a 73-year-old client admitted after a stroke has expressive aphasia. which pain intensity scales would be appropriate to use with this client? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer 1

Analog visual scale, numerical rating scale It would be OK to utilize the Wong-Baker FACES scales with this client.

Which pain grading systems are employed to assess a client's level of suffering?

Most people use this pain scale. These pain thresholds may be evaluated before starting treatment or at regular intervals after finishing it.

What course of action should the nurse pursue in order to assess the patient's pain level?

The most accurate method for determining pain severity is self-report. Never rely on the patient's behavior or vital signs to replace self-report of pain when the patient is able to do so.

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Related Questions

a client informs the nurse that he feels as though he has a kidney stone again. the client is on a diet for weight loss and feels as though this may be a contributing factor as it never occurred before going on the diet. which diet does the nurse suspect the client may be on?

Answers

The nurse suspect that the client is on Low-carbohydrate/high protein.

What is a Kidney stone?

Kidney stones (also known as renal calculi, nephrolithiasis, or urolithiasis) are hard deposits of minerals and salts that form inside your kidneys.

Kidney stones can be caused by a variety of factors, including diet, excess body weight, certain medical conditions, and certain supplements and medications. Kidney stones can affect any part of your urinary tract, from your kidneys to your bladder. Stones form when urine becomes concentrated, allowing minerals to crystallise and stick together.

Kidney stones can be painful to pass, but if caught early enough, they rarely cause permanent damage. Depending on your circumstances, you may only need to take pain relievers and drink plenty of water to pass a kidney stone.

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the nurse recognizes that metoclopramide is often used in treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with antineoplastic drug therapy or radiation therapy in patients due to what action of the medication?

Answers

The nurse recognizes that metoclopramide is often used in treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with antineoplastic drug therapy or radiation therapy in patients due to It promotes motility in the small intestine action of the medication.

Medicines used to treat cancer are known as antineoplastic drug. Anticancer, chemotherapy, chemo, cytotoxic, and hazardous pharmaceuticals are alternate names for antineoplastic medications. These medications can be found in liquid or pill form, among others. Set up a consultation with your doctor if: Vomiting can persist up to two days in adults, 24 hours in children under two, and 12 hours in newborns. You've experienced episodes of nausea and vomiting for more than a month. Unexpected weight loss, nausea, and vomiting have all occurred.

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a client's assessment and diagnostic testing are suggestive of acute pancreatitis. when the nurse is performing the health interview, what assessment questions address likely etiologic factors? select all that apply.

Answers

The assessment question that addresses likely etiologic factors are:

How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones?

Etiological factors are generally defined as the non-genetic factors that have been associated with a disease.

Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas. The pancreas itself is an organ that produces enzymes that helps regulate the way the body processes sugar as well as help digestion.

Factors that increase the risk of pancreatitis are:

Smoking cigarette.Obesity.Diabetes.Family history of the disease.Excessive alcohol consumption.

Pancreatitis can also cause serious complications, one of which is kidney failure which may lead to the occurrence of gallstones.

The question above seems to be incomplete, but most likely the completed version is as follows:

A patient's assessment and diagnostic testing are suggestive of acute pancreatitis. When the nurse is performing the health interview, what assessment questions address likely etiologic factors? Select all that apply.

A) How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?
B) Have you ever been tested for diabetes?
C) Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones?
D) Would you say that you eat a particularly high-fat diet?
E) Does anyone in your family have cystic fibrosis?

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a client with chest pain, dizziness, and vomiting for the last 2 hours is admitted for evaluation for acute coronary syndrome (acs). which cardiac biomarker should the registered nurse (rn) anticipate to be elevated if the client experienced myocardial damage?

Answers

serum troponin is the most sensitive and specific test for myocardial damage.

In muscle tissue, troponin is located in the groove between actin filaments and is connected to the protein tropomyosin. Tropomyosin obstructs the myosin cross bridge's attachment site in a relaxed muscle, limiting contraction. An action potential causes calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic membrane to open, releasing calcium into the sarcoplasm and causing the muscle cell to contract. A portion of this calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and revealing myosin binding sites (active sites) on the actin filaments. When myosin binds to actin, a crossbridge forms, signaling the start of muscle contraction.

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during the eye assessment, a nurse performs part of the neurologic examination for which cranial nerve?

Answers

In the neurological examination the overall eye assessment is done in Cranial nerves II, Cranial nerves III, Cranial nerves IV, Cranial nerves VI

The optic nerve II is the sensory nerve that controls vision, or cranial nerve II.

Cranial Nerve III: The oculomotor nerve has two distinct motor functions: pupil response lets you regulate how big your pupil is when it reacts to light, and muscle function controls six muscles around your eyes.

Cranial nerve VI: The lateral rectus muscle is a muscle connected to eye movement that is controlled by the abducens nerve. This muscle controls how the eyes travel outward.

Cranial Nerve VI: Your superior oblique muscle is under the trochlear nerve's control. This muscle controls the downward, outward, and inward motions of the eyes.

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Which of the following assessment findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a child who experienced a seizure?
Neck stiffness

Answers

The correct answer is Neck Stiffness.

A child who has missed getting some vaccines and has a febrile seizure could have a higher risk for meningitis. Get medical care right away if your child has any signs of meningitis, such as a stiff neck.

What is Meningitis?

Meningitis is an infection and inflammation of the fluid and membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. These membranes are called meninges.

The inflammation from meningitis typically triggers symptoms such as headache, fever, and a stiff neck.

Most cases of meningitis in the United States are caused by a viral infection. But bacteria, parasites, and fungi also can cause it. Some cases of meningitis improve without treatment in a few weeks. Others can cause death and require emergency antibiotic treatment.

Seek immediate medical care if you suspect that you or someone in your family has meningitis. Early treatment of bacterial meningitis can prevent serious complications.

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. a patient who is diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder is isolative, does not speak to her peers, and sits through the community meeting without speaking. her mother describes her as shy and having few friends. which would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?

Answers

Impaired social interaction related to unfamiliar environment as evidenced by isolation and not talking with peers

People with schizoid personality disorder, avoid social situations and avoid interacting with others. Additionally, their capacity for expressing emotion is constrained.

Symptoms include preferring solitude and preferring to engage in activities alone; avoiding close relationships; feeling little to no desire for sexual relationships; feeling as though pleasure is beyond your reach; having trouble expressing emotions and appropriately responding to situations; and appearing humorless, indifferent, or emotionally cold to others. May come out as unmotivated and without ambitions. Doesn't respond to compliments or criticism from others

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during a shift, a new nurse spent five hours of her time observing procedures, three hours working in oncology department, and four hours doing paperwork. during the next shift, she spent four hours observing procedures, six hours in the oncology department, and two hours doing paperwork. what was the percent change for each task between the two shifts?

Answers

The assertion claims that during an shift, a nurse practitioner spent 50% of her time on paperwork, 100% of her time on oncology.

What does a nurse do?

From birth till the end of life, caregivers are present in every community, big and small. Nurses do a variety of duties, from providing direct patient care and managing cases to setting nursing practice standards, creating quality control procedures, and managing intricate nursing care systems.

Briefing:

Observation period: 5 to 4 hours

= 1 hrs.

=1/5 x 100 = 20%

Oncology hours: 3 hrs - 6 hrs

=3 hrs.

= 3/3 x 100 = 100%

Paperwork hours: 4 hrs - 2 hrs

= 2 hrs.

= 2/4 x 100 = 50%

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when administering ferrous sulfate to a patient, the nurse plans to give this medication with what fluid to increase absorption of the iron?

Answers

The absorption of iron can be enhanced when it is given with ascorbic acid (vitamin C), which is present in orange juice.

What is the purpose of ferrous sulfate?

As treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia, a drug called ferrous sulfate—sometimes written sulphate—is taken is administered.The body uses iron to strengthen its red blood cells, that carry oxygen throughout the body.Your iron supply may become too low as a result of blood loss, pregnancy, and consuming insufficient amounts of iron.

What negative impacts does ferrous sulfate have?

The stomach discomfort that some people feel, which can vary from heartburn to nausea and vomiting, can be avoided or at least lessened by taking ferrous sulfate with food.Also common are black or green stools or constipation.

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a 26-year-old female client with a skin infection has been prescribed 400 mg ampicillin to be taken orally. which instruction should the nurse include in the client teaching pla

Answers

The following instructions must be included by the nurse in the client training plan: Make use of an alternative method of birth control while taking this medication.

Compare the two terms medications.

Medicine also goes by the name of medication. Both have the same meaning. The sole treatment for COVID-19 that the FDA has approved is an antiviral. A pill is a discrete, spherical medicine dosage unit.

What sets drugs apart from medicines?

Despite what the general public believes, they are actually very dissimilar. You lose control over your body and ideas when you use drugs. Medication reverses this and gives you back control. Drugs are chemicals that control your body or mind depending on their own inherent features.

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the nurse is teaching the client how to administer insulin. which instruction should the nurse include?

Answers

The nurse should instruct the client to rotate injection site to prevent lipohypertrophy.

Why is insulin administered to the body?

People with type 1 diabetes, in which the body does not produce insulin and is unable to regulate the quantity of sugar in the blood, as well as those with type 2 diabetes, utilise human insulin to manage their blood sugar levels.

When alternative therapies fail to maintain blood glucose levels within the recommended range, persons with type 2 diabetes or gestational diabetes may sometimes require insulin therapy. By maintaining your blood sugar levels within the desired range, insulin treatment helps avoid diabetic complications.

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you are attempting to provide care to a patient experiencing paranoia when a friend mentions that the patient uses recreational drugs. you would suspect which drug group as being most likely involved?

Answers

you are attempting to provide care to a patient experiencing paranoia when a friend mentions that the patient uses recreational drugs. you would suspect  as being most likely involved  D. Stimulants

Drugs in the stimulant family boost up communication between the brain and body. They may enliven, awaken, reassure, or energise a person. Caffeine, nicotine, amphetamines, and cocaine are examples of stimulants. When faced with difficulties or long waits, as well as problems or tough individuals, patient is able to maintain composure and avoid getting irritated. Long queues are something I detest. I'm just not a patient person. The teacher was kind and understanding toward her pupils.

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the nurse screening for diabetes mellitus at a health fair obtains these results. which client should be referred to a primary health care provider for further evaluation?

Answers

Clients with significant levels of anxiety, COPD who take steroids, and newly discovered limb fractures should be referred to a primary healthcare practitioner for additional assessment.

What exactly is diabetic mellitus screening?

Regardless of risk factors, the American Diabetes Association48 suggests that all persons 45 years of age and older undergo routine screening for prediabetes and diabetes utilizing a fasting plasma glucose level, 2-hour plasma glucose level during a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, or HbA1c level.

What test is advised for detecting type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Glycated hemoglobin (A1C) testing is typically used to identify type 2 diabetes. The results of this blood test show your average blood sugar level over the previous two to three months.

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a nurse is working with a group of older adults attending a seminar on the physical and emotional effects of aging. which patient statements are good predictors of positive well being and perceived mortality? select all that apply.

Answers

a nurse is working with a group of older adults attending a seminar on the physical and emotional effects of aging In the evening, the bathroom light should be left on.

the  seminar on the physical and emotional effects of aging In the eveningThe reproductive and urinary systems' organs are grouped together as genitourinary systems due to their close proximity, shared embryological development, and common routes.Genitourinary disorders are those that affect the organs in these systems.They may be asymptomatic, or they may exhibit a variety of symptoms.They are brought on by bacterial and yeast infections contracted through trauma, as well as some congenital conditions.One of the indications of this disorder is the urge to urinate frequently. The bathroom light should be left on to improve vision and allow for investigation of these areas.

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What is the osmolarity of the fluid in the interstitial space of the renal medulla? is it the same throughout that space?.

Answers

The sodium that is pumped from the ascending tubule to the interstitial space creates an osmotic pressure in the interstitial space of 300–500 mOsm/l.

Is the inner or outer medulla where the interstitial fluid has the maximum osmolarity?

The interstitial fluid's osmolarity is significantly greater in the kidney's medulla and may gradually rise to between 1200 and 1400 mOsm/L in the pelvic tip of the medulla. This indicates that a significant amount of water-soluble solutes have accumulated in the renal medullary interstitium.

Why is the medulla more osmolar?

Additionally, urea pumps installed in collecting ducts actively pump urea into the interstitial regions.

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A two-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department because of vomiting. About 30 minutes prior, he was found by his parents with an open bottle containing ferrous fumarate tablets. The mother estimates about five tablets are missing, and each tablet contains 65 mg of elemental iron. The boy had three episodes of non-bloody vomiting. The physical examination is essentially normal except for tachycardia. Which of the following is the next best step?
get serum iron level four hours after ingestion
The patient has symptoms and a history compatible with iron toxicity. The severity of an exposure is related to the amount of elemental iron ingested. Ferrous sulfate contains 20 percent elemental iron, ferrous gluconate has 12 percent, and ferrous fumarate contains 33 percent. Iron is directly corrosive to the GI mucosa, which can lead to hematemesis, melena, ulceration, infarction, and potential perforation. For significant ingestions (> 20 mg/kg of elemental iron), especially when tablets are identified on the abdominal radiograph, whole-bowel irrigation with a polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage solution (PEG-ELS) is routinely recommended. Iron toxicity is described in four stages. The initial stage, 30 minutes to six hours after ingestion consists of profuse vomiting and diarrhea, abdominal pain, and significant volume losses, leading to potential hypovolemic shock. The second stage, six to 24 hours after ingestion, is the quiescent phase where GI symptoms typically resolve. In the third stage, occurring 12 to 24 hours after ingestion, patients develop multi-system organ failure, shock, hepatic and cardiac dysfunction, acute lung injury, and profound metabolic acidosis. Symptomatic patients and patients with a large exposure by history should have serum iron levels drawn four to six hours after ingestion. Serum iron concentrations of < 500 µg/dL four to eight hours after ingestion suggest a low risk of significant toxicity, whereas concentrations of > 500 µg/dL indicate significant toxicity.

Answers

Obtaining a serum iron level 4 hours after consumption would be the best course of action.

The GI mucosa is immediately corroded by iron, which can result in hematemesis, melena, blistering, infarction, & possible perforation. The quantity of elemental iron consumed affects how severe the exposure is. 20 percent of the elemental iron is present in ferrous sulfate, 12 percent is present in ferrous gluconate, and 33 percent is present in ferrous fumarate.

Serum iron levels should be measured 4 to 6 hours after intake in individuals who are symptomatic or who have had significant exposure in the past. From 4 to 8 hours after administration, serum iron levels of less than 500 g/dL indicated a low risk of substantial toxicity, but values of more than 500 g/dL signify serious toxicity.

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Nutrients can be classified as essential or non-essential. Which of the following is/are reasons why a nutrient could be considered an essential nutrient?
vitamin D is essential because if a child with insufficient vitamin D intake eventually receives high doses of vitamin D, permanent
damage from the vitamin D deficiency disease rickets can be avoided.
iron is essential because it promotes transport of oxygen to cells in the body.
vitamin C is essential because without sufficient vitamin C, the nutrient deficiency disease scurvy can occur.

Answers

The human body is unable to produce essential nutrients, hence they must be obtained from diet.  Thus Vitamin D is essential because if a child with insufficient vitamin D intake eventually receives high doses of vitamin D, permanent.

Damage from the vitamin D deficiency disease rickets can be avoided.

Iron is essential because it promotes transport of oxygen to cells in the body.

Vitamin C is essential because without sufficient vitamin C, the nutrient deficiency disease scurvy can occur.

What happens when your vitamin D levels are low?

Vitamin D insufficiency, or having too little vitamin D in your body, can cause your bones to become weak, brittle, or deformed. Vitamin D also appears to have a role in insulin production and immunological function, as well as how this links to chronic disease prevention and cancer prevention, but this is still being researched.

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the registered nurse is teaching the student nurse about writing nursing interventions. ' which intervention written by the student nurse indicates effective learning?

Answers

By concentrating on statistical and numerical data, quantitative nursing research (QNS) focuses with exact measurement and qualification. It also works with statistical data analysis to eliminate bias from results.

What do the terms quantitative and qualitative nursing research mean?

In general, quantitative research tests hypotheses to understand the causal or correlational link between variables, whereas qualitative research uses interviews and observation to understand a phenomenon in its real-world setting.

Which study design is most effective for nursing?

qualitative research methods

The nurse researcher must choose the qualitative research strategy that will best address the research issue, much like with quantitative research. Phenomenology, ethnography, and grounded theory are the three methodologies most frequently employed in qualitative nursing research.

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By concentrating on statistical and numerical data, quantitative nursing research (QNS) focuses with exact measurement and qualification. It also works with statistical data analysis to eliminate bias from results.

What do the terms quantitative and qualitative nursing research mean?

In general, quantitative research tests hypotheses to understand the causal or correlational link between variables, whereas qualitative research uses interviews and observation to understand a phenomenon in its real-world setting.

Which study design is most effective for nursing?

qualitative research methods

The nurse researcher must choose the qualitative research strategy that will best address the research issue, much like with quantitative research. Phenomenology, ethnography, and grounded theory are the three methodologies most frequently employed in qualitative nursing research.

a healthcare provider orders an emollient for a client with pruritus of recent onset. the client asks why the emollient should be applied immediately after a bath or shower. how should the nurse respond?

Answers

An emollient is prescribed to a patient who has just developed pruritus. The client queries why so emollient should be used right away following a shower or bath. Small, pearly-bordered wax nodule.

What is the purpose of healthcare?  

The main objective of health care would be to improve health in order to improve quality of life. To maintain its valuation or continue to operate, commercial enterprises concentrate on generating financial profit. As health care to live up to its commitment to society, it must prioritise generating social profit.

What are the 4 types of healthcare?

Let's examine the four main categories of healthcare systems in more detail, along with how they attempt to address the medical requirements of people. They are referred to as the Bismarck Model, the Beveridge Model.

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a client has a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. which body organ should the nurse assess regularly?

Answers

Considering that the client has a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure, the body organ in which the nurse should assess regularly is the liver.

an adult client who is hospitalized after surgery reports sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. the client appears anxious, restless, and mildly cyanotic. the nurse should further assess the client for which condition?

Answers

With the condition of the client in the question above, the nurse should further assess them for pulmonary embolism.

Pulmonary embolism is a condition where one or more arteries in the lung become blocked by a blood clot. Most of the time, the blood clot travel from other parts of the body (such as the leg) to the lung. Other than a blood clot, the blockage can also be a tumor part, fat, or air bubbles.

Symptoms of pulmonary embolism include:

Shortness of breath (dyspnea).Chest pain.Fainting.Irregular heart bad.Clammy or discolored skin (cyanosis).

Pulmonary embolism can be diagnosed using a CT scan or CT angiogram.

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the nurse will teach patients that antacids are effective in the treatment of hyperacidity based on what mechanism of action?

Answers

Answer:

Neutralizes gastric acid

Explanation:

the nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis and expects to note which finding that is associated with this diagnosis?

Answers

the nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis and expects to note Brown-colored urine that is associated with this diagnosis.

Glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a category of kidney diseases that are characterized by inflammatory injury to the glomerulus. A typical sign of glomerulonephritis is gross hematuria, which produces urine that is black, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine . Additionally typical is hypertension. Possible elevation of blood urea nitrogen levels. Glomerulonephritis is characterized by a mildly to severely increased urine specific gravity. Urine can turn dark brown as a result of various liver, kidney, and uti infections. Excessive exercise. Extreme exercise-induced muscle damage can lead to kidney impairment, pink or cola-colored urine or  brown-colored urine, and muscle injury.

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the nurse is caring for a client who reports pain as 10, on a 0 to 10 scale. after the administration of an opioid anesthesia, the nurse observes the client's respiratory rate decrease to 8 breaths per minute. what is the priority action by the nurse?

Answers

The nurse's first course of action was to administer 0.4 mg of naloxone, a drug that quickly reverses an opioid overdose.

What happens after naloxone is consumed?

It fights against opioids. This suggests that it attaches to opioid receptors, blocking and counteracting the effects of other opioids. Naloxone can quickly restore breathing to normal in cases when an opioid overdose had caused someone to breathe more slowly or not at all.

What is it, how does it work, and how does it work?

Naloxone binds to opioid receptors as an opioid antagonist, blocking or counteracting the actions of other opioids. Naloxone administration immediately reverses the effects on opioid drugs, allowing the patient to resume normal breathing. There are two methods of administration: nasal sprays and injections.

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From its earliest inception as a primarily compliance-type function, human resource management has further expanded and evolved into its current state as a key driver of human capital development.
True

Answers

True, Human resource management has increased and changed over time from its original status as essentially a compliance-type role to its current position as a crucial factor in the development of human capital.

Although this administrative aspect of HR still exists today, it is frequently carried out differently thanks to technology and outsourcing options. The effectiveness of HR's capacity to manage administrative procedures and resolve administrative difficulties contributed to the value of HR services & HR's trustworthiness.

Wave 2 concentrated on the creation of cutting-edge HR practice areas like sourcing, learning, communication, and pay. To develop a unified perspective on human resource management, the HR specialists in several practice areas started collaborating and exchanging ideas. Delivering best-practice HR solutions was what gave HR credibility in Wave 2.

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when a female client demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the client is exhibiting signs of which disease process?

Answers

Nipple and areola erythema are two early symptoms of Paget illness. The nipple and areola might swell, scale, and erode as late indications.

How is Paget's breast disease identified?

By taking a small sample of breast tissue and closely examining it in the lab, a biopsy can be used to diagnose Paget disease of the breast. Sometimes the entire nipple may need to be cut off. That it is cancer cannot be determined without a biopsy.

What percentage of women have breast Paget's disease?

This indicates that although there were cancer cells discovered during the biopsy, they were entirely confined inside the duct lining of the breast. It is quite uncommon to get Paget's illness. 1 to 4 out of every 100 breast cancer cases had it, on average.

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the physician has ordered a patient controlled analgesia (pca) pump for a client. which assessment finding would cause the nurse to question the order?

Answers

Due of the patient's uncertainty regarding the time and place, the doctor recommended a client regulated analgesia (pca) pump.

Disorientation is a symptom of what illness?

Delirium and dementia are two prevalent conditions that lead to disorientation. Delirium is brought on by abruptly aberrant brain activity.

It doesn't last long at all, Medication side effects, infections, and trauma can all cause it.

What causes human infection?

the spread and development of bacteria inside the body,Bacterial, viruses, yeast, fungi, and other microbes are examples of possible germs,Infections can start any part of the body and have the potential to spread everywhere, Depending on where in the body it develops, an infection might result in fever and other medical issues.

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in the course of recording patient information in the electronic health record, the medical assistant noticed that an error was made. describe the correct procedure for making the correction?

Answers

The correct procedure for making the correction is : Draw a single line through info, note recorded in area, initial and date.

What constitutes the medical reports ?

A patient's medical history, clinical findings, diagnostic test results, pre- and postoperative treatment, patient progress, and medication are all explained in detail in their medical records. If notes are properly documented, they will support the doctor's assessment of the efficacy of the treatment.

Important elements of a medical record:

information on the patient's age, sex, nationality, etc.

social assessments of people's occupations, etc.

details regarding their genetic makeup.

We currently have a medical history and a diagnosis.

a list of drugs.

a list of the patient's vaccinations.

lab test outcomes.

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the nursing education coordinator is creating employee orientation materials for staff nurses who plan to work at a clinic that serves a lower socioeconomic neighborhood. what information should the educator include regarding the clinic's client population? (select all that apply.)

Answers

Information the educator include regarding the clinic's client population are

(a) Basic physiologic needs of this population are often unmet

(b) Clients who are homebound will qualify for Medicaid

(c) Nonadherence to healthcare recommendations is likely

What is nurse responsibility ?

In order to maximise patients' comfort and families' comprehension and adaptation, nurses are responsible for identifying patients' symptoms, taking actions to administer medications within the bounds of their scope of practice, offering other measures for symptom relief.

Nurses tend to patients' injuries, administer medications, perform diagnostic tests, operate medical equipment, draw blood, perform frequent physical examinations, record thorough medical histories, monitor blood pressure and heart rate, and admit and discharge patients in accordance with doctor's orders.

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. a patient with obstructive sleep apnea (osa) is being discharged. what patient statement indicates the need for further teaching?

Answers

A glass of wine before bed will relax my airways, the patient said, indicating the need for additional teaching.

What is obstructive sleep apnea (OPA)?

The most prevalent breathing condition associated with sleep is obstructive sleep apnea. Your breathing will occasionally pause and resume while you are asleep as a result. The most common type of sleep apnea among the various varieties is obstructive sleep apnea.

How to prevent developing OPA?

Steer clear of smoking and excessive alcohol use. To lessen the effects of sleep apnea, refrain from excessive alcohol and cigarette consumption. If you have sleep apnea, the relaxing effects of alcohol on your neck muscles may make it even more difficult for you to breathe normally.

Therefore, if a patient states that he needs a glass of wine at bedtime, he needs some more teaching and should not consume alcohols and wine.

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The complete question is:

A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is being discharged. What patient statement indicates the need for further teaching?

a. I hope to lose some weight.

b. My antidepressants seem to be helping.

c. I will try the oral appliance that the doctor suggested.

d. A glass of wine at bedtime will help relax my airways.

Other Questions
Can someone help me? (again and it wont be the last) in the molecule below, which atom has the largest partial negative charge? category:bromochlorofluoroiodomethane - wikimedia commons group of answer choices cl br f i c\ Please help me with this question. I need it immediately, and it is Grade 7 math. Bryan rolls a 2kg ball across a rough, grassy field. The field slows the ball with an acceleration of -0.5 m/s^2. a. Draw the FBDb. Determine the frictional force the field acts on the ball. suppose the returns on two stocks are negatively correlated. one has a beta of 1.2 as determined in a regression analysis using data for the last 5 years, while the other has a beta of -0.6. the returns on the stock with the negative beta must have been negatively correlated with returns on most other stocks during that 5-year period. need help with this one keep getting wrong answer harmacologic therapy frequently is used to dissolve small gallstones. it takes about how many months of medication with udca or cdca for stones to dissolve? Imagine if a King from the past lived today what trends (ex: hairstyles/clothing, etc) would they be following? If 0.050 mol hydrochloric acid (HCl) is mixed with 0.050 mol of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in a "coffee cup" calorimeter, calculate the temperature change of 47.0 g of the resulting solution if the specific heat of the solution is 1.00 cal/gC and the quantity of heat released by the reaction is 8.8 102 cal. at what positive value of displacement x in terms of a is the potential energy 1/9 of the total mechanical energy? A researcher wishes to see if there is a difference in the cholesterol levels of two groups of men. A random sample of 30 men between the ages of 25 and 40 is selected and tested, the average cholesterol level was 223 with standard deviation of 6.1. A second sample of 25 men between ages of 41 and 56 is selected and tested, the average cholesterol level for this group was 229 with standard deviation of 5.8. Assume the populations are normally distributed and the population standard deviation are unequal.A. At [tex]\alpha = 0.01[/tex], is there a difference in the cholesterol levels between the two groups? Use traditional method.B. Use confidence interval to verify your answers in (A). from the gc data, assign the signals to 2-methyl-2-butene and 2-methyl-1-butene. how were the assignments made? Define inference and explain how it is used to form conclusions. Solve for b.5/b = 45/36b = ? What is the combined effect of the figurative language and allusions in this passage? an emphasis on revenge, inevitable violence, and death an emphasis on solitude and everlasting peace an emphasis on heartbreak and sorrow. A rectangular box has a square base. Its height is half the width of the base. Find a function that models its volume v in terms of its width w. What is (-3 3/4) - (-2 1/4)? A sample of nitrogen dioxide gas occupies 625 cm3 at 70.0 C and 15.0 psi. What is the final Celsius temperature if the volume is 545 cm3 at 15.0 psi? What African kingdom/s did not border the Atlantic Ocean? Would you categorize the marketing area in which frank davis is the marketing director and thomas green is one of the senior market specialists more as a work group or a team?.