more about Magnetic fields, refer to the link:

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Your question seems incomplete. The most probable complete question is as follows:

A student creates an electromagnetic wave and then reverses the direction of the current. Which of the following will happen to the magnetic field?

Explanation:

The two mirrors inclined to each other formed the first two images with are of the same size as the object while the third mirror is produced from the intersection of rays that emanated during the production of the first two images to produce a third image which is smaller than the object and there making the total number of images to be 3.

Hence this mirrors produces 3 images due to the third image formed from the intersection of the rays that produces the first two images.

The formula that relates the image produced by inclined mirror and the angle of inclination is expressed as:

number of images n = 360/θ - 1

θ is the angle of inclination of the two mirrors

n is the number of images

If the mirrors are inclined at right angles, then θ = 90°

Substitute into the formula;

n = 360/90 -1

n = 36/9 -1

n = 4-1

n = 3

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the velocity be v .

vertical component of the velocity = v sin 60 = √3 v /2

it reaches maximum height of 10 m .

v² = 2 gh

( √3 v/2 )² = 2 x 9.8 x 10

3 v² = 196 x 4

v² = 65.33 x 4

v = 16.2  m /s

Let time taken to reach height of 10 m

v = u - gt

v sin 60 = 9.8 t

16.2 x √3  /2 = 9.8 t

t = 1.43 s

horizontal distance covered = v cos 60 x t

16.2 x .5 x 1.43 = 11 .5 m

Answer:

The net force on an object is the total force applied on the object after adding  up all the forces

In the given diagram,

we can see that the 2 forces of 4N and 4N will cancel each other out since they are equal and in the opposite direction

Now, we are left with a force of 2N and 10N,

the net force will be the difference of these forces:

Net force = 10N - 2N

Net force = 8N downwards

Another way to do it:

The two 4N forces will be cancelled out,

and we are left with a 2N and a 10N force

(notice how we cancelled equal and opposite forces for the 4N)

We can divide the 10N force into (2N + 8N)

Since the 2N forces are equal and opposite, they will be cancelled out

and we will be left with a net force of 8N downwards

Answer:

  2.5 m/s²

Explanation:

a = ∆v/∆t = (15 m/s)/(6 s) = (15/6) m/s² = 2.5 m/s²

Answer:

Explanation:

The work done by an object can be found by using the formula

From the question

distance = 3 meters

force = 15 newtons

We have

workdone = 15 × 3

We have the final answer as

Hope this helps you

Answer:

Explanation:

Hydrogen fluoride (HF) is an ionic/electrovalent compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water. It's dissociation is as seen below

HF ⇄ H⁺ + F⁻

There is a transfer of electron from the hydrogen atom which produces the hydrogen ion (H⁺), while the fluorine atom receives the donated ion to become negatively charged (F⁻). The amount of charge in one electron is generally given as 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ coloumbs.

The required value of effective charge on HF molecule, due to H and F is  1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ Coulombs.

The given problem is based on the concept of effective charges. The net positive charge carried out by the electrons of atomic species, after forming a polyelectronic atom  is known as Effective charge.

As per the given problem, the Hydrogen fluoride (HF) is an ionic/electrovalent compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water. It's dissociation is given as,

HF ⇄ H⁺ + F⁻

There is a transfer of electron from the hydrogen atom which produces the hydrogen ion (H⁺), while the fluorine atom receives the donated ion to become negatively charged (F⁻). The amount of charge in one electron is generally given as 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ Coulombs.

Thus, we can conclude that the required value of effective charge on HF molecule, due to H and F is 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ Coulombs.

Learn more about the effective charge here:

https://brainly.com/question/25002720

Answer:

A

Explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

use special filters on the telescope

Explanation:

Assuming you have access to a very high-grade telescope you would need to use special filters on the telescope that allows you to view the star's color spectrum. The color spectrum represents different levels of heat that a star is generating. This spectrum ranges from red to blue. Therefore in order to calculate the surface temperature, you would need to apply both a blue and red filter onto the telescope. Once you have these measurements you would need to compare them in order to pinpoint the correct variation of color which would give a close enough estimate of the surface temperature of the star.

Answer:

(a) [tex]2\vec A=12\hat i-4\hat j+6\hat k[/tex]

(b) [tex]\displaystyle \vec{U_A}=12/7\hat i-4/7\hat j+6/7\hat k[/tex]

(c) [tex]-4\vec{U_A}=-48/7\hat i+16/7\hat j-24/7\hat k[/tex]

Explanation:

Vectors

Given a vector

[tex]\vec A=6\hat i-2\hat j+3\hat k[/tex]

We must determine the following:

a) A vector in the same direction as A with double magnitude 2A.

If the vector goes in the same direction but has a different magnitude, we only need to multiply each component by a common factor, in this case, by 2. Thus, the required vector is:

[tex]2\vec A=12\hat i-4\hat j+6\hat k[/tex]

b) A unit vector in the same direction of A.

The unit vector needs to compute the magnitude of the vector:

[tex]\mid A\mid=\sqrt{6^2+2^2+3^2}[/tex]

[tex]\mid A\mid=\sqrt{36+4+9}=\sqrt{49}=7[/tex]

[tex]\mid A\mid=7[/tex]

The unit vector is:

[tex]\displaystyle \vec{U_A}=\frac{\vec A}{\mid \vec A\mid}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \vec{U_A}=\frac{12\hat i-4\hat j+6\hat k}{7}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \vec{U_A}=12/7\hat i-4/7\hat j+6/7\hat k[/tex]

c) A vector opposite to A with magnitude 4 m. We assume the original vector is also expressed in m.

The opposite vector to A is obtained simply by multiplying the unit vector by -1. To make its magnitude equal to 4, also multiply by 4. In all, we multiply the unit vector by -4:

[tex]-4\vec{U_A}=-4(12/7\hat i-4/7\hat j+6/7\hat k)[/tex]

[tex]-4\vec{U_A}=-48/7\hat i+16/7\hat j-24/7\hat k[/tex]

NEIL ARMSTRONG WAS THE FIRST MAN WHO TRAVELLED TO THE MOON.

Answer:

On July 20, 1969, Neil Armstrong became the first human to step on the moon. 

Answer:

Explanation:

Have y’all seen steeleflag19 at all on here?

Answer:

a = 2 [m/s^2]

Explanation:

To solve this problem we must use the expressions of kinematics, we must bear in mind that when a body is at rest its velocity is zero.

[tex]v_{f} = v_{i} - (a*t)[/tex]

where:

Vf = final velocity = 0

Vi = initial velocity = 60 [m/s]

a = desacceleration [m/s^2]

t = time = 30 [s]

Note: the negative sign of the above equation means that the car is slowing down, i.e. its speed decreases.

0 = 60 - (a*30)

a = 2 [m/s^2]

Answer:

(a) 102 cm/s

(b) 0.490 cm²

Explanation:

(a) Use Bernoulli equation.

P₁ + ½ ρ v₁² + ρgh₁ = P₂ + ½ ρ v₂² + ρgh₂

0 + ½ ρ v₁² + ρgh₁ = 0 + ½ ρ v₂² + 0

½ ρ v₁² + ρgh₁ = ½ ρ v₂²

½ v₁² + gh₁ = ½ v₂²

½ (25.0 cm/s)² + (980 cm/s²) (5.00 cm) = ½ v²

v = 102 cm/s

(b) The flow rate is constant.

v₁ A₁ = v₂ A₂

(25.0 cm/s) (2.00 cm²) = (102 cm/s) A

A = 0.490 cm²

Answer:

The correct option is  B

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the pile is  M

   The  height is  H  =  4 y

    The vertical distance achieve during the first lift is  [tex]h_1  =  3 y[/tex]

     The time taken is  [tex]t_1 =  4T [/tex]

    The vertical distance achieve during the second lift is  [tex]h_2  =  y[/tex]

     The time taken is [tex] t_2 =  T [/tex]

Generally the velocity of the crane during the first lift is  

      [tex]v _1 =  \frac{h_1}{t_1 }[/tex]

=>    [tex]v _1 =  \frac{3 y}{4T }[/tex]    

Generally the velocity of the crane during the second  lift is    

      [tex]v _2 =  \frac{h_2}{t_2 }[/tex]

=>    [tex]v _2 =  \frac{ y}{T}[/tex]  

Generally the power generated by  the crane during the first lift is    

    [tex]P_1 =  F_1 *  v_1[/tex]

Here [tex]F_1[/tex] is the weight of the brick which is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_1 =  M  * g [/tex] , g is the acceleration due to gravity

 So

       [tex]P_1 =  Mg  *  \frac{3y}{4T}[/tex]

Generally the power generated by  the crane during the first lift is    

    [tex]P_1 =  F_2 *  v_2[/tex]

Here [tex]F_2[/tex] is the weight of the brick which is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_2 =  M  * g [/tex] , g is the acceleration due to gravity

 So

       [tex]P_1 =  Mg  *  \frac{y}{T}[/tex]

The ratio of the first power generated to the second power is  

       [tex]\frac{P_1}{P_2} =  \frac{Mg  *  \frac{3y}{4T} }{ Mg  *  \frac{y}{T} }[/tex]

=>    [tex]\frac{P_1}{P_2}  =  \frac{3}{4}[/tex]

=>   [tex]P_2 = \frac{4}{3} P_1[/tex]

Answer:

Gravity can affect the motion of objects as the force pulls objects closer to earth. Kinetic energy also causes movement in objects as that is energy in motion coming from stored energy known as (potential energy). With almost most importantly is needed is a force as without a force acting upon an objects is moving will continue to move and an object at rest will remain at rest as a gravitational pull or kinetic and potential energy for example are forces.

Explanation:

Have a great day :)

Answer:

1.4 m/s to the left

Explanation:

just took it c:

This question is incomplete, the complete question is;

For this force system the equivalent system at P is ___________

A) FRP = 40 lb (along +x-dir.) and MRP = +60 ft.lb

B) FRP = 0 lb and MRP = +30 ft.lb

C) FRP 30 lb (along +y-dir.) and MRP  = -30 ft.lb

D) FRP 40 lb (along +x-dir.) and MRP = +30 ft.lb

Answer:

D) FRP 40 lb (along +x-dir.) and MRP = +30 ft.lb

Explanation:

From the figure in the image i uploaded along this answer;

FRP = ( 40 lb i + 30 lb j ) + [30 lb (-j)]

Where i  and j are the unit vectors along X & Y axis respectively.

So, FRP = 40 lb i

that is,  FRP = 40 lb along +X direction

MRP = [ 30 lb x ( 1 ' + 1' ) ] +( -30 lb x 1 ' )

= (30 lb x 2 ' )- 30 lb ft

= 60 lb ft - 30 lb ft

= 30 lb ft

Therefore option(D) is correct    

Answer:

F=1.3x10^-2N

Explanation:

Fe= k(6x10^-7C)^2/(0.5)^2

Electrical force of attraction between the balloons is F=1.3x10^-2N

The electric force of attraction between two balloons should be F=1.3x10^-2N.

Since The charge on the balloons is 6.0 x 10-7 C and they are separated by a distance of 0.50 m.

So, here the electric force is

Fe= k(6x10^-7C)^2/(0.5)^2

F=1.3x10^-2N

hence, The electric force of attraction between two balloons should be F=1.3x10^-2N.

Learn more about force here: https://brainly.com/question/19848845

Answer:

the intellectual and practical activity encompassing the systematic study of the structure and behaviour of the physical and natural world through observation and experiment.

Explanation:

Answer:

His general theory includes uniform and accelerated motion, but his special theory applies only to uniform motion.

Explanation:

According to Einstein's 1915 general theory of relativity, the force of gravity arises from the curvature of space and time.

According to theory of special relativity:

1. The laws of physics are the same for all non-accelerating observers

2. The speed of light in a vacuum was independent of the motion of all observers.

His general theory includes uniform and accelerated motion, but his special theory applies only to uniform motion.

Answer:

for those who dont like to read

the answer is A.

hope i helped

Explanation:

Answer:

The period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 seconds.

Explanation:

To determine the period of that same pendulum on the moon,

First, we will determine the value of g (which is a measure of the strength of Earth's gravity) on the Moon. Let the value of g on the Moon be [tex]g_{M}[/tex].

From the question, the strength of earth’s gravity is only 1/6th of the normal value. The normal value of g is 9.8 m/s²

∴ [tex]g_{M}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{6} \times 9.8 m/s^{2}[/tex]

[tex]g_{M}[/tex] = 1.63 m/s²

From the question, T=2π√L/g

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g} }[/tex]

We can write that,

[tex]T_{E} = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{E} } }[/tex] .......... (1)

Where [tex]T_{E}[/tex] is the period of the pendulum on Earth and [tex]g_{E}[/tex] is the measure of the strength of Earth's gravity

and

[tex]T_{M} = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{M} } }[/tex] .......... (2)

Where [tex]T_{M}[/tex] is the period of the pendulum on Moon and [tex]g_{M}[/tex] is the measure of the strength of Earth's gravity on the Moon.

Since we are to determine the period of the same pendulum on the moon, then, [tex]2\pi[/tex] and [tex]L[/tex] are constants.

Dividing equation (1) by (2), we get

[tex]\frac{T_{E} }{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{g_{M} }{g_{E} } }[/tex]

From the question,

[tex]T_{E} = 4.9secs[/tex]

[tex]g_{E}[/tex] = 9.8 m/s²

[tex]g_{M}[/tex] = 1.63 m/s²

[tex]T_{M}[/tex] = ??

From,

[tex]\frac{T_{E} }{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{g_{M} }{g_{E} } }[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4.9}{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{1.63}{9.8} }[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4.9}{T_{M} } = 0.40783[/tex]

[tex]T_{M} =\frac{4.9}{0.40783 }[/tex]

[tex]T_{M} = 12.01 secs[/tex]

∴ [tex]T_{M} = 12.0secs[/tex]

Hence, the period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 seconds.

Answer:

The period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 s

Explanation:

Given;

period of a pendulum’s swinging, T=2π√L/g

the strength of earth’s gravity on moon, g₂ = ¹/₆(g₁)

period of pendulum on Earth, T₁ = 4.9 s

period of pendulum on moon, T₂ = ?

The length of the pendulum is constant, make it the subject of the formula;

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g} }\\\\\frac{T}{2\pi} = \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\\\\(\frac{T}{2\pi} )^2 =\frac{L}{g}\\\\\frac{T^2}{4\pi^2} = \frac{L}{g}\\\\ L = \frac{gT^2}{4\pi^2}\\\\L_1 = L_2\\\\\frac{g_1T_1^2}{4\pi^2}= \frac{g_2T_2^2}{4\pi^2}\\\\g_1T_1^2 = g_2T_2^2\\\\T_2^2 = \frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_2} \\\\T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_2}}\\\\ T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_1/6}}\\\\ T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{6*g_1T_1^2}{g_1}}\\\\T_2 = \sqrt{6T_1^2}\\\\ T_2 = T_1\sqrt{6} \\\\T_2 = (4.9)\sqrt{6}\\\\ T_2 = 12.0 \ s[/tex]

Therefore, the period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 s

Answer:

A ) E/8

Explanation:

If the sphere of radius R  carries charge Q,  then the volumetric charge density is:

ρ₁ = [Q/ (4/3)*π*R³]

Therefore the net charge inside r  ( r < R ) is:

q₁ = ρ * (4/3)*π*r³

And E = K * q₁/r                  K = 9,98 *10⁹ [N*m²/C²]

E = K *  ρ * (4/3)*π*r³/r

E = K *  ρ * (4/3)*π*r²

If now the charge is distributed over a sphere of radius 2R

ρ₂ =  [Q/ (4/3)*π*(2R)³]

ρ₂ =  [Q/ (4/3)*π*8*R³]

Then  ρ₂ < ρ₁    in fact     ρ₂ = (1/8)*ρ₁

The electric field depends on the net charge enclosed by a gaussian surface, and the distance between the net charge and the considered point, ( considering the net charge as being at the center of the gaussian surface) In this case, there was no distance change then

E₂ = E₁/8

The right answer is lyrics  A ) E/8