After being identified as having a sinus infection, a patient has been given a prescription for ciprofloxacin. The patient should refrain from taking antacids at the same time as ciprofloxacin.
What is the purpose of ciprofloxacin?Serious infections or illnesses for which other antibiotics have failed are treated with it. It is used to combat bacterial infections such pneumonia, skin, and bone infections, as well as chest infections.
Which infections is ciprofloxacin effective against?Ciprofloxacin is prescribed to treat or prevent bacterial infections such pneumonia, gonorrhea typhoid fever, infectious diarrhea, infection of the skin, bone, and joint, as well as other serious infections that are frequent in developing nations.
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client comes to the mental health clinic 2 days after being discharged from the hospital. the client was given a 1-week supply of clozapine. which client statement indicates an accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about this medication
I need to keep my appointments this week for a blood test to monitor my white blood cells is the client statement indicates an accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about this medication.
What is clozapine?The first atypical antipsychotic and psychiatric drug is clozapine (also called second-generation antipsychotic). It is mainly prescribed to persons with schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorders who have not responded well to other antipsychotic medications or who are unable to tolerate other medications because of extrapyramidal side effects. Parkinson's disease-related psychosis is also treated with it. When alternative medications have proven to be insufficiently successful and resistance to prior neuroleptic treatment has been demonstrated, the use of clozapine is advocated by numerous worldwide treatment guidelines.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that I need to keep my appointments this week for a blood test to monitor my white blood cells is the client statement indicates an accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about this medication.
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the nurse is preparing the nursing care plan for a newborn who was born via a cesarean delivery. which diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
The diagnosis prioritize by the nurse is ineffective clearance of the airway which is related to mucus and secretions. As the top priority in infant care, every newborn contact has to have their respiratory health evaluated.
What is cesarean delivery?The surgical operation known as a caesarean section, sometimes referred to as a C-section or caesarean delivery, involves delivering one or more babies through an incision made in the mother's belly. This procedure is frequently used when vaginal birth would endanger the mother or the baby.
What is nursing care plan?A formal procedure known as a nursing care plan (NCP) effectively identifies present needs and recognizes possible requirements or problems. Care plans enable communication between nurses, their patients, and other healthcare providers to achieve health care results.
The nursing process is an organized guide for providing client-centered care and consists of 5 steps in succession. These consist of assessment, diagnosis, planning, and implementation.
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a nurse is assessing a postoperative client for hemorrhage. what responses associated with the compensatory stage of shock should be reported to the healthcare provider?
The responses that are associated with the compensatory stage of shock should be reported to the healthcare provider is c) Tachycardia and tachypnea
What happens when hemorrhaging?Internal bleeding, also known as hemorrhaging, occurs when a blood vessel within the body is damaged. Minor hemorrhages, such as small, ruptured blood vessels near the skin's surface, are common and usually result in tiny red specks or minor bruising.
Tachypnea may indicate sepsis or acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis or metabolic acidosis. Tachypnea is also seen in patients with lung problems such as pneumonia, pleural effusion, pulmonary embolism, COPD, asthma, or an allergic reaction.
The correct option is C.
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Complete question
A nurse is assessing a postoperative client for hemorrhage. What responses associated with the compensatory stage of shock should be reported to the healthcare provider?
a) Bradycardia and tachypnea
b) Bradycardia and bradypnea
c) Tachycardia and tachypnea
d) Tachycardia and bradypnea
the nurse is assessing a newborn after circumcision and notes that the circumcised area is red with a small amount of bloody drainage. which nursing action is most appropriate?
Following circumcision, the pe -nis is typically red as it heals. The nurse would only use little pressure in cases of heavy bleeding.
What does red in circumcised area in a newborn mean ?The gla -ns (head of the pen- is) initially appears to have been scraped and will be red where there was a cut.
Even though there might be some tenderness in the area, it will pass after a few days. For up to two weeks, the pen - is might also show signs of redness, swelling, and yellow pus, especially on the head.
The foreskin, also known as the pre -puce, which covers the pe - nis' head (glans), is removed during circumc- ision, which is a voluntary surgical procedure. The earliest days following birth are when it happens most frequently.
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What medicine do you not take while on blood thinners please name the blood thinners.
Answer:
Medicines like aspirin, ibuprofen, and naproxen can make you bleed more. Even common products like Pepto-Bismol can cause bleeding. Therefore, you should not take these medicines while on blood thinners.
Explanation:
[tex]Have a nice day![/tex]
cultural competence in nursing can be observed through multiple examples. discuss your experience as follows, if any: respecting patients' cultural and religious beliefs that conflict with treatment plans. from where does this originate? discuss one of the nursing theorists behind this.
Now, nursing has adopted the notion as a discipline. Leininger's Cultural Sensitivity Diversity is where the transcultural nursing first made an appearance.
What are some transcultural examples?Consider immigrants to the U.s who come from various nations. These individuals frequently hail from cultures wholly apart from those of the U.s. They frequently speak a variety of languages.
Why is transcultural work so crucial?The transcultural approach enables nurses to widen their experiences and perspectives while also preparing them to provide individuals with innovative care. Culturally sensitive methods and information can boost the self-esteem of both the nurse and the patient. [2, 41, 42]
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how should a nurse prepare to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (mmr) vaccination to a 6 year old child? 1. 3 ml syringe with 23 gauge, 1" needle for im injection 2. use a 25 gauge, ¾" needle for subcutaneous (sub-q) injection. 3. prime intranasal spray for administration. 4. tuberculin (tb) syringe with 28 gauge, 3/8" needle for intradermal injection.
Subcutaneous (Sub-Q) injection requires a 25-gauge, 3/4-inch needle.
What exactly is the MMR vaccine?
The MMR vaccination, sometimes known as MMR, protects against measles, mumps, and rubella. Children typically receive the first dosage between the ages of 9 and 15 months, followed by the second dose between the ages of 15 and 6 years, with a minimum of four weeks in between each dose.
How is MMR provided?
MMR injections are subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are provided on the lipid layer under the skin. Use a 23–25 gauge needle to provide subcutaneous injections; the needle length for babies (1–12 months) is 5/8", and for children (12 months and older), it ranges from 5/8"–3/4". Two doses of a single injection of the MMR vaccination are administered into the upper arm or thigh muscle. To guarantee complete protection, the vaccination must be administered twice.
Hence, a 25-gauge, 3/4-inch needle is used sub-Q.
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a client seeks medical attention to learn why an infection has been resistant to antibiotic therapy. which laboratory test will the nurse anticipate being used first to determine if the client has a primary immune deficiency disease (pidd)?
A blood test is the main laboratory test used to determine the primary immune deficiency disease (PIDD).
What are primary immune deficiency diseases?
Primary immune deficiency diseases (PIDDs) are uncommon, immune system-damaging hereditary illnesses. People with PIDDs may be vulnerable to persistent, crippling infections like the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which raises the chance of developing cancer if they lack a functioning immune response.
How do nurses care for patients with PPID?
The identification of individuals with primary immunodeficiency illnesses is greatly helped by nurses. Nurses must deal with patients who still need primary care after a PIDD diagnosis because of the consequences of this diagnosis. Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and perform medical treatments, as well as provide emotional support to patients' families and inform the public about different health issues.The majority of registered nurses collaborate with doctors and other medical professionals in a variety of settings. Hence, the nurse should take a blood test to determine the primary immune deficiency disease.
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how many calories of energy are 25 total grams of carbohydrates including: 15 g sugar, 9 g complex carbohydrates and 1 g dietary fiber
25 grams of total carbs, comprising 15 grams of sugar, 9 grams of complex carbohydrates, and 1 gram of dietary fiber, make up each 100 calories of energy.
What do food calories mean?If a meal has more calories, your body could have additional energy. When you consume more than you need, your body stores the extra energy as body fat. Foods without fat might nevertheless have a lot of calories.
How many calories a day should I consume?According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture, adult males typically need 2,000–3000 calorie a day to lose fat whereas adult females need between 1,600–2,400 calories per day.
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when planning d.v.’s care, what goal is the most appropriate goal for the clinical problem of activity intolerance related to muscle weakness?
Enhance the patient's capacity to carry out everyday tasks without feeling overly worn out; enhance the patient's physiological health over time; enhance the patient's capacity to employ energy management and conservation measures; and Maintain the patient's breathing and heart rate while performing tasks.
What is the purpose of the nursing care plan for anxiety?Offer comforting and reassuring measures. alleviates anxiety Inform the patient and/or SO about the existence of anxiety problems. An effective treatment for anxiety disorders is pharmacological therapy, which may include antidepressants and anxiolytics in the treatment plan.
As a result, in this context, activity tolerance refers to a person's capacity to tolerate performing everyday tasks. The endurance required to accomplish an activity may also be considered as activity tolerance.
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transcendental nursing home is working on decreasing its rates of catheter–associated urinary tract infections (utis) among its residents. while reviewing data, the improvement team notices that the uti rate on floor 3 is half that of the rest of the floors. they decide to visit the unit and find out what it is doing differently. which component of deming’s system of profound knowledge is the team about to harness?
The Nursing Home making effort reduce number of urinary tract diseases among residents are caused by catheter use. The team is to utilize analyzing variation component of Deming's profound knowledge system.
How long may a catheter be used?At minimum every three months, the catheter itself needs to be replaced. Although a nurse or a physician typically performs this task, you or your caretaker may occasionally be able to learn how to do it.
What negative affects might a catheter have?The greatest danger of utilizing a cannula is the potential for bacterial ingestion. This may result in an infection of the bladder, urethra, or, less frequently, the kidneys. Urinary tract infections are this group of infections (UTIs).
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a young adult client's acne has responded well to treatment with tetracycline. however, the client has now returned to the clinic 6 weeks later with signs and symptoms of oral candidiasis. the nurse should recognize that this client's current health problem is likely attributable to which occurrence?
Oral thrush or oral candidiasis can occur as a side effect of tetracycline antibiotics.
What is tetracycline?Tetracycline is an antibiotic used to treat a variety of conditions, including acne. In fact, tetracycline, along with its close relatives minocycline and doxycycline, are the most commonly prescribed oral antibiotics for acne. Tetracycline is used topically to treat acne. Other antibiotics are more commonly used in cream form to treat acne.
What is oral thrush?Oral thrush, also known as oral candidiasis, A condition in which Candida albicans accumulates in the mucous membranes of the mouth. Oral candidiasis usually causes creamy white lesions on the inside of the tongue or cheeks. Oral candidiasis can spread to the palate, gums, tonsils, or back of the throat.
Oral thrush or oral candidiasis can occur as a side effect of tetracycline antibiotics.
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an older client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. in reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
The nurse should include following instructions : Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
In hemiarthroplasty, the native acetabulum and acetabular cartilage are kept while the femoral head is replaced with a prosthesis. Along with the femoral head, the acetabulum must be replaced during total hip replacement.
For the surgical treatment of displaced subcapital neck fractures with a high risk of femoral head avascular necrosis, hemiarthroplasty is recommended (Garden III and IV fractures).
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while caring for a pediatric client admitted with a viral infection, the nurse knows that which type of cell will be the child’s primary defense against the virus?
while caring for a pediatric client admitted with a viral infection, the nurse knows that the cell will be the child’s primary defense against the virus is natural killer (NK) cells.
Which second line defense cell type kills virus-infected cells?The T helper cell will alert the cytotoxic (killing) T cells to intervene if the invader is a virus. These cells kill host cells that are being invaded by a virus by piercing their walls, eradicating the infection in the process.
Which is worse T cell or B cell?Except for individuals with low-grade histology, the median survival duration for patients with Stage III and IV lymphomas was nine months for T-cell lymphomas and 17 months for B-cell lymphomas. It was discovered that T-cell lymphomas had a much worse prognosis than B-cell lymphomas.
What is the infectious unit of a virus?Other viruses have the ability to spread in groups, house numerous genomes within a single virion, or house several virions inside a single bigger structure. Multiple viral genomes propagating as a component of the same infective structure distinguishes these as collective infectious units (CIUs).
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you are the night shift nurse caring for a newly admitted patient who appears to be confused. the family asks to see the patient's medical record. which action would the nurse take?
Night shift nurse is taking care of a newly admitted patient who appears to be confused. If family asks to see the patient's medical record, then nurse would : discuss the issues that concern the family with them.
What is the reason for a nurse to protect privacy of patient?Family members do not have the right to receive private personal health information without the consent of the patient. Confidentiality protects information of patient once it has been disclosed in health care settings.
The American Nurses Association believes that protection of privacy and confidentiality is important in maintaining the trust between health care providers and patients.
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many patients self-medicate with antacids. which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing it with their provider or a pharmacist first
People with kidney stones should not take calcium carbonate antacids without a doctor's approval.
What is an antacid and how it works?Antacids are medications used to treat symptoms caused by excess stomach acid, such as heartburn, stomach upset, and indigestion. An antacid that works by reducing the amount of stomach acid or neutralizing it. They do this because the chemical in antacids is a base (lye), which is the opposite of an acid. The reaction between an acid and a base is called neutralization. This neutralization makes the contents of the stomach less corrosive. This can help reduce the pain associated with ulcers and the burning sensation associated with acid reflux. It can be taken as Liquid or chewable tablets forms.
What symptoms are relieved by antacids?Burning sensation in the chest or abdomen, especially after meals or at night.A sour taste in the mouth.Feeling full or full.Mild pain in chest and abdomen.To know more about kidney stone, check out:
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you are dispatched to a 60-year-old man reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. the patient has angina and is taking nitroglycerin, furosemide, and atorvastatin. you hear crackles when listening to his breath sounds. the patient’s difficulty breathing and crackles are due to blood backing up in which part of the body?
Blood is backing up in the patient's lungs, which is why they are having trouble breathing and making crackling noises.
Patient: Does it have two meanings?Both the terms "patience" and "patients" have quite distinct meanings while sharing a similar sound. The capacity to wait or suffer adversity for a protracted period of time without being upset is referred to as "patience." The plural of the noun "patient," which refers to a person who receives medical attention, is "patients.
What is your patience like?But it goes much beyond that. The capacity to wait without being impatient, agitated, or furious is known as patience. It occurs when you maintain composure rather than snapping and whining. When you take a few deep breaths and look within after something doesn't turn out the way you had intended, you are being patient.
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an older client is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. the registered nurse (rn) is completing an assessment and notes the client has dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor. which assessment data should the rn gather to determine if the client has a fluid volume deficit?
Orthostatic hypotension
When an elderly client has experienced severe diarrhea,
orthostatic hypotension may be an indication of a fluid volume deficiency.
Orthostatic hypotension, also known as postural hypotension, is a type of low blood pressure that occurs after sitting or lying down and occurs while standing. Orthostatic hypotension can make you feel woozy, lightheaded, and even faint. There may be some orthostatic hypotension. Episodes might be short.
Orthostatic hypotension symptoms are most frequently caused by fluid volume deficiency in the blood vessels. This could be the result of dehydration brought on by vomiting, diarrhea, or prescription use such diuretics or water pills.
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the nurse is planning care for a patient with a t3 spinal cord injury. the nurse includes which intervention in the plan to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia?
As the nurse plans the patient's treatment for a t3 spinal cord injury, she must include an intervention to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia helping the patient establish a daily bowel habit to prevent constipation.
What causes autonomic hyperreflexia?Spinal cord damage is the most common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia (AD). People with AD have excessive nervous system responses to stimulus that doesn't harm healthy people.
Autonomic hyperreflexia: where is it?This occurs when your nervous system, which regulates automatic functions like breathing and digestion, overreacts to doing something below the injured spinal cord. It is also known as hyperreflexia. More than half of those who have an upper back spinal cord injury do so.
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a client with a complex cardiac history has been prescribed digoxin 0.0625 mg po. the drug is available as 125 mcg tablets. how many of the tablets will the nurse administer?
The nurse administer 0.5 tablets to the clients with a complex cardiac history has been prescribed digoxin 0.0625 mg po. The drug is available as 125 mcg tablets
What does the term "drug" mean?Any chemical (apart from nourishment) that is prescribed to treat, prevent, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal state is referred to as a drug. Drugs may alter mood, consciousness, thinking, feelings, or behavior in addition to having an impact on the way the brain and other parts of the body function.
Is sweetener a drug?Although sugar is a legal chemical, there are far more commonalities between it and illegal narcotics than we might like to imagine.
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an older adult client, diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia, has been prescribed aztreonam. what action should the nurse perform before administering the first dose?
Dosage and mode of administration should be determined based on the susceptibility of the causative organism, the severity and location of the infection, and the patient's condition.
What is community-acquired pneumonia?Pneumonia is a type of pneumonia which cause breathing problems and other symptoms. In community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), people become infected in the community. It does not occur in hospitals, nursing homes, or other medical centers. Invasion of certain types of bacteria like pneumonia can lead to lung infections. This can impair the functioning of the respiratory system. What is Aztreonam?Aztreonam injection is used against bacteria, including respiratory infections like pneumonia and bronchitis, urinary tract infections, blood, skin, gynecological, and abdominal (stomach area) infections. Aztreonam belongs to a class of drugs called monobactam antibiotics. It works by killing bacteria.
Dosage and mode of administration should be determined based on the susceptibility of the causative organism, the severity and location of the infection, and the patient's condition.
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the day shift nurse in a long-term care facility has been noticing that the adult brief on a total-care client has not been changed since the previous day’s shift and perineal care has not been provided, despite the brief being full with urine and feces. the client’s perineal area is becoming excoriated from the contact with excrements. the nurse has spoken with the night shift nurse on 2 occasions about the concerns and was told by the night shift nurse that she takes care of the clients and to stay out of her business. what action should the day shift nurse take next?
The day shift nurse should report the client findings and previous discussions to the charge nurse.
we notice in the stem that the day shift nurse has already taken the first step, which was to discuss the ethical issue with the night shift nurse involved.
Since no corrective measures have been taken, day shift nurse has an ethical obligation to client to now report this situation to the charge nurse.
Staying silent will not protect client, who is the one that day shift nurse has an ethical obligation to protect. Although the day shift nurse may not want to see night shift nurse disciplined or terminated, the focus should remain on protecting client from harm.
Although the agency attorney may become involved at some point, the charge nurse would be next person in the chain of command to report this situation to.
Telling the family to report night shift nurse would be inappropriately shifting the ethical obligation of the nurse to report the situation. This could also create some legal problems that could be avoided by appropriate reporting by nurse.
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a client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin (ivig) infusion. the client asks the nurse about the infusion’s administration and its adverse effects. which condition should the nurse instruct this client to report immediately?
Client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin infusion. When asked about the infusion’s administration and adverse effects, nurse should instruct to report immediately when there is : tickle in the throat.
What is the adverse effects of intravenous immunoglobulin infusion?Serious side effects like allergic reactions or low blood counts (anemia) can occur very rarely.
Most common side effects is headache and other side effects are chills, fever, flushing, flu-like muscle pains or joint pains, feeling tired, vomiting, and rash.
The symptoms always occur within the first hour of infusion, and some adverse effects like fever or fatigue can also arise within 24 h.
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a client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed red blood cells (rbcs) as rapidly as possible. which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
The nurse is responsible for checking that the blood type match is accurate.
What does "acute hemorrhagic anemia" mean?
A disease known as acute hemorrhagic anemia can appear when individuals lose a lot of blood suddenly. Low hemoglobin levels or a low red blood cell count are indicators of anemia. Red blood cells use the protein hemoglobin to deliver oxygen throughout the body.
How does hemolytic anemia affect RBCs?
When individuals have anemia, the body doesn't produce enough healthy red blood cells to supply their tissues with enough oxygen. Being anemic, or having low hemoglobin, can make a patient feel exhausted and frail.Red blood cells are destroyed more quickly than they can be produced in hemolytic anemia. Hemolysis, or the breakdown of red blood cells, is a medical term.All areas of the body receive oxygen due to red blood cells. Anemia is a condition in which the red blood cell count is below normal. Hence, the nurse has to check the blood match.
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an emergency room nurse is ordered to administer nitroglycerin to a client being treated for acute pulmonary hypertension. which means of drug administration would the nurse use to achieve rapid results in this emergency situation?
The nurse would use IV infusion to achieve rapid results in this emergency situation
Blood flows through the lungs less easily when blood vessels there are thickened, restricted, obstructed, or damaged. Pulmonary hypertension, a disorder caused by an increase in blood pressure in the lungs, results as a result.
In interstitial lung disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the most prevalent cause of pulmonary hypertension, hypoxia-induced vasoconstriction and capillary obliteration occur. Hypoxia and uncompensated hypercarbia can raise pulmonary blood pressure during COPD acute exacerbations.
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the nurse is administering intravenous (iv) therapy to a client. the nurse notices acute tenderness, redness, warmth, and slight edema of the vein above the insertion site. which complication related to iv therapy should the nurse most suspect?
The complication that the nurse should most suspect, which is related to IV Therapy, is A. Phlebitis.
What is Phlebitis?Phlebitis refers to when there is an inflammation of the vein which may or may not be the result of a blood clot. It can be caused as a complication to IV therapy and has several symptoms.
One of those symptoms is acute tenderness around the vein, and also redness and warmth. There might also be an edema of the vein above the insertion site. This is therefore the most likely complication that the nurse should suspect.
Options for this question include:
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a client has been on sulfonamide therapy for the last six weeks. what client report may cause the health care provider to discontinue the sulfonamide?
10 lb weight loss might prompt the health care provider to discontinue the sulfonamide therapy
What is sulfonamide therapy?
Sulfonamides, or “sulfa drugs,” are used to treat the urinary tract infections (UTIs); inflammatory bowel disease; malaria; skin, vaginal, and eye infections; burns, other conditions
They work by inhibiting an enzyme called the dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS)They are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics that act against a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.Rather than killing bacteria, sulfa drugs stop infection by inhibiting their growth and reproduction.learn more about sulfonamide therapy
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a 63-year-old woman with a 3-day history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and myocardial infarction presents to the emergency room with shortness of breath at rest. she has found it difficult to walk short distances due to shortness of breath. additionally, she complains of orthopnea, nocturnal dyspnea, and generalized abdominal discomfort. she denies cough, fever, chills, diaphoresis, anxiety, chest pain, pleurisy, cough, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, rashes, lightheadedness, and syncope. she is well nourished and afebrile, but tachypnic and diaphoretic. there is a diminished first heart sound, s3 gallop, laterally displaced pmi, bibasilar rales and dullness to percussion, and expiratory wheezing noted. the abdominal exam reveals distension, with hepatomegaly in the right upper quadrant. there is 2 pitting edema of the lower extremities to the level of the mid calf, and the extremities are cool. question: what additional finding is expected in this patient?
additional finding is expected in this patient Elevated jugular venous distension Patient has CHF.
What is CHF ?A weakened heart condition that causes fluid buildup in the feet, arms, lungs, and other organs. •Symptoms include shortness of breath, fatigue, arrhythmias, and edema. •Treatments include medications, heart surgery, or transplantation. •Involves Cardiology, Surgery.
What is life expectancy with CHF ?According to one study, persons with heart failure live 10 years less than people without the condition. According to another study, persons with chronic heart failure had survival rates between 80% and 90% for the first year, but that fell to between 50% and 60% for the fifth year and then to just 30% for the final ten years.
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CSI: You are observing an elderly woman who is seeing a personal trainer as part of her rehabilitation therapy. The woman was hospitalized for problems associated with obesity and high blood sugar. She is now going through an exercise program to help bring her back to health. While working out, one of her socks rolled down exposing the lower part of her left leg. A glance at the side of her left leg revealed a large, shiny, deep, red sore. The sore had a dark margin, like tanned skin. Parts of it looked as if you could see right through to the muscle. The woman saw your face reacting to the sore and kindly said, “Do not worry about that, it doesn’t cause me any pain.” Part of the personal trainer’s responsibility is to pay attention to any pathology that can be worsened by the patient’s rehabilitation. How would you use your observation to assist the personal trainer in judging the possible physical limitations of this patient? What is the most likely cause of this woman’s sore, and how could it affect any exercise or rehabilitation programs?
This woman has probably developed a pressure ulcer, her personal trainer should inform the attending physician of this and stop the exercise until medical evaluation.
What is a Pressure Ulcer?A pressure ulcer is a localized injury to the skin or underlying tissues that occurs when there is reduced blood flow caused by pressure applied to a specific area.
What are the signs of eschar?The eschar usually appears as a superficial lesion, which can evolve into a deeper lesion, if the individual is not moved adequately. These sores can be smelly, different in color, lumpy, and may even itch.
How to treat pressure ulcer?For the treatment of pressure injuries, first of all, it is necessary to assess the tissue impairment of the affected region. Deep wounds with necrosis (dead tissue) require rigorous cleaning, performed by a doctor or stoma therapist nurse.
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the mother of a preterm newborn is comparing the appearance of her preterm baby to the nearby full-term babies. she asks why her baby's skin appears so different. what is the best response for the nurse to provide?
The best response for the nurse is : The skin of a preterm newborn is more transparent because there is less subcutaneous fat present.
How does a newborn's skin look like ?A healthy newborn exhibits deep red or purple skin upon birth, as well as bluish hands and feet.
Before the newborn draws its first breath, their skin turns darker (when they make that first vigorous cry). Vernix, a thick, waxy material coating the skin
Within the first few weeks of life, a newborn's appearance, including their skin, can alter significantly.
The color of your baby's hair may change, and they may develop a lighter or darker complexion. The newborn's skin may start flaking or peeling before you leave the hospital or a few days after you get home.
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