Direct the client to lower sodium version of favorite foods.
Help the client balance some favorite foods with salt free foods.
Encourage the client to discuss likes and dislikes.
Explain how to keep a food journal.
Instruct the client on reading food labels.
What is dietary compliance ?The goal of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans is to offer suggestions on what to eat and drink to create a healthy diet that can support healthy growth and development, aid in the prevention of diet-related chronic disease, and meet nutrient requirements.
Compliance is a passive behaviour in which a patient complies with the doctor's instructions." Continued in the article, it states: "Adherence is a more proactive, positive behaviour that forces the patient to alter their way of life because they are required to adhere to a daily schedule, such as wearing a brace as directed.
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which assessment should the nurse complete immediately after hearing the client choked while eating? the caregiver's knowledge about feeding a person who is dysphagic. auscultate the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds. assess the client's loc with the mini-mental status exam. determine the client's ability to swallow liquids.
Auscultate Bertha's lungs for adventitious breath sounds. Bertha's lungs should be assessed immediately for adventitious breath sounds since she is at risk for aspiration pneumonia secondary to the choking incident
What is adventitious breath sounds ?In contrast to the anticipated breath sounds mentioned above, adventitious sounds are those that are heard. Crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes are among the most frequent unforeseen sounds. Here, we'll also talk about strudor and rubs.
The partial obstruction of the larynx or trachea is typically the cause of this sound. In diseases like croup and obstruction from a foreign body, strife may be audible. Since the upper airway is partially blocked, the noise is usually loudest over the anterior neck.
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a child has experienced a bee-sting while at the park. the health care provider is walking by and notices the child has swelling around the eyes, lips, and face in general. what priority assessment should the nurse make at this time?
The priority assessment the nurse should make at that time is assess and establish an open airway.
Adults often experience more severe allergic reactions to bee stings than youngsters.
Many times, the only symptoms at the sting site are pain and edema. Rarely, a life-threatening allergic reaction can produce symptoms such as trouble breathing, swollen tongue, nausea, and unconsciousness. There might be a medical emergency here.
The stinger should be removed, the area should be cleaned with soap and water, and cold compresses or ice should be applied as treatment for mild to moderate reactions. Applying creams to the affected area can help ease pain.
Epinephrine may be needed for severe reactions.
The area experiences intense pain or burning for one to two hours. For 48 hours following the sting, venom-related edema is normal and can get worse. There may be 3 days of redness. The swelling may persist for 7 days.
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a nurse administers medications to the wrong client in a hospital. the client has an anaphylactic reaction to one of the medications and expires. what legal actions against the nurse can the family pursue? select all that apply.
The family may file a lawsuit against the nurse for malpractice because of improper medication .The family may file a lawsuit accusing the hospital of malpractice. A reasonable settlement might be sought by the family outside of court.
The family has the right to file a malpractice lawsuit against the nurse and the hospital. Outside of court, the family may attempt to reach a settlement. An incident that serves as a malpractice sentinel has legal repercussions. Errors in medication safety are uncommon. Although the nurse can leave the facility, she may yet face more legal repercussions. The medication nurse had a duty of care toward the patient and was required to look after them.
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exposure of microbial populations to antibiotics leads to the selection of organisms that are able to resist the antibiotic
Exposure of microbial populations to antibiotics leads to the selection of organisms that are able to resist the antibiotic, then it is natural selection(survival of the fittest).
What is the survival of the fittest?When bacteria are exposed to an antibiotic, most susceptible to the antibiotic will die quickly, leaving any surviving bacteria to pass on their resistant features to the succeeding generations.
There are two ways for bacterial cells to acquire antibiotic resistance : one is through mutations that occur in DNA of the cell during replication and another way that bacteria acquire resistance is through horizontal gene transfer.
Antibiotic resistance refers to resistance to bacteria whereas antimicrobial resistance refers to resistance to bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites.
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a safe and effective vaccine is available for which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
Hepatitis B & HPV vaccinations are two viral STIs that are safe and very effective. Major strides in STI prevention have been made possible by these vaccinations.
The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, an infection that may cause genital warts and is also connected to several malignancies, is currently the sole vaccination for an STI. No vaccine exists to protect against syphilis, gonorrhea, as well as chlamydia.
All STIs are curable and quite prevalent. Many of them can be fully treated. Even STIs that are incurable can be controlled medically, including the symptoms.
The safe, efficient, and advised method of preventing hepatitis B & HPV is vaccination. If not previously protected, HPV vaccination is advised for preteens aged 11 or 12 and for everyone up to age 26.
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a health care provider orders a retention enema for a client whose diagnostic testing reveals the presence of intestinal parasites. which enema would be indicated for this client?
Constipation relief is the primary goal of enema administration. Additionally, an enema can be used to remove flatus, empty the intestines before to a diagnostic procedure or surgery, or to introduce medication.
What position must the patient be in for an enema?Given the anatomical features of the colon, administering an enema is best done in the left lateral position. Despite the fact that 5 to 6 cm is the designated length for the tube to be inserted.
What phrase would the nurse use to record a patient's incapacity to pass waste from the colon?Hardened fecal matter that has been kept in the large bowel and cannot be expelled by normal peristaltic activity causes fecal impaction.
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the nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. what teachings are priorities for the client? select all that apply.
The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with rheumatoid arthritis, then teachings that are priorities for the client are : Safe exercise, medication dosages, side effects and assistive devices.
What care should be taken for for rheumatoid arthritis?Methotrexate is the first medicine given for rheumatoid arthritis, with DMARD and a short course of steroids (corticosteroids) to relieve pain, if any. They can be combined with biological treatments.
Optimal care of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) includes both pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic therapies. Many nonpharmacologic treatments are available for this disease, like exercise, diet, massage, counseling, stress reduction, physical therapy and surgery.
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An anesthetist has just delivered an anesthetic agent to the area immediately surrounding the anterior superior iliac spine of a patient's pelvic bone. Where would you anticipate the loss of sensation in this patient?
The patient would have loss of sensation in the lateral thigh region.
How does anesthesia cause numbness ?During examinations and surgeries, anesthetics are used to cause sleep or numb feeling in certain body parts. This lessens discomfort and pain and makes a variety of medical treatments possible.
Local anesthetics that are applied topically reduce blood supply to the nerves, which may either directly injure them through ischemia or enhance direct cytotoxic effects.
Vasoconstriction caused by local anesthetics is correlated with drug concentration, just as other adverse effects.
Surgery often leaves patients with some degree of numbness. Numbness might arise from an incision because it temporarily harms sensory nerves. All forms of plastic surgery, from liposuction to rhinoplasty, frequently result in this total lack of sensation or tingling at the incision site.
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a nurse is caring for a client in a critical care unit. with what type of shock does a client experience a pooling of blood flow to the peripheral blood vessels?
Obstructive shock does a client experience a pooling of blood flow to the peripheral blood vessels.
What is Obstructive shock?One of the four types of shock is obstructive shock, which is brought on by a physical restriction in the blood flow. The heart itself or the level of the great vessels might both experience obstruction. Pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, and tension pneumothorax are some of the causes. These are all potentially fatal.
pooling of blood (Blood pool):Blood pools (or collects) in your legs, ankles, and/or feet when it cannot return to your heart and is unable to do so. Several different conditions can cause blood to collect in the feet and legs.
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a patient admitted to the hospital has been using phenylephrine nasal spray [neo-synephrine], 2 sprays every 4 hours, for a week. the patient complains that the medication is not working, because the nasal congestion has increased. what will the nurse do?
Nurse should discontinue the use of phenylephrine after the nasal congestion worse.
Rhinitis MedicamentosaAs the name suggests, rhinitis medicamentosa means rhinitis (inflammation of the nose) due to the use of medicamentosa (nasal decongestants). This rebound congestion can occur if topical nasal decongestants are used too often (overuse).
Commonly used topical nasal decongestants are ephedrine derivatives (including phenylephrine). Topical nasal decongestants are commonly used to treat diseases with congestion in the nose (allergic rhinitis, rhinosinusitis, nasal polyps, etc.). However, the use of topical nasal decongestants can cause rebound congestion within 3 days to 4-6 weeks after use.
This can occur due to:
Chronic vasoconstriction which causes edema in the noseImpaired vasomotor which causes vasodilationBeta-adrenoreceptor activity which causes rebound vasodilatation.If this happens, the first step is to discontinuation of the topical nasal decongestant. However, the patient must be educated, while the congestion may worsen. To treat the congestion, you can be give:
Short-term oral corticosteroid (eg: prednisone 0.5 mg/kg 5 days) Oral antihistamine Corticosteroid injection in lower turbinateLearn more about rhinitis here: https://brainly.com/question/28543660
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what is it considered when the patient has a large set of jaws but the dentition appears smaller by comparison?
All of the teeth in the dentition appear smaller than usual in widespread microdontia. Teeth may be comparatively small in size to a large mandible and maxilla, as in pituitary dwarfism, or they may actually be demonstrably smaller than usual.
An excessively large tooth or collection of teeth are called macrodontia and are a dental disease.
What three forms of malocclusions are there?
Type I: The teeth have a tongue-facing inclination. Type II: Has narrow arches, with the top teeth protruding and the bottom teeth tipped inward toward the tongue. Type III: There is crowding and the top front teeth point toward the tongue.
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the nurse awakens a client while the client is experiencing rapid eye movement sleep. what statement made by the client indicates they were awakened during rem sleep?
I had a fantastic dream, and I still remember it all. Nearly all people who awaken while in the REM stage claim to have been dreaming. Underneath the eyelids, there is quick eye movement.
What else does REM do while you sleep?
Your brain analyzes new information and motor function from the day during REM sleep, storing some to memory, keeping others, and determining which to delete.
Is it beneficial to awaken in REM sleep?
Numerous studies have demonstrated that daytime grogginess and bad mood are caused by insufficient of slow wave sleep. Additionally, waking up in the middle of a REM cycle prevents us from accumulating memories. Try to organize your slumber in multiples of 90 minutes to ensure that you awaken during light sleep.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who has a congenital hypothyroidism. which medication would the nurse expect the primary health care provider to prescribe?
Congenital hypothyroidism is treated with the thyroid medication levothyroxine. Congenital hypothyroidism is not treated with the thyroid medication Liotrix.
What affects a person with hypothyroidism?Starting on, hypothyroidism may still not display any observable concerns. In long, undiagnosed levothyroxine may lead to a variety of problems, including obesity, joint pain, infertility, even heart disease.
Is hypothyroidism reversible?Not all patients with moderate hypothyroidism require medication. For rare occasions, the issue might resolve itself. To track the progression of hypothyroidism, it is essential to arrange follow-up appointments. Whenever hyperthyroidism will never fade up or so after several months, treatment is necessary.
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during a home visit the nurse notes that a client recovering from peptic ulcer disease is experiencing cool clammy skin and has a heart rate of 96 beats a minute. which action will the nurse take?
In the case of the question above, the nurse should notify the client's primary healthcare provider.
Peptic ulcer disease is a sore that develops on the lining of the stomach and the small intestine. It occurs when the body's own stomach acid damages the lining of the digestive tract. The most common cause of it is infection by Helicobacter pylori bacteria.
When a person suffering from an ulcer is feeling cold and clammy, they could be in shock from massive blood loss. In normal cases, 911 should be called immediately. But, in the question above, since a nurse is already doing a home visit, she should contact the patient primary healthcare provider immediately.
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when people have conditions, such as traumatic brain injury or dementia, what is a good method to improve memory for a current activity?
Damage to your medulla oblongata might cause respiratory failure, paralysis, or loss of sensation. It's crucial to lead a cognitively stimulating existence. Mental exercise helps maintain the mind and memory in shape, just to how muscles get stronger with use.
How do cognitive neuroscience and cognitive psychology vary from one another?Cognitive neuroscience seeks to establish links between thinking and particular patterns of brain activity, whereas cognitive psychology focuses on thought processes.
An illness or injury that causes an aberrant disruption in the brain's tissue?A blow, bump, or jolt to the head, the head abruptly slamming against something, or when something pierces the skull can all result in traumatic brain injury, which is a disruption in the brain's normal function.
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an older adult who was in a motor vehicle collision exhibits a decreased level of consciousness and serosanguinous drainage from the left ear. which action would the nurse take?
The nurse should place a sterile pad over the external ear.
Why should the nurse do so?
Lowered level of consciousness indicates towards a potential head injury, and drainage from the ear may be cerebrospinal fluid.
A sterile pad gently placed over the external ear will absorb the drainage and also prevents infection. It can also help detect the halo sign.
If a cerebrospinal fluid leak is suspected, irrigating the ear with normal saline is contraindicated. In the external meatus of the ear, packing a cotton ball or inserting a cotton-tipped swab may be traumatic and may even injure the ear further. It will also obstruct the free flow of drainage.
Therefore, the nurse should gently place a sterile pad over the external ear.
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which of the following actions can a staff nurse take to advance ebp at the point of care?a.establish the culture for ebp in institutional settingsb.identify clinical questions related to current nursing practicec.promote consistent practice changes among different shiftsd.reward nurses involved in ebp and help those who lack involvement
The actions which can a staff nurse take to advance EBP at the point of care is b.identify clinical questions related to current nursing practice.
EBP could be a method accustomed review, analyze, and translate the newest scientific proof. Key samples of evidence-based practice (EBP) in nursing include: Giving gas to patients with COPD: Drawing on evidence to know a way to properly provide gas to patients with chronic preventive respiratory organ sickness (COPD).
Nursing practice could also be work expertise that's direct and/or indirect patient care in clinical apply, nursing administration, education, research, or consultation within the specialty portrayed by the written document. The position should be one that will be crammed by a RN.
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a client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic hydronephrosis. which assessment finding requires immediate action or will assist the nurse in planning care?
The underlying cause of the issue may require treatment with medication or surgery to be removed.
The ideal test for hydronephrosis is what?An ultrasonic scan is frequently used to identify hydronephrosis. Finding the cause of the ailment may require more testing. The interior of your kidneys can be visualised using sound waves during an ultrasound scan. This should be very obvious if your kidneys are enlarged.
What choices are there for the patient with renal calculi?There are a number of possible treatments if you have kidney stones (urolithiasis). These include ureteroscopy, percutaneous nephrolithotripsy (PCNL), extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), and medical treatment.
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a patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 lbs, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (dm). the a1c is 7.1%. what is the best initial treatment?
A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 lbs, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (dm). the a1c is 7.1%. The best initial treatment is-
Diet, exercise, and metformin.
What is diabetes mellitus?
A series of conditions known as diabetes mellitus alter how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). The cells that make up the muscles and tissues' main source of energy is glucose. That serves as the primary source of energy of the brain.
Type 1 and type 2 diabetes both are chronic diseases. Treatment options exist for diabetes-related conditions such gestational diabetes and prediabetes. When blood sugar levels are higher than usual, prediabetes begins to develop. However, a diagnosis of diabetes cannot be made only based on blood sugar levels. Additionally, if precautions are not taken, prediabetes could turn into diabetes. During pregnancy, gestational diabetes can develop. It can leave once the baby is born.
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stresses on skin: 1. why is the skin in near constant assault? 2. what are the steps of a papercut repair(shallow cut)? 3. what are the steps of a deep cut? 4. what vitamin does the skin make? 5. what does the skin make to protect it from uv radiation? 6. in what area of the world do dark skin people come from? 7. what is the difference between suntan and sunburn? 8. what are two common types of skin cancer? 9. where in the world do medium skin tan people come from? 10. where in the world do light skin people come from? 11. what are the differences in the exposure slider between the three types of skin and why do you believe they are different?
Vitamin that the skin make is Vitamin D. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that helps the body absorb and retain calcium and phosphorus which are critical for building bone.
How does vitamin D save skin from damage?
The skin plays a crucial role in the synthesis, metabolism, and action of vitamin D. It controls a variety of physiological processes in the skin, including barrier maintenance, immunological responses, and cellular differentiation, proliferation, and apoptosis.
What are the benefits of vitamin D?
It is a fat-soluble vitamin with a long history of helping the body retain and absorb calcium and phosphorus, both of which are essential for bone development. Additionally, research in the lab demonstrates that vitamin D helps lessen inflammation, manage infections, and slow the growth of cancer cells.
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the critical condition that requires the most protein intake is? group of answer choices burns septic shock acute respiratory failure heart attac
A heart attack, burns, septic shock, and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are some of the symptoms.
What is ARDS's most typical cause?If ARDS develops many days or more after serious burns or trauma, sepsis may be the most frequent reason for it. A patient may directly or indirectly develop ARDS as a result of severe traumatic tissue injury.
The stages of ARDS are as follows.The wounded lung is thought to go through three stages in ARDS: exudative, proliferative, and fibrotic; however, the timing of each stage and the overall disease progression are unpredictable. ARDS is not always fatal, despite the lack of a treatment. 60% to 75% of those with ARDS are thought to survive the condition with treatment.
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an older adult client recently had a cerebrovascular accident and has residual right-sided paralysis. the client is unable to turn in bed without assistance. which action will the nurse take to help prevent skin breakdown?
Check the extremities for muscular loss and unilateral edema. Hemiplegia is a disorder that results in paralysis on one side of the body and is brought on by brain or spinal cord damage.
It results in muscular stiffness, control issues, and weakness. Symptoms of hemiplegia range in severity paralysis depending on where and how much damage was done. Damage to the left hemisphere results in weakness on the right side of the body, and vice versa, since paralysis each side of the brain hemiplegia regulates movement on the opposite side of the body.
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during the fourth stage of labor, the nurse assesses the woman at frequent intervals after giving childbirth. what assessment data would cause the nurse the most concern?
Answer:
a full bladder
Explanation:
the nurse is preparing instructions for a client who is diagnosed with osteomalacia who is at risk for skeletal injury. which information would the nurse include in the teaching?
In some cases, patients with osteomalacia may benefit from taking vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate supplements.
What should the nurse advise patients to do in order to support bone health?Nurses should evaluate the patient's understanding of osteoporosis and educate the patient about dietary intake, exercise, and other factors like increasing calcium and vitamin D intake, identifying foods high in calcium, and limiting sodas or colas, which are typically high in phosphorus.
How does the skeletal system respond to osteomalacia?The term "osteomalacia" refers to a condition in which bones become brittle and brittle. They are therefore more brittle than usual and can bend and break more easily. Lack of vitamin D is the most frequent cause. Children that have this illness are said to have rickets.
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cardiac monitoring leads are placed on a client who is at risk for premature ventricular contractions (pvcs). which heart rhythm will the nurse anticipate in this client if pvcs are occurring?
The nurse will anticipate premature beats followed by a compensatory pause.
what are PVCs?
PVCs, Premature ventricular contractions, are extra heartbeats beginning in one of the hearts two lower pumping chambers (ventricles). They are abnormal ectopic beats. These extra abnormal beats disrupt the regular rhythm of the heart. They sometimes cause a sensation of fluttering or a skipped beat in the chest.
PVCs are a common type of arrhythmia, i.e., irregular heartbeats.
Premature ventricular contractions are also known as premature ventricular complexes or ventricular premature beats or ventricular extrasystoles.
Therefore, the nurse will anticipate premature beats followed by a compensatory pause.
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the nurse is caring for a 6-year-old girl who will be undergoing a surgical procedure that will result in a temporary ileostomy. which approach would be most effective in helping prepare the child for surgery?
Play out the events leading up to and following the surgery using a doll.
Most young people in school will perform well if they start preparing a few days before the event. For teenagers, one week is advised. Toddlers should arrive just before and preschoolers one hour in advance. Explain to your youngster the need for the operation. Children who are in school may have more sophisticated queries regarding surgery. Be truthful. Reassure your youngster that you will make an effort to learn the answer if you do not even know it. Allowing your child to pick out a favourite stuffed animal, doll, or blankets to bring along will make them feel that they have some contro by using dolls. Tell them you'll stay nearby while they have surgery and will be there to greet them when they arrive in their room.
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a client with aids is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea and dehydration. the physician suspects an infection with cryptosporidium. what type of specimen should be collected to confirm this diagnosis?
The type of specimen which are supposed to be collected are : Stool specimen for ova and parasites.
What is the importance of identifying specimens in cryptosporidium ?Stool samples are examined in order to make the diagnosis of cryptosporidiosis. Patients can be required to produce many stool samples over the course of several days because it might be challenging to detect Cryptosporidium.
Accurate diagnosis must be made by exact identification and characterization in order to control cryptosporidiosis. The diagnosis of Cryptosporidium oocysts requires the study of recent fecal samples.
Considered to be a significant contributor to the newborn diarrhea syndrome that affects calves, lambs, and goat calves and results in significant direct and indirect economic losses.
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a client who recently developed paralysis of the arms is diagnosed with functional neurologic symptom disorder
The intervention that the nurse should include in the plan of care for the patient who recently developed paralysis of the arms and was diagnosed with conversion disorder is 'exercising the patient's arms regularly'.
In this case, it was mentioned that the patient's tests failed to uncover a physical cause for the paralysis.
What is conversion disorder?Conversion disorder is the other name for functional neurological symptom disorder, or FND. Conversion disorder can be defined as a psychiatric disorder characterized by sensory or motor function abnormalities. These signs and symptoms do not correspond to any recognized neurologic illness or other biological condition.
Despite the fact that conversion disorder has no biological basis, the symptoms have a major influence on a patient's capacity to operate. Furthermore, the symptoms cannot be controlled at will and are not thought to be exaggerated on purpose by the patient. Sigmund Freud is the one who first mentioned the phrase "conversion disorder" in his writings.
The complete sentences of the question above are as follows:
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an hiv-positive client discovers that the client's name is published in a research report on hiv care prepared by the client's nurse. the client is hurt and files a lawsuit against the nurse. which offense has the nurse committed?
Invasion of privacy is the correct answer.
What are the legal dimensions of nursing practices?
In order to avoid legal disputes, nurses must establish trustworthy nurse-patient relationships, practise within the boundaries of their competence, identify potential liabilities to their practise, and work to prevent them. Legal accountability of nurses is growing Nurses are increasingly the targets of both civil and criminal negligence cases and are being brought to court to defend their practise.
Invasion of Privacy
Privacy invasion Patients have a right to have their information kept private. HIPAA states that patients have the following rights:
1. to view a duplicate of their medical record
2. to revise their medical history
3. to obtain a list of disclosures a healthcare organization has made that aren't related to treatment, payment, or business operations in the industry
4. to ask for a restriction on specific disclosures or uses
5. to select a method for getting health information
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a client has been given the diagnosis of diffuse glomerulonephritis. the client asks the nurse what diffuse means. the nurse responds:
A customer has been diagnosed with diffuse glomerulonephritis, which affects all of the glomeruli and all of the glomeruli's components.
How is glomerulonephritis diagnosed in nursing?The primary nursing diagnoses based on the assessment data are: Poor breathing habits associated with the inflammatory process. altered urine elimination due to a smaller bladder or discomfort from an illness.
What other possible diagnoses for glomerulonephritis exist?A wide range of organic renal and vascular illnesses, as well as some of the functional reasons of proteinuria, are all included in the differential diagnosis of acute and chronic glomerulonephritis. Through good laboratory integration, the modern doctor can increase the effectiveness of his diagnosis and treatment.
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