The action the nurse should implement first is to receive order for diphenhydramine and administer.
What causes migraines most frequently?
Although the precise cause of migraines is unknown, it is believed that they are a temporary side effect of irregular brain activity that affects the brain's blood vessels, chemicals, and nerve signals.
How do headaches feel?
Typically, a severe headache on one side of the head is the primary sign of a migraine. The pain is typically a moderate to severe throbbing sensation that worsens with movement and keeps you from performing daily tasks. Your face or neck may also be affected, and in rare circumstances, the discomfort may spread to both sides of your head.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with acute hemorrhage from esophageal varices. what medication should the nurse anticipate administering that will reduce pressure in the portal venous system and control esophageal bleeding?
Beta blockers and endoscopic band ligation are the recommended treatments to help prevent re-bleeding.
What are esophageal varices?
Varices are bulging or swollen veins. The esophageal tube links the neck to the stomach. Esophageal varices are enlarged veins that appear on the lining of the esophagus.
Who is at risk for esophageal varices that break open and bleed?
Not every person who develops esophageal varices will experience bleeding. The following factors increase the risk of bleeding:
High portal blood pressure: The risk of bleeding increases as portal pressure rises.
Large varices: The risk of bleeding increases as varices grow in size.
Severe liver disease: The risk is increased if you have advanced cirrhosis or liver failure.
Ongoing alcohol consumption: In patients with varices due to alcohol, continuing to drink increases the risk of bleeding.
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the nurse is asking a client with arthritis questions to collect information. which questions asked by the nurse are closed-ended questions? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse can ask close-ended-questions like :
"Are you having pain?"
"Do you think the medication is helping you get pain relief?"
How do these questions help the nurse to create a proper diagnosis?Answers to closed-ended questions are limited to one or two words. These questions elicit further inquiries and assist in identifying certain issue areas. The patient has the option of saying yes or no in response to the nurse's question, "Are you in pain?" The client can respond either yes or no when the nurse asks, "Do you think the medication is helping you achieve pain relief?" These two inquiries have a set of predetermined answers. Open-ended queries are client-focused and demand a thorough justification.
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the nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. the nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage? hematemesis hypertension polyuria
Hematemesis is seen by the nurse as a sign or symptom of a potential ulcer bleeding. Tactile bleeding symptoms can also include tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria or anuria.
Hematemesis can have a variety of reasons & symptom, including:
bleeders on the skintear-producing, protracted, and forceful retching of the esophageal mucosa (known as Mallory-Weiss Syndrome)intestine or stomach varices in Hematemesis.Internal bleeding can be caused by radiation exposure, gastroenteritis, gastritis, or peptic ulcers. Vascular problems with the digestive systembleeding feverOther potential non-life-threatening reasons& symptom of Hematemesis include: oral surgery, which might result in some blood being swallowed; certain nosebleeds, which can result in blood entering the digestive tract; and persistent, violent coughing.
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which is a common site for metastasis that the nurse should include in the plan of care for a patient who is diagnosed with thyroid cancer?
A thyroid cancer patient should have a treatment strategy that considers the lung as a typical site for metastasis.
How amenable is thyroid cancer to treatment?The treatment choices that are accessible to you will depend on your thyroid cancer's type, age, general health, or personal preferences. Since the majority of thyroid tumors are treatable, the majority of people who are diagnosed have thyroid cancer have a favorable prognosis.
Do thyroid cancer fatalities usually occur?After five years, there is a nearly 100% chance that a patient with localized papillary, follicular, or medullary thyroid cancer would survive. The 5-year survival rate for thyroid cancer with a localized adenoma is 34%. The term "regional thyroid cancer" refers to thyroid metastatic cancer to nearby lymph nodes, tissues, or organs.
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According to the textbook, a 2005 law concerning methamphetamine further restricted.
According to the textbook, a 2005 law concerning methamphetamine further restricted the sale of pseudoephedrine
It is possible for pseudoephedrine to be used improperly to make methamphetamines. In 2005, the FDA passed the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, which made it illegal to sell cold remedies containing pseudoephedrine over the counter and required that they only be sold in pharmacies.
The sale of pseudoephedrine in pharmacies is prohibited by national legislation. Pseudoephedrine-containing products must all be kept in a secure location and sold from behind a sales counter. There are daily buying caps of 3.6 grams (about a 15-day supply) and 30 grams.
This cap does not apply if the product is distributed in accordance with a valid prescription.
No person shall purchase at retail more than 9 grams of products containing pseudoephedrine in any 30-day period.
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the nurse is working with victims who were exposed to mustard gas. which action by the nurse requires correction?
If you or a coworker has been in contact with liquid from the munition, immediately seek medical attention, wash your skin and hair with soap and water while being careful not to scratch or break the skin, and thoroughly rinse your eyes for at least 20 minutes.
Following subsequent infections and necrotic bronchopneumonia, prolonged recovery after 1 to 2 months is possible (22). Shortness of breath, cough and sputum production, as well as intermittent and ongoing dysphonia, are significant symptoms of the late discovery of upper respiratory tract in sulphur mustard poisoning.
How does mustard gas damage the body's organs?
When exposed to mustard, the skin, eyes, and lungs are the first organs to be impacted. Additionally, it has been claimed that sulphur mustard is a strong carcinogen.
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a client is becoming increasingly angry while talking with the nurse. which statement reflects the nurses's appropriate use of de-escalation with the client?
"You seem like you're unhappy, and I want to know why," the nurses' effective de-escalation strategy with the patient .
De-escalation is a human behavior used to stop confrontations from getting worse. It could also be used to describe methods for resolving conflict. Specific steps must be made to prevent this escalation since people might develop a commitment to actions that tend to exacerbate conflict.
The nursing de-escalation approaches are as follows:
Don't use any acronyms or medical jargon. When approaching the patient, adopt a kind demeanor. Respectfully approach the patient and provide support for their difficulties. Utilize risk assessment techniques to spot problems early and take action.
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which position would the nurse place a client in during the immediate period after injury to the frontal lobe of the brain?
The position of head in which a nurse would place a patient immediately after injury to the frontal lobe of the brain is 30° to 60°.
After suffering a frontal lobe injury, which position will a client maintain?The frontal lobe is the region of the brain which is closest to the front. It spreads to the central gyrus from beneath the forehead. All things considered, the frontal lobe is in charge of higher order cognitive processes like memory, emotion, impulse control, problem-solving, social interaction, and motor abilities. One's body or one's face may be weaker on one side.
Any head postures greater than 30 degrees ought to be avoided. When a safe CPP of at least 70 mmHg or 80 mmHg is maintained, elevating the head and body to 30 degrees usually reduces intracranial hypertension in patients.
Thus, the patient is positioned with the head raised at a 30° to 60° angle. Recent studies have linked this method to episodes of hypotension and severe neurological dysfunction as a result, including brainstem infarction brought on by cerebral hypoperfusion and vision loss.
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Dr. Andersen attempts to bring about personal growth by using psychological techniques; dr. Bradley attempts to improve psychological functioning through the use of psychotropic medication. Dr. Andersen practices _____; dr. Bradley, _____.
Dr. Andersen practices psychotherapy by using psychological techniques whereas Dr. Andersen practices biomedical therapy through the use of psychotropic medication.
What is the difference between psychotherapy and psychotropic medication?Psychotherapy have shown to provide longer-lasting effects than psychotropic drugs. The explanation behind this is that these therapies educate you how to cope. They assist you in recognizing false or harmful beliefs, and then they provide you with the means to refute and replace them. In psychotherapy, patients discover the exact anxieties, locations, or circumstances that set off their reactions.
In addition, this not only helps the person feel better, but also gives them a safety net in case their stressors reappear in the future.
The phrase "biomedical therapy" refers to the administration of drugs to treat mental diseases. By administering medications such antipsychotics and antidepressants and carrying out medical treatments like deep brain stimulation surgery to treat the symptoms of severe depression, biomedical therapy works to improve the quality of life for his patients.
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phaedra is giving a speech about chronic illnesses among children. at one point she mentions that more than half of american children are living with a diagnosed chronic illness. because this is a startling statistic, what should phaedra have done during her speech?
Phaedra should have provided evidence to back up her statistic.
What is Chronic illness?
Chronic illness is defined as a medical condition that lasts for a long period of time, often requiring ongoing medical care and/or lifestyle adjustments. Chronic illnesses can include conditions such as arthritis, asthma, cancer, diabetes, heart disease, HIV/AIDS, and mental health disorders.
Phaedra could have provided sources, such as studies from reputable organizations, to demonstrate the prevalence of chronic illnesses among children. Additionally, she could have provided personal anecdotes from families and children who have experienced chronic illnesses. This would help to add depth to her speech and make her point more impactful.
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the nurse administers warfarin to a client. the nurse informs the client it will be necessary to monitor which laboratory test regularly?
The client is informed by the nurse that monitoring the international normalized ratio will be required when administering warfarin.
Exactly why is warfarin prescribed?IS WARFARIN A NEED?For those who have a higher risk of getting dangerous blood clots, warfarin is given.Those at risk for blood clots include those who have mechanical heart valves, atrial fibrillation, specific clotting diseases, or who underwent hip or knee surgery within the last two years.
Prior to giving a warfarin dose, what should you check?You can determine your International Normalized Ratio (INR) with a blood test called prothrombin time (PT or protime) (INR).Your INR enables your doctor to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots and to decide whether to change the dose.
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the nurse in an allergy clinic is assessing a new patient. the nurse is aware that histamine plays an important role in the immune response and that the effects of histamine can manifest in assessment findings. what response can occur as a result of histamine release?
Answer:I don’t think anyone here knows that
Explanation: half of us are middle school students who are home school
which of the following statements is true regarding physical fitness? group of answer choices the implementation of healthy behaviors alone is not sufficient to attain your highest potential for well-being. physical fitness in itself is sufficient to reduce the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health. physical fitness in itself does not always lower the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health. a high level of physical fitness in itself always lowers the risk for chronic diseases and ensures better health.
Physical fitness in itself does not always lower the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health.
What is physical fitness?Physical fitness refers to a condition of health and well-being and, more particularly, the capacity to engage in certain activities related to sports, jobs, and daily living. Physical fitness is often attained with healthy eating, moderate to strenuous activity, enough rest, and a system recovery plan. Fitness was once understood to be the ability to complete the day's tasks without becoming overly exhausted or lethargic. The ability of the body to function efficiently and effectively in work and leisure activities, to be healthy, to resist hypokinetic diseases, to improve the immune system, and to respond to emergency situations is now considered to be measured by physical fitness due to automation and changes in lifestyle.
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a nurse is talking with a co-worker who is moving to a new state and needs to find new employment there. what advice by the nurse is best
Answer:
Find a hospital that is accredited by The Joint Commission.
Explanation:
a patient is on highly active antiretroviral therapy (haart) for the treatment of hiv. what does the nurse know would be an adequate cd4 count to determine the effectiveness of treatment for a patient per year?
The adequate count of CD4 is : 50 [tex]mm^3[/tex] to 150 [tex]mm^3[/tex]
What is CD4 ?White blood cells called CD4 cells, sometimes referred to as CD4+ T cells, work to combat infection. One of the main factors determining the requirement for opportunistic infection (OI) prophylaxis is the CD4 cell count, which serves as a gauge of immunological function in HIV-positive patients.
An immunological cell that promotes the production of immune responses from killer T cells, macrophages, and B cells.
White blood cells and lymphocytes both fall under the category of CD4-positive T lymphocytes. known as a helper T cell.
Our body is vulnerable to opportunistic infections if your CD4 count is under 200. These infections are ones that the immune system can typically fight off on its own, but in cases where the CD4 count is low, the immune system is unable to do so.
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the nurse prepares to administer large-volume cleansing enemas to a client scheduled for bowel surgery. for which client should the nurse stop administration of the enemas and notify the primary care provider?
The nurse prepares to administer large-volume cleansing enemas to a client scheduled for bowel surgery. For which client should the nurse stop administration of the enemas and notify the primary care provider- breathe out in short, panting breaths.
What is enema?
Fluid is injected into the lower bowel during an enema, also known as a clyster, through the rectum. The term "enema" can refer to both the injection method and the substance that is being injected.
The most common uses of enemas are to treat constipation and to clean the bowels prior to medical examinations or procedures. They are also used as a system stimulant, as a local application, as a lower gastrointestinal series, to treat traveler's diarrhea, as a way to deliver food, water, or medications, to lower body temperature, to treat encopresis, and as a form of rehydration therapy in patients with severe dehydration.
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the nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory results and notes the serum potassium level is 2.8 meq/l. which nursing action should be initialized immediately?
In order to treat this patient's severe hypokalemia, potassium chloride must be administered intravenously.
What are hypokalemia's warning signs and symptoms?The following indications and symptoms of low potassium may be experienced:Muscles twitch,cramping in the muscles.,extreme weakening of the muscles,resulting in paralysis.
What occurs when untreated hypokalemia occurs?Severe cardiac arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and paralysis can result both from severe hypokalemia and extreme hyperkalemia if they are not addressed,If hyperkalemia is not treated, there is typically an increased risk of illness and fatality,Congestion, ileus, and respiratory failure are further symptoms of severe hypokalemia.
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What are the advantages of using genetic testing to aid in drug selection for patients? Select all correct answers from the list below.
patients likely to experience adverse reactions to a drug can be identified
when several drugs are available for the same condition, the drug most likely to be effective can be selected
the response to drug treatment can be monitored
the patient's prognosis can be predicted
The advantage of using genetic testing to help select drugs for patients is that the response to drug therapy can be monitored.
What is medicine?Drugs are substances or a combination of materials, including biological products, which are used to affect or investigate physiological systems or pathological conditions in the context of establishing a diagnosis, prevention, cure, recovery, or health promotion.
The need for drug selection according to the benefits and safety of the drug has proven safety, the smallest and most balanced treatment risk with the same benefits and safety, affordable to the patient, and the suitability of the drug to the patient's needs.
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a client with low back pain is being seen in the clinic. in planning care, which teaching point should the nurse include?
Answer:
Use the large muscles of the leg when lifting items.
Explanation:
a hospital client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes has been administered a scheduled dose of regular insulin. which effect will result from the action of insulin?
The action of insulin results in: It promotes uptake of glucose by target cells and provides for storage of glucose as glycogen; it prevents breakdown of fat and glycogen; and it inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases synthesis of protein. Glycogenolysis is promoted by glucagon, not insulin.
What is insulin?
Insulin is a peptide hormone. It is produced by beta cells of pancreatic islets that are encoded in humans by a gene called INS gene. It is said to be the body’s main anabolic hormone.
The main purpose of insulin is to regulate the blood sugar levels.
Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is a sugar that is the body's main source of energy. Then glucose enters the bloodstream. The pancreas then produces insulin, which promotes glucose to enter the body's cells, thereby providing energy.
Insulin is an essential hormone as it is required to create energy.
The action of insulin therefore results in: It promotes uptake of glucose by target cells and provides for storage of glucose as glycogen; it prevents breakdown of fat and glycogen; and it inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases synthesis of protein. Glycogenolysis is promoted by glucagon, not insulin.
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how many weeks a woman is pregnancy is usually the main factor in determining which abortion methods are practiced. the two main methods for abortion as outlined in the textbook are medical and
Answer:
surgical
Explanation:
a client is considered to be in septic shock when what changes are assessed in the client's labwork?
the nurse checks the serum myoglobin level for a client with a crush injury to the right lower leg because the client is at risk for developing which type of acute kidney injury?
the nurse checks the serum myoglobin level for a client with a crush injury to the right lower leg because the client is at risk for developing Intrarenal type of acute kidney injury.
The striated muscles of vertebrates primarily contain the protein known as myoglobin. Myoglobin is produced in humans by the MB gene. One polypeptide chain with one oxygen binding site is encoded by it. A heme prosthetic group in myoglobin can reversibly bind to oxygen. Your kidney remove extra fluid and waste from your body. A healthy balance of water, salts, and minerals in your blood, including sodium, calcium, phosphorus, and potassium, is maintained by your kidney, which also eliminate acid that is produced by your body's cells.
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hich system is recommended as a method to address patient safety and reduce errors that occur during the actual administration of medicines?
Patient safety issues are addressed and drug delivery errors are decreased using the bar code medication administration (BCMA) technique.
What patient care technology or information management systems have been employed to address medical errors?Probably one of the most useful health information technologies for enhancing patient safety is computerized physician order entry and CDS. Additionally, it appears that PDMS and ADC systems enhance patient safety in critical care settings.
Which of the following recommended practices will reduce drug errors?The most crucial tactic that every pharmacist must use to reduce dispensing errors is patient counseling, which is the final point of contact between the patient, pharmacist, and drug in the dispensing process.
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a client with rheumatoid arthritis tells the nurse about experiencing mild tinnitus, gastric intolerance, and rectal bleeding. what medication does the nurse suspect is causing these side effects?
The intake of aspirin may cause problems like mild tinnitus, gastric intolerance etc.
What is rheumatoid arthritis ?A chronic inflammatory condition, rheumatoid arthritis can harm more than just your joints. Skin, eyes, lungs, heart, and blood vessels are just a few of the physiological systems that the illness might harm in some people.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune illness that develops when your immune system unintentionally targets the tissues in your own body.
Rheumatoid arthritis affects the lining of your joints, resulting in a painful swelling that may eventually lead to bone erosion and joint deformity, unlike osteoarthritis, which causes damage from wear and tear.
Smaller joints, especially those that connect your fingers to your hands and your toes to your feet, are typically the first to be affected by early rheumatoid arthritis.
As the illness worsens, the wrists, knees, ankles, elbows, hips, and shoulders frequently begin to exhibit symptoms.
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antibody testing has confirmed that a client is positive for hepatitis a virus (hav). which statement does the nurse apply as evidence that the client understands the new diagnosis?
Anti-HAV (IgG or IgM) antibodies are markers of previous or current hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection or HAV immunization in human serum or plasma.
What should you do if you have hepatitis A?Perhaps you should:
Rest. Many hepatitis A patients experience fatigue, illness, and decreased vitality.
Be sure to eat and drink plenty. Eat a nutritious, balanced diet.
Avoid alcohol, and take medication carefully. Alcohol and prescription drugs may be tough for your liver to metabolize.
Meaning of hepatitis A immunity found ?Once your body has come into touch with the hepatitis A virus (via infection or vaccination), you create the IgG class of antibodies, which give you lifelong immunity.
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the nurse is performing a health history with a new client in the clinic. what is the most common reason for a client to seek medical attention for arthritis?
Without apparent explanation, persistent discomfort and stiffness that also results in edema, redness, and warmth.
What does medical care for arthritis entail?Rheumatologists are experts in conditions affecting the bones, muscles, and joints, including arthritis,They are skilled at treating all forms of arthritis, particularly those requiring intricate care, and performing challenging diagnostics.,If you have a specific kind of degenerative arthritis, an orthopedist might be recommended to you.
Is arthritis a serious medical issue?In general, arthritis is regarded as a chronic ailment that must be managed because it is something that a person must remember for the rest if their lives,However, there are urgent circumstances that can arise that are even connected to arthritis.
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a nurse is preparing to administer synthroid to a client. which format will the nurse expect the dosage to be written as? select all that apply.
The treatment of obesity or aid in weight loss should not be accomplished with Synthroid. Synthroid won't aid in weight loss if your thyroid function is healthy.
When taking Synthroid, what foods should be avoided?Soy and cottonseed meal-containing foods may reduce the effectiveness of Synthroid. Dietary fiber, grapefruit juice, and walnuts can all reduce the effectiveness of Synthroid. Consult your doctor if you regularly consume any of these foods. Your Synthroid dosage may need to be changed by him or her.
Can Synthroid provide me with energy?Most of the time, thyroid hormone therapy quickly alleviates symptoms. Those who take thyroid hormone therapy for hypothyroidism typically experience: increased level of energy.
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the nurse notes a positve babinski reflex during the newborn neurolgical exam. what is the appropriate nursing action?
All patients should have it assessed initially. Level of alertness, focused cortical functioning, cognition, mood and emotion, and thought content are the five components of a mental status examination.
What results of the infant's neurological evaluation?A basic battery of tests called a neurological exam provide your child's doctor the chance to see and evaluate your child's neural system while she is performing the following: condition of mind (level of awareness and interaction with the environment) sensory and motor skills. coordination and stability
Why is it necessary for a newborn to consult a neurologist?Our group assesses and manages a range of neurological issues and illnesses, such as: When a baby is born without receiving adequate oxygen, they are said to have had birth asphyxia. Neonatal epilepsies are those that happen within the first month of life. blood loss inside the skull
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many patients self-medicate with antacids. which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing it with their provider or a pharmacist first
Patients with kidney stones should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing it with their provider or a pharmacist first
What are antacids?
Over-the-counter (OTC) drugs called antacids aid in reducing stomach acid.
Compared to other acid reducers like H2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors, they operate differently (PPIs). These medications reduce or stop the secretion of stomach acid.
The following symptoms of too much stomach acid can be treated with antacids:
Heartburn, which is a burning sensation in your chest or throat brought on by acid reflux, and indigestion, which is pain in your upper gut that may feel like gas or bloating. Acid reflux can also cause regurgitation, a bitter taste, a persistent dry cough, pain when lying down, and difficulty swallowing.
Antacids usually come in the following drug forms:
liquidchewable gummy or tablettablet that you dissolve in water to drinkHence, kidney stones is the right answer
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