The ideal answer from the nurse is, "You have established a secondary immunodeficiency condition as a result of your treatment."
When the immune system becomes ineffective, autoimmune illness develops. 90% fewer T-cells are present. Disorders of the immune system can be either inherited or acquired. You are born with a congenital, or main, disease. A secondary or acquired ailment is one that develops later in life. The following tests taken by a nurse might be used to identify an autoimmune disorder: treatment for antinuclear antibodies (ANA). testing for autoantibodies. White blood cell difference in CBC with complete blood count (CBC with WBC differential). However, a person's Cd4 cell count might drop below 500 and still experience some OIs. The CD4 cell count of HIV-positive individuals increases their risk for OIs whenever it drops below 200. However,the nurse inform a person's Cd4 cell count might drop below 500 and still experience some OIs.
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a client being treated for rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed a glucocorticosteroid. how should the nurse best ensure this client's safety during treatment?
For chronic conditions including polymyalgia and rheumatoid arthritis, long-term oral corticosteroid therapy may be required.
What element lessens the spread of pain?The opioid family of medications, which includes morphine, and heroin are the most effective ones for providing brief analgesia and pain relief in clinical settings.
What is the purpose of glucocorticoids?The steroid hormones known as "glucocorticoids," which are created from cholesterol, are produced and secreted by the adrenal gland. They reduce inflammation in all tissues and regulate the metabolism of the liver, muscle, fat, and bones. Additionally influencing vascular tone, mood, behavior, and sleep–wakefulness cycles are glucocorticoids' effects on the brain.
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which is a common site for metastasis that the nurse should include in the plan of care for a patient who is diagnosed with thyroid cancer?
A thyroid cancer patient should have a treatment strategy that considers the lung as a typical site for metastasis.
How amenable is thyroid cancer to treatment?The treatment choices that are accessible to you will depend on your thyroid cancer's type, age, general health, or personal preferences. Since the majority of thyroid tumors are treatable, the majority of people who are diagnosed have thyroid cancer have a favorable prognosis.
Do thyroid cancer fatalities usually occur?After five years, there is a nearly 100% chance that a patient with localized papillary, follicular, or medullary thyroid cancer would survive. The 5-year survival rate for thyroid cancer with a localized adenoma is 34%. The term "regional thyroid cancer" refers to thyroid metastatic cancer to nearby lymph nodes, tissues, or organs.
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a patient is on highly active antiretroviral therapy (haart) for the treatment of hiv. what does the nurse know would be an adequate cd4 count to determine the effectiveness of treatment for a patient per year?
The adequate count of CD4 is : 50 [tex]mm^3[/tex] to 150 [tex]mm^3[/tex]
What is CD4 ?White blood cells called CD4 cells, sometimes referred to as CD4+ T cells, work to combat infection. One of the main factors determining the requirement for opportunistic infection (OI) prophylaxis is the CD4 cell count, which serves as a gauge of immunological function in HIV-positive patients.
An immunological cell that promotes the production of immune responses from killer T cells, macrophages, and B cells.
White blood cells and lymphocytes both fall under the category of CD4-positive T lymphocytes. known as a helper T cell.
Our body is vulnerable to opportunistic infections if your CD4 count is under 200. These infections are ones that the immune system can typically fight off on its own, but in cases where the CD4 count is low, the immune system is unable to do so.
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hich system is recommended as a method to address patient safety and reduce errors that occur during the actual administration of medicines?
Patient safety issues are addressed and drug delivery errors are decreased using the bar code medication administration (BCMA) technique.
What patient care technology or information management systems have been employed to address medical errors?Probably one of the most useful health information technologies for enhancing patient safety is computerized physician order entry and CDS. Additionally, it appears that PDMS and ADC systems enhance patient safety in critical care settings.
Which of the following recommended practices will reduce drug errors?The most crucial tactic that every pharmacist must use to reduce dispensing errors is patient counseling, which is the final point of contact between the patient, pharmacist, and drug in the dispensing process.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with acute hemorrhage from esophageal varices. what medication should the nurse anticipate administering that will reduce pressure in the portal venous system and control esophageal bleeding?
Beta blockers and endoscopic band ligation are the recommended treatments to help prevent re-bleeding.
What are esophageal varices?
Varices are bulging or swollen veins. The esophageal tube links the neck to the stomach. Esophageal varices are enlarged veins that appear on the lining of the esophagus.
Who is at risk for esophageal varices that break open and bleed?
Not every person who develops esophageal varices will experience bleeding. The following factors increase the risk of bleeding:
High portal blood pressure: The risk of bleeding increases as portal pressure rises.
Large varices: The risk of bleeding increases as varices grow in size.
Severe liver disease: The risk is increased if you have advanced cirrhosis or liver failure.
Ongoing alcohol consumption: In patients with varices due to alcohol, continuing to drink increases the risk of bleeding.
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a client with low back pain is being seen in the clinic. in planning care, which teaching point should the nurse include?
Answer:
Use the large muscles of the leg when lifting items.
Explanation:
a client is admitted to the hospital for cranial surgery. which action would the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care?
getting the client's permission before shaving their head.
Anatomical procedures: What are they?To expose the brain, a craniotomy involves surgically removing a portion of the skull's bone.The portion of bone known as the bone flap is removed using specialized equipment.
How lengthy is a cranial procedure?If you need a standard craniotomy, it can take three to five hours.The operation can take 5-7 hours if you do have an awake craniotomy.Pre-, peri-, and postoperative periods are included in this.Neurologic function is the most important post-op worry for people having brain surgery.
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the nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. the nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage? hematemesis hypertension polyuria
Hematemesis is seen by the nurse as a sign or symptom of a potential ulcer bleeding. Tactile bleeding symptoms can also include tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria or anuria.
Hematemesis can have a variety of reasons & symptom, including:
bleeders on the skintear-producing, protracted, and forceful retching of the esophageal mucosa (known as Mallory-Weiss Syndrome)intestine or stomach varices in Hematemesis.Internal bleeding can be caused by radiation exposure, gastroenteritis, gastritis, or peptic ulcers. Vascular problems with the digestive systembleeding feverOther potential non-life-threatening reasons& symptom of Hematemesis include: oral surgery, which might result in some blood being swallowed; certain nosebleeds, which can result in blood entering the digestive tract; and persistent, violent coughing.
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a nurse is talking with a co-worker who is moving to a new state and needs to find new employment there. what advice by the nurse is best
Answer:
Find a hospital that is accredited by The Joint Commission.
Explanation:
a client is at high risk for the development of rheumatic heart disease. the most important information for the nurse to provide would be:
Streptococcal infections should be diagnosed and treated quickly.
Why does the heart become rheumatic?One or more episodes of rheumatic fever, an autoimmune inflammatory response to group A streptococcal throat infection, damage the heart valves and lead to the disease (streptococcal pharyngitis or strep throat).It usually happens in children and might result in death or permanent disability.
What symptoms indicate rheumatic heart disease?Especially the knees and ankles, joints become swollen, sensitive, red, and exceedingly painful.Nodules (lumps under the skin) (lumps under the skin)Usually appears across the chest, back, and abdomen, this red, elevated, lattice-like rash.chest pain and breathing difficulties.
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the nurse prepares to administer large-volume cleansing enemas to a client scheduled for bowel surgery. for which client should the nurse stop administration of the enemas and notify the primary care provider?
The nurse prepares to administer large-volume cleansing enemas to a client scheduled for bowel surgery. For which client should the nurse stop administration of the enemas and notify the primary care provider- breathe out in short, panting breaths.
What is enema?
Fluid is injected into the lower bowel during an enema, also known as a clyster, through the rectum. The term "enema" can refer to both the injection method and the substance that is being injected.
The most common uses of enemas are to treat constipation and to clean the bowels prior to medical examinations or procedures. They are also used as a system stimulant, as a local application, as a lower gastrointestinal series, to treat traveler's diarrhea, as a way to deliver food, water, or medications, to lower body temperature, to treat encopresis, and as a form of rehydration therapy in patients with severe dehydration.
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which of the following statements is true regarding physical fitness? group of answer choices the implementation of healthy behaviors alone is not sufficient to attain your highest potential for well-being. physical fitness in itself is sufficient to reduce the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health. physical fitness in itself does not always lower the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health. a high level of physical fitness in itself always lowers the risk for chronic diseases and ensures better health.
Physical fitness in itself does not always lower the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health.
What is physical fitness?Physical fitness refers to a condition of health and well-being and, more particularly, the capacity to engage in certain activities related to sports, jobs, and daily living. Physical fitness is often attained with healthy eating, moderate to strenuous activity, enough rest, and a system recovery plan. Fitness was once understood to be the ability to complete the day's tasks without becoming overly exhausted or lethargic. The ability of the body to function efficiently and effectively in work and leisure activities, to be healthy, to resist hypokinetic diseases, to improve the immune system, and to respond to emergency situations is now considered to be measured by physical fitness due to automation and changes in lifestyle.
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The fda has approved a new gene therapy drug described as the most expensive ever. How much per treatment?.
the nurse is asking a client with arthritis questions to collect information. which questions asked by the nurse are closed-ended questions? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse can ask close-ended-questions like :
"Are you having pain?"
"Do you think the medication is helping you get pain relief?"
How do these questions help the nurse to create a proper diagnosis?Answers to closed-ended questions are limited to one or two words. These questions elicit further inquiries and assist in identifying certain issue areas. The patient has the option of saying yes or no in response to the nurse's question, "Are you in pain?" The client can respond either yes or no when the nurse asks, "Do you think the medication is helping you achieve pain relief?" These two inquiries have a set of predetermined answers. Open-ended queries are client-focused and demand a thorough justification.
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the long-term care nurse is performing assessments on several of the residents. which are normal age-related physiological changes the nurse should expect to note? select all that apply.
Exam Questions for Geriatric Nursing Rationale: Anatomical alterations to the eye impair a person's ability to see, which could cause issues with daily tasks.
What is a physiological example?
Processes that take place inside the body, usually outside the range of conscious awareness, are referred to as physiological factors. For instance, physiological causes could include stimulation brought on by caffeine, hemorrhages, or even just stubbing one's toe.
What does the term physiology in humans mean?
The science of physiology examines how the human body functions. From how molecules react in cells to how systems of organs cooperate, it addresses the chemistry and physics underlying fundamental bodily activities.
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the nurse is assessing a client with a history of marijuana use. which long-term effects are associated with marijuana? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Marijuana use over the long term has been linked to lung cancer.
What kind of job are nurses expected to do?Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and carry out medical treatments in addition to giving patients' relatives emotional support and educating the general public about various health concerns. In a variety of contexts, the majority of registered nurses work in conjunction with doctors and other medical professionals.
Would a nurse be capable of filling the position?They are in charge of several post-operative surgical therapeutic duties. Numerous surgical nursing professionals choose to specialize in cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.
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a nurse is preparing to administer synthroid to a client. which format will the nurse expect the dosage to be written as? select all that apply.
The treatment of obesity or aid in weight loss should not be accomplished with Synthroid. Synthroid won't aid in weight loss if your thyroid function is healthy.
When taking Synthroid, what foods should be avoided?Soy and cottonseed meal-containing foods may reduce the effectiveness of Synthroid. Dietary fiber, grapefruit juice, and walnuts can all reduce the effectiveness of Synthroid. Consult your doctor if you regularly consume any of these foods. Your Synthroid dosage may need to be changed by him or her.
Can Synthroid provide me with energy?Most of the time, thyroid hormone therapy quickly alleviates symptoms. Those who take thyroid hormone therapy for hypothyroidism typically experience: increased level of energy.
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a hospital client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes has been administered a scheduled dose of regular insulin. which effect will result from the action of insulin?
The action of insulin results in: It promotes uptake of glucose by target cells and provides for storage of glucose as glycogen; it prevents breakdown of fat and glycogen; and it inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases synthesis of protein. Glycogenolysis is promoted by glucagon, not insulin.
What is insulin?
Insulin is a peptide hormone. It is produced by beta cells of pancreatic islets that are encoded in humans by a gene called INS gene. It is said to be the body’s main anabolic hormone.
The main purpose of insulin is to regulate the blood sugar levels.
Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is a sugar that is the body's main source of energy. Then glucose enters the bloodstream. The pancreas then produces insulin, which promotes glucose to enter the body's cells, thereby providing energy.
Insulin is an essential hormone as it is required to create energy.
The action of insulin therefore results in: It promotes uptake of glucose by target cells and provides for storage of glucose as glycogen; it prevents breakdown of fat and glycogen; and it inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases synthesis of protein. Glycogenolysis is promoted by glucagon, not insulin.
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the finding of a 2 reagent strip reaction for blood in the urine of a patient with severe lower back pain can aid in confirming a diagnosis of:
A patient with severe lower back pain who tests positive for blood in their urine may help to confirm the diagnosis of hypochlorite.
What chemical is responsible for the positive blood reagent strip reaction?When oxidizing pollutants, such as hypochlorite (bleach), remain in collecting bottles after cleaning, a false positive result for blood on the reagent strip may ensue. A false positive result may occur if the urine is contaminated with provodine-iodine, a potent oxidizing chemical used in surgical procedures.
What causes false positive results when hematuria and hemoglobinuria are detected using the reagent strip method?If the collection container or reagent strip is contaminated with oxidizing chemicals like hypochlorite (bleach), or if the urine sample is not properly collected, a false-positive result for blood on the urine reagent strip may ensue.
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antibody testing has confirmed that a client is positive for hepatitis a virus (hav). which statement does the nurse apply as evidence that the client understands the new diagnosis?
Anti-HAV (IgG or IgM) antibodies are markers of previous or current hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection or HAV immunization in human serum or plasma.
What should you do if you have hepatitis A?Perhaps you should:
Rest. Many hepatitis A patients experience fatigue, illness, and decreased vitality.
Be sure to eat and drink plenty. Eat a nutritious, balanced diet.
Avoid alcohol, and take medication carefully. Alcohol and prescription drugs may be tough for your liver to metabolize.
Meaning of hepatitis A immunity found ?Once your body has come into touch with the hepatitis A virus (via infection or vaccination), you create the IgG class of antibodies, which give you lifelong immunity.
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the nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin using tobramycin ointment (nebcin) 0.5 inches 3 times daily. the patient currently uses pilocarpine hcl (isopto carpine) drops to treat glaucoma. which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
The statement by the patient that indicates a need for further teaching is "I should put the ointment on first and then instill the eyedrops."
What is glaucoma?
Glaucoma is a common eye condition caused by damage to the optic nerve, which connects the eye to the brain. It is usually caused by fluid accumulation in the front of the eye, which raises intraocular pressure. Glaucoma can cause vision loss if it is not detected and treated early.
Glaucoma is a chronic, progressive eye disease caused by optic nerve damage, which results in visual field loss. Eye pressure is one of the major risk factors. An abnormality in the eye's drainage system can cause fluid to accumulate, resulting in excessive pressure and optic nerve damage.
Glaucoma is a serious, lifelong eye disease that, if not treated, can result in vision loss.
There is no cure for glaucoma (yet), but if detected early, you can keep your vision and avoid vision loss. It is critical to take action to protect your vision health.
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What are the advantages of using genetic testing to aid in drug selection for patients? Select all correct answers from the list below.
patients likely to experience adverse reactions to a drug can be identified
when several drugs are available for the same condition, the drug most likely to be effective can be selected
the response to drug treatment can be monitored
the patient's prognosis can be predicted
The advantage of using genetic testing to help select drugs for patients is that the response to drug therapy can be monitored.
What is medicine?Drugs are substances or a combination of materials, including biological products, which are used to affect or investigate physiological systems or pathological conditions in the context of establishing a diagnosis, prevention, cure, recovery, or health promotion.
The need for drug selection according to the benefits and safety of the drug has proven safety, the smallest and most balanced treatment risk with the same benefits and safety, affordable to the patient, and the suitability of the drug to the patient's needs.
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the nurse administers warfarin to a client. the nurse informs the client it will be necessary to monitor which laboratory test regularly?
The client is informed by the nurse that monitoring the international normalized ratio will be required when administering warfarin.
Exactly why is warfarin prescribed?IS WARFARIN A NEED?For those who have a higher risk of getting dangerous blood clots, warfarin is given.Those at risk for blood clots include those who have mechanical heart valves, atrial fibrillation, specific clotting diseases, or who underwent hip or knee surgery within the last two years.
Prior to giving a warfarin dose, what should you check?You can determine your International Normalized Ratio (INR) with a blood test called prothrombin time (PT or protime) (INR).Your INR enables your doctor to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots and to decide whether to change the dose.
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an oncology clinic nurse is reinforcing prevention measures for oropharyngeal infections to a client receiving chemotherapy. which statement by the client indicates that teaching was successful?
The client must say a statement like : "I clean my teeth gently several times per day." to reassure that teachings of oropharyngeal infections was successful.
What is oropharyngeal infection ?Inflammation of the oropharynx is a symptom of an illness. Additionally, internal factors such as infections and antigens found in the oral mucosa and gingiva may stimulate inflammation.
the area of the throat that is located behind the oral cavity at the back of the mouth. It consists of the tonsils, soft palate, side and back walls of the throat, and the back third of the tongue.
Chemotherapy may be suggested as the sole course of treatment for your oropharyngeal cancer, in conjunction with radiation therapy, either prior to surgery to reduce a tumor or following surgery to eradicate any cancer cells still present in the body.
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the parents and their toddler present to the clinic for a well-child check-up. which differences would the nurse incorporate into the assessment since the client is a child? select all that apply.
A. Allow the toddler to make choices.
C. Administer needed immunizations last.
How assessment of child should take place?
Children and young people are assessed to determine what they know, comprehend, and are capable of doing.
Assessment is crucial for monitoring progress, determining future steps, reporting, and integrating parents, kids, and teenagers in the learning process.
Analysis includes:
The methods teachers use to encourage, evaluate, track, and plan for their students' next steps in learning.Providing written and spoken updates to parents and caregivers to help them understand their child's progress and what they can do to support their learning.formal acknowledgment of a child's or teenager's accomplishments through profiles and credentials.recognizing our kids' accomplishments through a variety of new senior school credentials that build on what they have done thus far in school.The following ways that Curriculum for Excellence has enhanced assessment:
a more seamless evaluation system that connects early learning, primary, secondary, and college education.More methods of progress evaluation to aid in learning, as well as more adaptability to accommodate different learning styles.by offering detailed profiles of each child's P7 and S3 accomplishments. These provide a crystal-clear acknowledgement of the accomplishments they have made and the abilities they have acquired during these critical phases of their lives.Hence, the answer is
A. Allow the toddler to make choices.
C. Administer needed immunizations last.
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the nurse is performing a health history with a new client in the clinic. what is the most common reason for a client to seek medical attention for arthritis?
Without apparent explanation, persistent discomfort and stiffness that also results in edema, redness, and warmth.
What does medical care for arthritis entail?Rheumatologists are experts in conditions affecting the bones, muscles, and joints, including arthritis,They are skilled at treating all forms of arthritis, particularly those requiring intricate care, and performing challenging diagnostics.,If you have a specific kind of degenerative arthritis, an orthopedist might be recommended to you.
Is arthritis a serious medical issue?In general, arthritis is regarded as a chronic ailment that must be managed because it is something that a person must remember for the rest if their lives,However, there are urgent circumstances that can arise that are even connected to arthritis.
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According to the textbook, a 2005 law concerning methamphetamine further restricted.
According to the textbook, a 2005 law concerning methamphetamine further restricted the sale of pseudoephedrine
It is possible for pseudoephedrine to be used improperly to make methamphetamines. In 2005, the FDA passed the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, which made it illegal to sell cold remedies containing pseudoephedrine over the counter and required that they only be sold in pharmacies.
The sale of pseudoephedrine in pharmacies is prohibited by national legislation. Pseudoephedrine-containing products must all be kept in a secure location and sold from behind a sales counter. There are daily buying caps of 3.6 grams (about a 15-day supply) and 30 grams.
This cap does not apply if the product is distributed in accordance with a valid prescription.
No person shall purchase at retail more than 9 grams of products containing pseudoephedrine in any 30-day period.
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the nurse notes a positve babinski reflex during the newborn neurolgical exam. what is the appropriate nursing action?
All patients should have it assessed initially. Level of alertness, focused cortical functioning, cognition, mood and emotion, and thought content are the five components of a mental status examination.
What results of the infant's neurological evaluation?A basic battery of tests called a neurological exam provide your child's doctor the chance to see and evaluate your child's neural system while she is performing the following: condition of mind (level of awareness and interaction with the environment) sensory and motor skills. coordination and stability
Why is it necessary for a newborn to consult a neurologist?Our group assesses and manages a range of neurological issues and illnesses, such as: When a baby is born without receiving adequate oxygen, they are said to have had birth asphyxia. Neonatal epilepsies are those that happen within the first month of life. blood loss inside the skull
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the nurse is working with victims who were exposed to mustard gas. which action by the nurse requires correction?
If you or a coworker has been in contact with liquid from the munition, immediately seek medical attention, wash your skin and hair with soap and water while being careful not to scratch or break the skin, and thoroughly rinse your eyes for at least 20 minutes.
Following subsequent infections and necrotic bronchopneumonia, prolonged recovery after 1 to 2 months is possible (22). Shortness of breath, cough and sputum production, as well as intermittent and ongoing dysphonia, are significant symptoms of the late discovery of upper respiratory tract in sulphur mustard poisoning.
How does mustard gas damage the body's organs?
When exposed to mustard, the skin, eyes, and lungs are the first organs to be impacted. Additionally, it has been claimed that sulphur mustard is a strong carcinogen.
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which position would the nurse place a client in during the immediate period after injury to the frontal lobe of the brain?
The position of head in which a nurse would place a patient immediately after injury to the frontal lobe of the brain is 30° to 60°.
After suffering a frontal lobe injury, which position will a client maintain?The frontal lobe is the region of the brain which is closest to the front. It spreads to the central gyrus from beneath the forehead. All things considered, the frontal lobe is in charge of higher order cognitive processes like memory, emotion, impulse control, problem-solving, social interaction, and motor abilities. One's body or one's face may be weaker on one side.
Any head postures greater than 30 degrees ought to be avoided. When a safe CPP of at least 70 mmHg or 80 mmHg is maintained, elevating the head and body to 30 degrees usually reduces intracranial hypertension in patients.
Thus, the patient is positioned with the head raised at a 30° to 60° angle. Recent studies have linked this method to episodes of hypotension and severe neurological dysfunction as a result, including brainstem infarction brought on by cerebral hypoperfusion and vision loss.
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