Answer:
$4,900,000
Explanation:
Ratio of Building in total Fair Value = $1,560,000 / ($1,560,000 + $1,560,000 + $2,080,000)
Ratio of Building in total Fair Value = $1,560,000 / $5200000
Ratio of Building in total Fair Value = 0.3
Ratio of Building in total Fair Value = 30%
Building recorded by = $1470000
Total Purchase Price of all three asset = $1470000 / 30%
Total Purchase Price of all three asset = $1470000 / 0.3
Total Purchase Price of all three asset = $4,900,000
The common stock of the C.A.L.L. Corporation has been trading in a narrow range around $50 per share for months. The price of a 3-month put option with an exercise price of $50 is $4. If the risk-free interest rate is 10% per year, what must be the price of a 3-month call option on C.A.L.L. stock at an exercise price of $50 if it is at the money
Answer:
$5.18
Explanation:
Calculation for call option
Using this formula
Call option=Put option + Exercise price-[Exercise price/(1+Risk-free interest rate)^Time
Let plug in the formula
Call option= 4 + 50 - [50/(1+.10)^1/4]
Call option= 4 + 50 - [50/(1.10)^1/4]
Call option= $5.18
Therefore what must be the price of a 3-month call option on C.A.L.L. stock at an exercise price of $50 if it is at the money is $5.18
On January 1, 2018, Brazos Company purchased equipment and signed a six-year mortgage note for $97,000 at 15%. The note will be paid in equal annual installments of $25,631, beginning January 1, 2019. On January 1, 2019, the journal entry to record the first installment payment will include a ________. (Round your answer to the nearest whole number.) A. credit to Mortgage Payable for $97,000
Answer:
the original journal entry should be:
January 1, 2018, equipment purchased
Dr Equipment 97,000
Cr Notes payable 97,000
accrued interest on December 31 2018 should be:
Dr Interest expense 14,550
Cr Interest payable 14,550
the first installment should be recorded as:
January 1, 2019, first installment paid on notes payable
Dr Interest payable 14,550
Dr Notes payable 11,081
Cr Cash 25,631
Grey, Inc., uses a predetermined rate to apply overhead. At the beginning of the year, Grey budgeted its overhead costs at $220,000, direct labor hours at 55,000, and machine hours at 20,000. Actual overhead costs incurred were $233,250, actual direct labor hours were 62,000, and actual machine hours were 15,000. If the PDOH rate uses machine hours as the cost driver, what is the total amount credited to the overhead account control account
Answer:
$165,000
Explanation:
Calculation for what is the total amount credited to the manufacturing overhead account for the year for Grey
First step is to calculate Predetermined overhead rate using this formula
Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated overhead costs / Estimated machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Predetermined overhead rate = $220,000 / 20,000 machine hours
Predetermined overhead rate= $11
Second step is to calculate Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey
Using this formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey= $11 × 15,000 machine hours
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = $165,000
Therefore the Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey will be $165,000
Chik’s Chickens has accounts receivable of $6,333. Sales for the year were $9,800. What is its average collection period? (Use 365 days in a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your final answer to the nearest whole number.)
Answer:
236 days
Explanation:
Average collection period is computed as;
= Receivables at start of the year / Average daily sales
Given that;
Receivables at start of the year
= $6,333
Daily sales
= Sales for the year / Days in a year
= $9,800 / 365 = 26.849315068
Therefore,
Average collection period = $6,333 / 26.849315068
Average collection period = 235.87193878
Average collection period = 236 days. Approximated.
What is the standard deviation of a stock that has a 10% chance of earning 18%, a 10% chance of making 11%, a 40% chance of making 5%, and a 40% chance of making 22%?
A. 7.95%.
B. 13.70%.
C. 7.78%.
D. 13.05%.
Answer:
A. 7.95%.
Explanation:
Calculate the expected rate of return for the investment as follows:
[tex]\begin{aligned}
\text { Expected rate of return } &=(\text { Probability } \times \text { Rate of return })+(\text { Probability } \times \text { Rate of return })+\\
&(\text { Probability } \times \text { Rate of retum }) \\
=&(0.40 \times 15 \%)+(0.50 \times 10 \%)+(0.10 \times-3 \%) \\
=& 0.06+0.05-0.003 \\
=& 0.107[/tex]
Calculate the standard deviation of the investment as follows:
[tex]\begin{aligned}
\text { Standard deviation }=&\left\{\begin{array}{l}
\text { Probability } \left.\times(\text { Return }-\text { Expected return })^{2}\right)+ \\
\text { (Probability } \left.\times(\text { Return }-\text { Expected return })^{2}\right)+ \\
\text { (Probability } \left.\times(\text { Return }-\text { Expected return })^{2}\right)
\end{array}\right.[/tex]
=[tex]\sqrt{\left(0.40 \times(0.15-0.107)^{2}\right)+\left(0.50 \times(0.10-0.107)^{2}\right)+} \\
=\sqrt{0.0007396+0.0000245+0.0018769} \\
=\sqrt{0.002641} \\
=0.05139066063011[/tex]
Assume that Smith deposits $500 in currency into her checking account in the XYZ Bank. Later that same day, Jones negotiates a loan for $2,000 at the same bank. In what direction and by what amount has the supply of money changed?
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Supply of money simply means the money available at a particular time period for an economy.
In the above scenario, the loan of $2000 will lead to an increase in the supply of money available in the economy by $2000.
It should be noted that the deposit made by Smith in the value of $500 does not bring about in the change of the money supply. This is because tye. $500 is still considered to be part of the money supply that is available in the economy.
Agency relationship refers to a consensual relationship between two parties, where one person (the principal) or entity authorizes the other, the agent, to act on his, her, or its behalf. Agency relationships exist in most large corporations due to the separation of management from ownership. The lack of alignment of the principal and the agent interests create an agency cost. What are the main implications of this separation
Answer:
The main implications of the agency separation are goal incongruence, self-interest, and low productivity.
Explanation:
Goal incongruence between an agent and the principal arises from the lack of alignment in their interests. While the agent is appointed to represent the principal, most often, the agent acts in her own interest instead of in the best interest of the principal. This lack of alignment reduces the productivity that could result from the agency relationship. Another implication of the management separation is that the agent's risk appetite will be different from that of the principal. The principal will need to exercise some control over the agent to curb excessive risk-taking by the agent.
Here I Sit Sofas has 7,500 shares of common stock outstanding at a price of $98 per share. There are 760 bonds that mature in 34 years with a coupon rate of 7.2 percent paid semiannually. The bonds have a par value of $2,000 each and sell at 110.5 percent of par. The company also has 6,400 shares of preferred stock outstanding at a price of $51 per share. What is the capital structure weight of the debt
Answer:
61.28%
Explanation:
Equity market value = Number of shares*price/share
Equity market value = 7,500 * $98
Equity market value = $735,000
Current debt value = Number of bonds*price/bond
Current debt value = 760*(1.105*2000)
Current debt value = $1,679,600
Preferred stock value = Number of shares*price/share
Preferred stock value = 6,400 * $51
Preferred stock value = $326,400
Total capital = Common equity value + Debt value + Preferred stock value
Total capital = $735,000 + $1,679,600 + $326,400
Total capital = $2,741,000
Weight of debt = Debt value / Total capital
Weight of debt = $1,679,600 / $2,741,000
Weight of debt = 0.6127690623859905
Weight of debt = 61.28%
How do i get as much mony as bill gates todey?
Answer:
be very famous
Explanation:
A result of welfare economics is that the equilibrium price of a product is considered to be the best price because it
a. maximizes both the total revenue for firms and the quantity supplied of the product.
b. minimizes costs and maximizes output.
c. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers .
d. minimizes the level of welfare payments.
Answer:
c. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers .
Explanation:
Welfare Economics simply deals with how the sharing/ allocation of resources affects economic well-being of people. The above statement of the fact that the result of welfare economics is that the equilibrium price of a product is considered to be the best price because it maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers is true due to the fact that it takes the welfare and wellbeing of both parties into consideration.
thinking strategically about industry and competitive conditions in a given industry involves evaluating such considerations as
Answer:
E. how often sellers alter their prices, how sensitive buyers are to price differences among sellers, whether the item being purchased is a good or a service, and whether buyers buy frequently or infrequently.
Explanation:
Options are "A. cultural, lifestyle, and demographic changes, B. the birth of new industries, new knowledge, and disruptive technologies, C. weather, climate change, and water shortages, D. interest rates, exchange rates, unemployment rates, inflation rates, and economic growth, E. how often sellers alter their prices, how sensitive buyers are to price differences among sellers, whether the item being purchased is a good or a service, and whether buyers buy frequently or infrequently."
Thinking strategically about industry and competitive conditions in a given industry involves evaluating such considerations as how often sellers alter their prices, how sensitive buyers are to price differences among sellers, whether the item being purchased is a good or a service, and whether buyers buy frequently or infrequently.
The strategy decision making about the industry and competitive conditions involve evaluating the prices, buyer sensitivity to the prices, serviceability & frequency.
The firm should shut down if the market price is:___________.
A. above $8.
B. above $6.30 but less than $8.
C. above $4.50 but less than $6.30.
D. less than $4.50.
Answer: D. less than $4.50.
Explanation:
In the short run, a business should shutdown if the market price is below the Average Variable costs as because at this point, only losses are being made if the company stays in action.
If price is below the variable cost, it is best to shutdown so that the company can stop incurring the variable costs and incur the fixed cost alone. The lowest Average Variable cost is $4.50 for this good and so if the price falls below $4.50, the should shutdown.
Rory Company has a machine with a book value of $101,000 and a remaining five-year useful life. A new machine is available at a cost of $116,000, and Rory can also receive $83,000 for trading in its old machine. The new machine will reduce variable manufacturing costs by $17,000 per year over its five-year useful life. Calculate the incremental income. (Any losses or outflows should be entered with a minus sign.)
Answer:
Incremental Income $52,000
Explanation:
The computation of the incremental income is shown below:
Reduction in variable manufacturing costs ($17,000 × 5) $85,000
Cost of the new machine -$116.000
Cash received from trade in old machine $83,000
Incremental Income $52,000
The machine should replacement as there is an increase in income by $52,000
What type of mortgage requires fixed monthly interest payments for 3 to 5 years whereupon full payment of the mortgage principal is due?
Answer:
Balloon Payment Mortgages
Explanation:
Mortgages are simply loans to persons or businesses to get/purchase homes, land, or other real property.
A balloon payment mortgage is a a type of mortgage known for its ability to not fully amortize over the term of the note, thereby leaving a balance due at maturity. Its last or final payment is called a balloon payment because of its notable large size. This type of mortgages are more more common in commercial real estate than in residential real estate. the above statement of it that it require fixed monthly interest payments for 3 to 5 years whereupon full payment of the mortgage principal is due is correct.
Franklin corporation issues $97,000, 8%, 5-year bonds on January 1, for $101,370. Interest is paid semiannually on January 1 and July 1. If Franklin uses the straight-line method of amortization of bond premium, the amount of bond interest expense to be recognized on July 1 is:________.
a. $4,317
b. $7,760
c. $3,443
d. $3,880
Answer:
c. $3,443
Explanation:
Date Account Titles Debit Credit
Jan 1 Cash 101370
Bond payable 97000
Premium on issue of bonds 4,370
(101370-97000)
Jul 1 Interest expenses (3680 - 437) 3,443
Premium on issue on bond 437
(4379/5 * 6/12)
Cash (97,000*8%*6/12) 3,800
A company is facing a lawsuit from a customer. It is possible, but not probable, that the company will have to pay a settlement that management estimates to be $2,000,000. How would this fact be reported in the financial statements to be issued at the end of the current month?
a. $2,000,000 in the Current Liability section.
b. $2,000,000 in the Long-Term Liability section.
c. In a descriptive narrative in the footnote section.
d. None because disclosure is not required.
Answer:
c. In a descriptive narrative in the footnote section.
Explanation:
Only contingent liabilities that are probable and can be actually estimated must be recorded in the income statement and balance sheet. Contingent liabilities that are only possible, but not probable, must be disclosed in the footnotes of the financial statements. Liabilities that are not possible, nor probable, should not be included anywhere.
Short Company purchased land by paying $22,000 cash on the purchase date and agreed to pay $22,000 for each of the next seven years beginning one-year from the purchase date. Short's incremental borrowing rate is 10%. On the balance sheet as of the purchase date, after the initial $22,000 payment was made, the liability reported is closest to: (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, and PVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)
Answer:
The liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.
Explanation:
This can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:
PV = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)
Where;
PV = Present value or the the liability reported =?
P = Annuity payment = $22,000
r = Student's desired return rate = 10%, or 0.10
n = number of years = 7
Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:
PV = $22,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^7) / 0.10)
PV = $22,000 * 4.86841881769293
PV = $107,105.21
Therefore, the liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.
To determine the dutiable status of goods, it is necessary to know their classification, country of origin, and details pertaining to:___________.a. Perishable/non-perishable status.b. Partially or fully manufactured goods.c. Raw materials to be used in production.d. Value.
Answer:
d. Value
Explanation:
The dutiable goods are subjected to duties. Dutiable goods may be defined as the goods and products on which tax have to be paid when they brought to a country from other countries.
In order to known the dutiable status of any goods, it is very important to know the classification of the good, the place of their origin and all the details relating to its value.
A production line is to be designed for a product whose completion requires 21 minutes of work. The factory works 400 minutes per day. Can an assembly line with five workstations make 100 units per day?
a. yes, with exactly 100 minutes to spare
b. no, but four workstations would be sufficient
c. no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
d. yes, but the line's efficiency is very low
e. cannot be determined from the information given
Answer:
C. no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
Explanation:
In this question, if a factory has a work time that is 400 minutes per day. The required units per day is a 209 units. With 5 available workstations.
Then we would calculate the time cycle as
400 x 5/100
= 400x0.05
= 20minutes/unit
So In conclusion, if the time required is more than 20 minutes, that is 21 minutes, it is going to fall short with a perfectly balanced line. Hence option c.
The correct option is c.
c. no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
The following information should be considered:
An assembly line having with five workstations that can't make 100 units per day.Because it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
Therefore, we can conclude that the correct option is c.
Learn more: brainly.com/question/16911495
During the 1970s, some economists argued that the cause of the woes of the economy were due to __________. g
Explanation:
Stagflation. Which is stagnant growth combined with inflation. Which was caused in large part by repeated disruptions to global oil supplies, which led to soaring prices and gasoline shortages in the United States.
A one year call option has a strike price of 50, expires in 6 months, and has a price of $4.74. If the risk free rate is 3%, and the current stock price is $45, what should the corresponding put be worth?
A) $12.74.
B) $10.48.
C) $5.00.
D) $9.00.
E) $8.30.
Answer:
$9.90
Explanation:
Using Put Call Parity Equation:
C + X/(1 + r)^t + S + P
Call price + PV of exercise price = Spot price + Put price
4.74 + 50/(1.03)^0.30 = 45 + P
4.74 + 50/1.00891 = 45 + P
4.74 + 49.5584 = 45 + P
P = 4.74 + 49.5584 - 45
P = 9.2984
P = $9.90
Thus, the Price of Put Option with $50 exercise price = $9.90
when it comes to managing money success is about 80% knowledge and 20% Behavior true or false
Answer:
huh
Explanation:
do you have a picture of the question because I don't get it but I'm trying to help
Jasmine's Boutique has 2,000 bonds outstanding with a face value of $1,000 each and a coupon rate of 9 percent. The interest is paid semiannually. What is the amount of the annual interest tax shield if the tax rate is 34 percent?A. $58,500B. $60,750C. $60,100D. $62,250E. $61,200
Answer:
E. $61,200
Explanation:
total interest expense = 2,000 bonds x $1,000 per bond x 9% = $180,000
the interest shield is the amount of taxes saved by paying interest expense
interest shield = total interest expense x tax rate = $180,000 x 34% = $61,200
this means that the company will be able to reduce its income taxes by $61,200 because it paid interests on their bonds
The seller agrees to pay the listing real estate agent a commission of 5%. The property is listed at $400,000, the buyer offers and seller agrees on price of $380,000 and it closes at that price. The buyer obtains a loan of $300,000. The property is tax assessed at $350,000. The commission most likely paid to the real estate agent is:__________
A. No commission is owed because it did not sell at the list price
B. $17,500
C. $20,000
D. $19,000
Answer:
C. $20,000
Explanation:
Note that we are talking about the listing commission. Listing commission will be calculated on the listed price.
So, the listed price will be = 400,000 * 5%
= $20,000
Thus, the commission most likely paid to the real estate agent is $20,000
lhow do I work brain the brain
open the brain and release its contents
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model:________
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Your question is not complete. Here is the completed question:
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model, what is the risk premium?
The risk premium will be the difference between the market portfolio and the treasury bill rate. This will be:
= 10% - 6%
= 4%
Susan won $2,000 at the blackjack tables on her birthday. Her winnings are an example of:________.
a. an in-kind transfer.
b. transitory income.
c. life-cycle income.
d. permanent income.
Answer:
B. Transitory income.
Explanation:
As the name sounds, it is seen to be a form of income that is said to be anticipated. This form of income does not play key roles in the standard of living of the said person. This income is clearly a short-lived kind as it cannot hold a person or family towards a certified period of time. Also in many cases, economists are seen to believe that people base their consumption on their permanent income, therefore, inequality in consumption is one gauge of inequality of permanent income; making consumption less effectective, as transitory changes in income, they are more equally is current income.
***ECONOMICS***An investment that you bought for ______
and sold for _____
made a profit.
A. $500; $400
B. $400; $500
C. S500; $300
D. $400; $300
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
you bought it for 400 and sold it for 500 and made 100$ profit
A firm will often split the stock to keep the stock price within a proper trading range.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
Many times a corporation might carry out a stock split in order to prevent the price of its stock to become too expensive. E.g. when Apple's stocks get too expensive, stock splits occur, The last occasion the split stocks was 7:1, i.e. for every existing Apple stock, 6 new ones were issued.
This occurs because if the price of the stock is too high, it will be harder for small investors. Remember that the total capitalization is not affected by a stock split.
An aging of a company's accounts receivable indicates that $8400 are estimated to be uncollectible. If Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $3800 credit balance, the adjustment to record bad debts for the period will require a:_____.
1. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $1,800.
2. debit to Bad Debt Expense for $2,200.
3. credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for $3,000.
4. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $2,000.
Answer:
Debit to Bad Debts Expense for $4,600
Explanation:
Based on the information given we were told that the company's accounts receivable shows the amount of $8400 which was estimated to be uncollectible which means that If Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has the amount of $3800 as credit balance, the adjustment to record bad debts for the period will require a Debit to Bad Debts Expense for $4,600 calculated as
Bad Debts Expense=Accounts receivable-Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
Bad Debts Expense=$8,400-$3,800
Bad Debts Expense=$4,600