a 5.0 charge is placed at the 0 cm mark of a meterstick and a -4.0 charge is placed at the 50 cm mark. what is the electric field at the 30 cm mark

Answer:

The angular momentum of the crate is [tex]M_{C} V_{1} d[/tex]

Explanation:

mass of the crate = [tex]M_{C}[/tex]

speed of forklift = [tex]V_{1}[/tex]

The distance between the center of the mass and the point A = d

Recall that the angular moment is the moment of the momentum.

[tex]L = P*d[/tex]    ..... equ 1

where L is the angular momentum,

P is the momentum of the system,

d is the perpendicular distance between the crate and the point on the axis about which the momentum acts. It is equal to d from the image

Also, we know that the momentum P is the product of mass and velocity

P = mv      ....equ 2

in this case, the mass = [tex]M_{C}[/tex]

the velocity = [tex]V_{1}[/tex]

therefore, the momentum P = [tex]M_{C}[/tex][tex]V_{1}[/tex]

we substitute equation 2 into equation 1 to give

[tex]L = M_{C} V_{1} d[/tex]

Answer:

Coulomb's law is:

[tex]F = \frac{1}{4*pi*e0} *(q1*q2)/r^2[/tex]

First, force has units of Newtons, the charges have units of Coulombs, and r, the distance, has units of meters, then, working only with the units we have:

N = (1/{e0})*C^2/m^2

then we have:

{e0} = C^2/(m^2*N)

And we know that N = kg*m/s^2

then the dimensions of e0 are:

{e0} = C^2*s^2/(m^3)

(current square per time square over cubed distance)

And knowing that a Faraday is:

F = C^2*S^2/m^2

The units of e0 are:

{e0} = F/m.

Answer:

for the first interference m = 1   y = 2,839 10-3 m

for the second interference m = 2   y = 5,678 10-3 m

Explanation:

The double slit interference phenomenon, for constructive interference is described by the expression

                d sin θ = m λ

where d is the separation between the slits, λ the wavelength and m an integer that corresponds to the interference we see.

In these experiments in general the observation screen is L >> d, let's use trigonometry to find the angles

           tan θ = y / L

with the angle it is small,

          tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

we substitute

         sin θ = y / L

         d y / L = m λ

the distance between the central maximum and an interference line is

        y = m λ L / d

let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

     λ = 546 nm = 546 10⁻⁹ m

     d = 0.25 mm = 0.25 10⁻³ m

let's substitute the values

      y = m 546 10⁻⁹ 1.3 / 0.25 10⁻³

      y =  m 2,839 10⁻³

the explicit value for a line depends on the value of the integer m, for example

for the first interference m = 1

the distance from the central maximum to the first line is y = 2,839 10-3 m

for the second interference m = 2

the distance from the central maximum to the second line is y = 5,678 10-3 m

Complete question:

A solid conducting sphere is placed in an external uniform electric field. With regard to the electric field on the sphere's interior, which statement is correct?

A. the interior field points in a direction parallel to the exterior field

B. There is no electric field on the interior of the conducting sphere.

C. The interior field points in a direction perpendicular to the exterior field.

D. the interior field points in a direction opposite to the exterior field.

Answer:

B. There is no electric field on the interior of the conducting sphere.

Explanation:

Conductors are said to have free charges that move around easily. When the conductor is now placed in a static electric field, the free charges react to attain electrostatic equilibrium (steady state).

Here, a solid conducting sphere is placed in an external uniform electric field. Until the lines of the electric field are perpendicular to the surface, the free charges will move around the spherical conductor, causing polarization. There would be no electric field in the interior of the spherical conductor because there would be movement of  free charges in the spherical conductor in response to any field until its neutralization.

Option B is correct.

There is no electric field on the interior of the conducting sphere.

Answer:

[tex]\large \boxed{\text{3.3 cm}^{3}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Assume the stone consists of basalt, which has a density of 3.0 g/cm³.

[tex]\rho = \text{10 g}\times\dfrac{\text{1 cm}^{3}}{\text{3.0 g}} = \text{3.3 cm}^{3}\\\\\text{The volume of the stone is $\large \boxed{\textbf{3.3 cm}^{3}}$}[/tex]

Answer:

5

Explanation:

Answer:

The new angular speed is [tex]w = 6 \ rev/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the  question we are told that

      The angular velocity of the spin is  [tex]w_o = 3 \ rev/s[/tex]

       The  original moment of inertia is  [tex]I_o[/tex]

        The new moment of inertia is  [tex]I =\frac{I_o}{2}[/tex]    

Generally angular momentum is mathematically represented as

      [tex]L = I * w[/tex]

Now according to the law of conservation of momentum, the initial momentum is equal to the final momentum hence the angular momentum is constant so

         [tex]I * w = constant[/tex]

=>       [tex]I_o * w _o = I * w[/tex]

where w is the new angular speed  

  So  

          [tex]I_o * 3 = \frac{I_o}{2} * w[/tex]

=>        [tex]w = \frac{3 * I_o}{\frac{I_o}{2} }[/tex]

=>         [tex]w = 6 \ rev/s[/tex]

Answer:

Muons reach the earth in great amount due to the relativistic time dilation from an earthly frame of reference.

Explanation:

Muons travel at exceedingly high speed; close to the speed of light. At this speed, relativistic effect starts to take effect. The effect of this is that, when viewed from an earthly reference frame, their short half life of about two-millionth of a second is dilated. The dilated time, due to relativistic effects on time for travelling at speed close to the speed of light, gives the muons an extended relative travel time before their complete decay. So in reality, the muon do not have enough half-life to survive the distance from their point of production high up in the atmosphere to sea level, but relativistic effect due to their near-light speed, dilates their half-life; enough for them to be found in sufficient amount at sea level.  

Answer:

same direction = 80 (n)

opposite direction = 20 (n) going one direction

Explanation:

same direction means they are added to each other

and opposite means acting on eachother

Answer:

The gray spheres is negatively charged while the red is positively charged

Explanation:

This is because theelectrophorus becomes less positive once it pulls some electrons away from the red sphere, but, the electrophorus is replaced on the slab and recharged by grounding it before it proceeds to charge the grey sphere, thereby giving it electrons and making it negatively charged

Answer:

The gray sphere has a positive charge and the red sphere has a positive charge.

Answer:

ΔU = 2.25 x 10⁸ J

t = 104.17 s

Explanation:

The change in internal energy of the engine can be given by the following formula:

ΔU = (Mass of Gasoline)(Energy Content of Gasoline)

ΔU = (1.5 x 10⁶ J/gallon)(15 gallon)

ΔU = 2.25 x 10⁸ J

Now, for the time of operation, we use the following formula of power.

P = W/t = ΔU/t

t = ΔU/P

where,

t = time of operation = ?

ΔU = Change in internal energy = 2.25 x 10⁸ J

P = Power of motor = 600 W

Therefore,

t = (2.25 x 10⁸ J)/(600 W)

t = (375000 s)(1 h/3600 s)

t = 104.17 s

Answer:

a) 2.933 m

b) 4.534 m

Explanation:

We're given the equation

v(t) = -0.4t² + 2t

If we're to find the distance, then we'd have to integrate the velocity, since integration of velocity gives distance, just as differentiation of distance gives velocity.

See attachment for the calculations

The conclusion of the attachment will be

7.467 - 2.933 and that is 4.534 m

Thus, The distance it travels in the second 2 sec is 4.534 m

Answer:

a) yes

b) no

c) yes

d)Cart 2 with mass [tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex]   is expected to be more faster

e) u₂ = 48 m/s

Explanation:

a) the all out linear momentum of an arrangement of particles of Cart 1 not followed up on by external forces is constant.

b) the linear momentum of Cart 2 will be acted upon by external force by Cart 1 with mass M, thereby it's variable and the momentum is not conserved

c) yes, the momentum is conserved because no external force acted upon it and both Carts share the same velocity after the reaction

note: m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = (m₁ + m₂)v

d) Cart 2 with mass [tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex] will be faster than Cart 1 because Cart 2 is three times lighter than Cart 1.

e) Given

m₁=  M

u₁ = 16m/s

m₂ =[tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex]

u₂ = ?

from law of conservation of momentum

m₁u₁= m₂u₂

M× 16 = [tex]\frac{M}{3}[/tex] × u₂(multiply both sides by 3)

therefore, u₂ = [tex]\frac{3(M .16)}{M}[/tex] ("." means multiplication)

∴u₂ = 3×16 = 48 m/s

Answer:

a

  [tex]B = 0.0533 \ T[/tex]

b

  [tex]B = 0.04 \ T[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The inner radius is [tex]r = 1.2 \ cm = 0.012 \ m[/tex]

   The  outer radius is  [tex]r_o = 2.4 \ cm = \frac{2.4}{100} = 0.024 \ m[/tex]

    The nu umber of turns is  [tex]N = 960[/tex]

    The current it is carrying is  [tex]I = 2. 5 A[/tex]

Generally the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

      [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o * N* I }{2 * \pi * r }[/tex]

Where  [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the permeability of free space with a constant value    

            [tex]\mu = 4\pi * 10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

And the given distance where the magnetic field is felt is  r =  0.9 cm  =  0.009 m

Now  substituting values

     [tex]B = \frac{ 4\pi * 10^{-7} * 960* 2.5 }{2 * 3.142 * 0.009 }[/tex]

    [tex]B = 0.0533 \ T[/tex]

    Fro the second question the distance of the position considered from the center is  r =  1.2 cm  =  0.012 m

So the  magnetic field is  

        [tex]B = \frac{ 4\pi * 10^{-7} * 960* 2.5 }{2 * 3.142 * 0.012 }[/tex]

        [tex]B = 0.04 \ T[/tex]

The magnetic field at a distance of 0.9 cm from the center of the toroid is 0.053 T.

The magnetic field at a distance of 1.2 cm from the center of the toroid is 0.04 T.

The given parameters;

The magnetic field at a distance of 0.9 cm from the center of the toroid is calculated as follows;

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_o NI}{2\pi r} \\\\B = \frac{(4\pi \times 10^{-7})\times (960) \times (2.5)}{2\pi \times 0.009} \\\\B = 0.053 \ T[/tex]

The magnetic field at a distance of 1.2 cm from the center of the toroid is calculated as follows;

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_o NI}{2\pi r} \\\\B = \frac{(4\pi \times 10^{-7})\times (960) \times (2.5)}{2\pi \times 0.012} \\\\B = 0.04 \ T[/tex]

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Answer:

335.79cm/s

Explanation:

When a transverse wave of wavelength λ is produced during the vibration of a wire, the frequency(f), and the speed(v) of the wave pulses are related to the wavelength as follows;

v = fλ        ------------------(ii)

From the question;

f = 6.3Hz

λ = 53.3cm

Substitute these values into equation (i) as follows;

v = 6.3 x 53.3

v = 335.79cm/s

Therefore, the speed of the wave pulses along the wire is 335.79cm/s

Answer:

Explanation:

given:

radius (r) = 1.88 km

velocity (v) = 136.3 km/hr

required:

banking angle ∡ ?

first:

convert 1.88 km to m = 1.88km * 1000m / 1km

r = 1880 m

convert velocity v = 136.3 km/hr to m/s = 136.3 km/hr * (1000 m/ 3600s)

v = 37.86 m/s

now.. calculate the angle

Ф = inv tan (v² / r * g)            we know that gravity = 9.8 m/s²

Ф = inv tan (37.86² / (1880 * 9.8))

Ф = 4.4°

Question:

A 10 gauge copper wire carries a current of 15 A. Assuming one free electron per copper atom, calculate the drift velocity of the electrons. (The cross-sectional area of a 10-gauge wire is 5.261 mm².)

Answer:

3.22 x 10⁻⁴ m/s

Explanation:

The drift velocity (v) of the electrons in a wire (copper wire in this case) carrying current (I) is given by;

v = [tex]\frac{I}{nqA}[/tex]

Where;

n = number of free electrons per cubic meter

q =  electron charge

A =  cross-sectional area of the wire

First let's calculate the number of free electrons per cubic meter (n)

Known constants:

density of copper, ρ = 8.95 x 10³kg/m³

molar mass of copper, M = 63.5 x 10⁻³kg/mol

Avogadro's number, Nₐ = 6.02 x 10²³ particles/mol

But;

The number of copper atoms, N, per cubic meter is given by;

N = (Nₐ x ρ / M)          -------------(ii)

Substitute the values of Nₐ, ρ and M into equation (ii) as follows;

N = (6.02 x 10²³ x 8.95 x 10³) / 63.5 x 10⁻³

N = 8.49 x 10²⁸ atom/m³

Since there is one free electron per copper atom, the number of free electrons per cubic meter is simply;

n = 8.49 x 10²⁸ electrons/m³

Now let's calculate the drift electron

Known values from question:

A = 5.261 mm² = 5.261 x 10⁻⁶m²

I = 23A

q = 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹C

Substitute these values into equation (i) as follows;

v = [tex]\frac{I}{nqA}[/tex]

v = [tex]\frac{23}{8.49*10^{28} * 1.6 *10^{-19} * 5.261*10^{-6}}[/tex]

v = 3.22 x 10⁻⁴ m/s

Therefore, the drift electron is 3.22 x 10⁻⁴ m/s

Answer:

Objects act differently in a gravity field than in an accelerating reference frame.

Explanation:

The main thrust of the theory general relativity as proposed by Albert Einstein boarders on space and time as the two fundamental aspects of spacetime. Spacetime is curved in the presence of gravity, matter, energy, and momentum. The theory of general relativity explains gravity based on the way space can 'curve', that is, it seeks to relate gravitational force to the changing geometry of space-time.

The Einstein general theory of relativity has replaced Newton's ideas proposed in earlier centuries as a means of predicting gravitational interactions. This concept is quite helpful but cannot be fitted into the context of quantum mechanics due to obvious incompatibilities.

Answer:

A - The orbital path of mercury around the sun has changed.

Explanation:

got right on edg.

Answer:

v(t) = s′(t) = −9sin(t)+9cos(t)

a(t) = v′(t) = −9cos(t) −9sin(t)

Explanation:

Given that

s = 9 cos(t) + 9 sin(t), t ≥ 0

Then acceleration and velocity is

v(t) = s′(t) = −9sin(t)+9cos(t)

a(t) = v′(t) = −9cos(t) −9sin(t)

Answer:

The potential at the center of the sphere is -924 V

Explanation:

Given;

radius of the sphere, R = 0.22 m

electric field at the surface of the sphere, E = 4200 N/C

Since the electric field is directed towards the center of the sphere, the charge is negative.

The Potential is the same at every point in the sphere, and it is given as;

[tex]V = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o} \frac{q}{R}[/tex] -------equation (1)

The electric field on the sphere is also given as;

[tex]E = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon _o} \frac{|q|}{R^2}[/tex]

[tex]|q |= 4 \pi \epsilon _o} R^2E[/tex]

Substitute in the value of q in equation (1)

[tex]V = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_o} \frac{-(4 \pi \epsilon _o R^2E)}{R} \ \ \ \ q \ is \ negative\ because \ E \ is\ directed \ toward \ the \ center\\\\V = -RE\\\\V = -(0.22* 4200)\\\\V = -924 \ V[/tex]

Therefore, the potential at the center of the sphere is -924 V

Answer:

-   maximum displacement = 3.00nm

-   λ = 1.79m

-  f = 286.47 s^-1

Explanation:

You have the following equation for a sound wave:

[tex]s(x,t)=3.00nm\ cos(3.50m^{-1}x- 1,800s^{-1} t)[/tex]              (1)

The general form of the equation of a sound wave can be expressed as the following formula:

[tex]s(x,t)=Acos(kx-\omega t)[/tex]            (2)

A: amplitude of the wave = 3.00nm

k: wave number = 3.50m^-1

w: angular frequency = 1,800s^-1

- The maximum displacement of the wave is given by the amplitude of the wave, then you have:

maximum displacement = A = 3.00nm

- The wavelength is given by :

[tex]\lambda=\frac{2\pi}{k}=\frac{2\pi}{3.50m^{-1}}=1.79m[/tex]

The values for the wavelength is 1.79m

- The frequency is:

[tex]f=\frac{\omega}{2\pi}=\frac{1,800s^{-1}}{2\pi}=286.47s^{-1}[/tex]

The frequency is 286.47s-1

Answer:

The length = 27.52m

Explanation:

v=f x wavelength

Answer:

Explanation:

v= u + at

v is final velocity , u is initial velocity . a is acceleration and t is time

Initial velocity u = 0 . Putting the given values in the equation

v = 0 + g sin 18 x 3.5

= 10.6 m /s

For a skateboarder who starts from the rest, the speed when he reaches the bottom of the ramp will be 10.6 m/s.

The term "velocity" refers to a vector measurement of the rate and direction of motion. Velocity is the rate of movement in a single direction, to put it simply. Velocity can be used to determine how fast a rocket is heading into space and how fast a car is moving north on a congested motorway.

There are several types of velocity :

The pace at which a person's velocity changes is known as acceleration. This implies that an object is accelerating if its velocity is rising or falling. An object that is accelerating won't have a steady change in location every second like an item moving at a constant speed does.

According to the question, the given values are :

Time, t = 3.50 sec

Initial Velocity, u = 0 m/s

Use equation of motion :

v = u+at

v = 0+ g sin 18 × 3.5

v = 10.6 m/s.

So, the final velocity will be 10.6 m/s.

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Answer:

a)  v_correcaminos = 22.95 m / s ,  b)  x = 512.4 m ,

c) v = (45.83 i ^ -109.56 j ^) m / s

Explanation:

We can solve this exercise using the kinematics equations

a) Let's find the time or the coyote takes to reach the cliff, let's start by finding the speed on the cliff

         v² = v₀² + 2 a x

they tell us that the coyote starts from rest v₀ = 0 and its acceleration is a=15 m / s²

         v = √ (2 15 70)

         v = 45.83 m / s

with this value calculate the time it takes to arrive

        v = v₀ + a t

        t = v / a

        t = 45.83 / 15

        t = 3.05 s

having the distance to the cliff and the time, we can find the constant speed of the roadrunner

         v_ roadrunner = x / t

         v_correcaminos = 70 / 3,05

         v_correcaminos = 22.95 m / s

b) if the coyote leaves the cliff with the horizontal velocity v₀ₓ = 45.83 m / s, they ask how far it reaches.

Let's start by looking for the time to reach the cliff floor

            y = y₀ + [tex]v_{oy}[/tex] t - ½ g t²

in this case y = 0 and the height of the cliff is y₀ = 100 m

          0 = 100 + 45.83 t - ½ 9.8 t²

          t² - 9,353 t - 20,408 = 0

we solve the quadratic equation

         t = [9,353 ±√ (9,353² + 4 20,408)] / 2

         t = [9,353 ± 13] / 2

         t₁ = 11.18 s

        t₂ = -1.8 s

Since time must be a positive quantity, the answer is t = 11.18 s

we calculate the horizontal distance traveled

        x = v₀ₓ t

        x = 45.83 11.18

        x = 512.4 m

c) speed when it hits the ground

         vₓ = v₀ₓ = 45.83 m / s

we look for vertical speed

         v_{y} = [tex]v_{oy}[/tex] - gt

         v_{y} = 0 - 9.8 11.18

         v_{y} = - 109.56 m / s

         v = (45.83 i ^ -109.56 j ^) m / s

Answer:

Acceleration of the asteroid relative to the spacecraft = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]A/m

Explanation:

The maximum electric field in the beam = 2E

cross-sectional area of beam = A

The intensity of an electromagnetic wave with electric field is

I = cε[tex]E_{0} ^{2}[/tex]/2

for [tex]E_{0}[/tex] = 2E

I = 2cε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]    ....equ 1

where

I is the intensity

c is the speed of light

ε is the permeability of free space

[tex]E_{0}[/tex]  is electric field

Radiation pressure of an electromagnetic wave on an absorbing surface is given as

P = I/c

substituting for I from above equ 1. we have

P = 2cε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]/c = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]    ....equ 2

Also, pressure P = F/A

therefore,

F = PA    ....equ 3

where

F is the force

P is pressure

A is cross-sectional area

substitute equ 2 into equ 3, we have

F = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]A

force on a body = mass x acceleration.

that is

F = ma

therefore,

a = F/m

acceleration of the asteroid will then be

a = 2ε[tex]E^{2}[/tex]A/m

where m is the mass of the asteroid.

Answer:

The speed of the rod is 1.383 m/s

Explanation:

Given;

length of the conducting rod, L = 31 cm = 0.31 m

induced emf on the rod, emf = 0.75V

magnetic field around the rod, B = 1.75 T

Apply the following Faraday's equation for electromagnetic induction in a moving rod to determine the speed of the rod.

emef = BLv

where;

B is the magnetic field

L is length of the rod

v is the speed of the rod

v = emf / BL

v = (0.75) / (1.75 x 0.31)

v = 1.383 m/s

Therefore, the speed of the rod is 1.383 m/s

Answer:

[tex]\frac{50}{\pi }[/tex]Hz

Explanation:

In alternating current (AC) circuits, voltage (V) oscillates in a sine wave pattern and has a general equation as a function of time (t) as follows;

V(t) = V sin (ωt + Ф)            -----------------(i)

Where;

V = amplitude value of the voltage

ω = angular frequency = 2 π f        [f = cyclic frequency or simply, frequency]

Ф = phase difference between voltage and current.

Now,

From the question,

V(t) = 230 sin (100t)              ---------------(ii)

By comparing equations (i) and (ii) the following holds;

V = 230

ω = 100

Ф = 0

But;

ω = 2 π f = 100

2 π f = 100             [divide both sides by 2]

π f = 50

f = [tex]\frac{50}{\pi }[/tex]Hz

Therefore, the frequency of the voltage is [tex]\frac{50}{\pi }[/tex]Hz

Answer:

Q = 23.49 C

Explanation:

We have,

Electric current drawn by the air conditioner is 16.2 A

Time, t = 1.45 s

It is required to find the electric charge passes through the circuit during this period. We know that electric current is defined as the electric charge flowing per unit time. So,

[tex]I=\dfrac{q}{t}\\\\q=It\\\\q=16.2\times 1.45\\\\q=23.49\ C[/tex]

So, the charge of 23.49 C is passing through the circuit during this period.

Answer and Explanation:

There is no probability of obtaining such a circuit of closed track current carrying wire whose field of magnitude displays i.e.  [tex]B \alpha \frac{1}{r^2}[/tex]

The magnetic field is a volume of vectors

And [tex]\phi\ bds = 0[/tex]. This ensures isolated magnetic poles or magnetic charges would not exit

Therefore for a closed path,  we never received magnetic field that followed the [tex]B \alpha \frac{1}{r^2}[/tex] it is only for the simple current-carrying wire for both finite or infinite length.