A) 67°

B) 98°

C) 80°

D) 69°

Answer:

x=60°

Step-by-step explanation:

angle 135° and (2x+15)° are corresponding and thus are equal

Therefore (2x+15)°=135°

2x=135-15

2x=120°

X=60°

Answer:

You didnt show a map

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

To find how many 1 by 1 containers can fit in his storage space we must find the volume of the storage space in cubic feet. The formula for the volume of a rectangular prism aka the room is length x width x height. With this formula, all we need to do is plug in all the values given to the variables.

volume = length x width x height = 5 x 4 x 7 = 20 x 7 = 140

Final Answer: 140 one foot by one foot containers  can fit in Mr. Powell's storage space

Answer:

0.625

Step-by-step explanation:

i think it's 0.625

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+3x+2-x-1\\ \\ f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+2x+1[/tex]

Answer:

I cant see ths graph but look for one with a positive relationship between flour and sugar meaning that if flour is on one axis sugar should be on the other they should both go up by one every time

Step-by-step explanation:

The graph should say for example at 3 cups of flour that their is 3 cups of sugar. It should look upwards in growth and use whole positive numbers.

Answer:

the whole thing would be  (-5,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

1 would be -5

2 would be 4

3 would be (-5,4)

4 would be (4,-5)

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Set of events " rolling a six-sided cube and drawing 6 marbles out of a bag " have an equally like chance of occurring.

Option B is correct.

Probability of series of experiments shown below;

A. When spinning a spinner with 3 sections then probability of one section is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] .

 When tossing a coin, then probability of getting head or tail is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

So that, set A has not equally like chance of occurring.

B. When rolling six-sided cube, probability of getting one number is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

   When one marble is drawn out of 6 marble in a bag, then  probability is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Therefore, set B has equally like chance of occurring.

Learn more about the probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/24756209

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$183.20/(8 hours) = $22.90/hour

13 hours × $22.90/hour = $297.70

Answer:

sorry i need points but i hope you find what your looking for!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20 of the M&M's are blue.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{2}{3} \times 30 \\ = 20[/tex]

Answer:

13.5 is the next term

4, 6, 9, 13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric sequence since there is a common ratio between each term. In this case, multiplying the previous term in the sequence by 3/2

formula= an=a1⋅r^n-1

Answer:

45.5625

Step-by-step explanation:

The pattern seems to be x + (x/2) = y where x is the previous number and y is the next number.

4 + (4/2) = 6

6 + (6/2) = 9

therefore we continue the pattern. In doing so we get:

30.375 + (30.375/2) = 45.5625

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

6/7=x/35

35/7=5

6x5=30

x=30

Answer:

The expression represents the amount of money in the bank account after the increase is: x=1.158n.

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information provided, you can say that the amount of money in the bank after the increase would be equal to multiplying the amount at the beginning of the year for the result of adding up 1 plus the percentage of the increase, which would be:

x=n*(1+0.158)

x=n*1.158

x=1.158n, where:

x is the amount of money in the bank account after the increase

n is the amount of money at the beginning of the year

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I think this is the equation for annual compunt interest

FV = PV(1 + int)^time        PV is present value    FV is the future value

PV + Interest  =  FV

FV - PV = Interest

                           FV                   -      PV

Interest  = [3000(1 + 0.03)^30]   -   3000

              =    3000(1.03)^30    -   3000

              =    3000(2.4272)   -   3000

              =    7281.79   -   3000

              =    $4282     to the nearest dollar    <------------    Fianl Answer

Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

The unitary technique involves first determining the value of a single unit, followed by the value of the necessary number of units.

For example, Let's say Ram spends 36 Rs. for a dozen (12) bananas.

12 bananas will set you back 36 Rs. 1 banana costs 36 x 12 = 3 Rupees.

As a result, one banana costs three rupees. Let's say we need to calculate the price of 15 bananas.

This may be done as follows: 15 bananas cost 3 rupees each; 15 units cost 45 rupees.

We have,

Mary earns $247.25 for gardening.

Mary worked for 21.5 hours.

So, Mary earns per hour

= 247.25 / 21.5

= $11.5

Thus, Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

Learn more about Unitary Method here:

https://brainly.com/question/22056199

#SPJ2

Answer:

4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 1/3(Bh)  where B is the area of the base and h is the height of the pyramid

B = 20(20) = 400      h = 30

V = 1/3(400)(30) = 4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Answer:

D 6x4

Step-by-step explanation:

so i had this in a test and this was the correct answer, so i wanna help others.

  its D 6x4

Answer:

C=6.28 m | A=12.56 m²

explanation:

C=3.14×d

C=3.14×2

C=6.28 m

A=3.14×r²

A=3.14×2²

A=3.14×4

A=12.56 m²

Answer:

6 - 5 < X

Is your expression

Answer:

doge

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer: Hi i hope your doing good well the answer is 55

Step-by-step explanation: Angles one and two are complementary. So we know the sum of their measures is 90 degrees. So, to find the measure of angle two, subtract the measure of angle one from 90 degrees. We substitute in the given value of the measure of angle one, which is 35 degrees. Subtracting, we find that the measure of angle two equals 55 degrees.

 Hope i helped :)

Answer:

0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

We can calculate the probability of picking a red marble by:

- adding all the marbles together

- then subtract the amount of red marbles by the number found previously.

2 + 3 + 5 = 10

10 - 5 = 5

5 is what of 10?

5 is 50% of 10.

50% means 0.5 out of 1.

Your answer is 0.5.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day.

Answer:

C 90 ft³

Step-by-step explanation:

surface area = 2 (h · l + h · w + l · w)

The measurements of this rectangular prism is:

h = 2

w = 5

l = 5

2 (2 · 5 + 2 · 5 + 5 · 5)

Using PEMDAS, we have:

2 (10 + 10 + 25)

2 (45)

90 ft cubed

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

just divided 9 by 1/4 I think I may be wrong.

Answer:

4

Step by step:

This is if the question is saying you completed 87.5% of the exercises. Otherwise, I don't know what it is asking.

87.5% of 32=28

32-28=4

Answer:

$260,437.50

$108,750

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the complete question :

Fill in the book value at the end of year 1 under each depreciation method when residual value is $36,000 and useful life is 4 years: Depreciation method:

Straight-line           $335,250

Units-of-Output

Double-declining $217,500

Book value = cost of the asset - first year depreciation expense

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

(335250 - 36,000) / 2 = $74,812.50

Book value =  $335,250 - $74,812.50 = $260,437.50

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/4 = 0.5

$217,500 x 0.5 = 108,750

Book value = $217,500 - 108,750 = $108750