The least painful and most effective site for IM injection would be: ventro-gluteal muscle.
IM injection refers to intramuscular injection. It is the administration of drugs and medications deep into the muscles of the body. This site of injection facilitates the quick absorption of the medication into the specific targeted muscles.
Ventro-gluteal muscle refers to the group of muscles present at the ventro-gluteal site of the body. It is the bony part of that sticks out of the upper thigh near the hip region. This site is free from blood vessels and nerves and has vey thick mass of muscles.
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the nurse admits a client to the critical care unit with new onset of slurred speech and right-sided weakness. what is the priority nursing action for timely treatment?
Priority nursing action while admiting a client to the critical care unit with new onset of slurred speech and right-sided weakness (likely outcomes of suffering from an ischemic stroke) for timely treatment would be making frequent neurological assessments and maintain MAP less than 130 mm Hg.
An ischemic stroke occurs when blood supply to a portion of the brain is cut off or reduced, preventing brain tissue from receiving oxygen and nutrients. Brain cells start to die within minutes. A stroke is a medical emergency that must be treated as soon as possible. Early intervention can help to prevent brain damage and other complications. For ischemic stroke, the systolic blood pressure should be less than 220 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure should be less than 120 mm Hg. The goal in hemorrhagic stroke is a mean arterial pressure of less than 130 mm Hg. The neurological assessments are compared to the baseline assessments performed in the emergency department. The 8-hour elapsed time since the onset of symptoms precludes thrombolytic therapy. The CO2 level should be kept within normal limits; however, it is elevated. The 8-hour elapsed time since the onset of symptoms precludes thrombolytic therapy. Restraints should be avoided at all costs.
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the family of an older adult seeks medical attention for the client because of an increase in inappropriate responses and avoidance of social interactions. on which body area will the nurse focus when assessing the client?
Within first day of life, the infant is typically given a comprehensive physical examination by the doctor. Weight, length, and head circumference measurements are taken before the examination even begins.
What does the term "weight" mean?
However, scientists use the term "weight" specifically to refer to the impact of an object's gravity. The gravitational force that pulls an object toward the center of a huge object, such the Earth or the Moon, is measured by its weight. The weight of an object differs from its mass.
What elements influence a child's weight?
When that comes to growth (height), everything matters, including hormones, environment, age, sex, nutrition, regular exercise, health issues, and genetics.
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the nurse should implement which technique when assessing for jaundice in a dark-skinned client diagnosed with liver disease?
Examination techniques applied by nurses to dark-skinned clients with liver disease are to perform liver biopsies and function tests.
What is liver disease?Liver disease is a disorder of the function and physiology of the liver. Liver or liver is right under the ribs on the right side of your abdomen. This organ consists of two parts, namely the left lobe and the right lobe.
Impaired liver function can be caused by many things. The cause of liver pain can be initiated by a viral infection or alcohol abuse, such as excessive alcohol consumption. Obesity also has a close relationship with liver disease.
If someone experiences changes in skin color to dark, it is possible that they have liver problems. To find out, liver function tests and a biopsy are needed.
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a nurse manager is preparing to implement ebp on the unit. which factor can the nurse prioritize as the most important rationale for the consistent implementation of ebp?
The nurse should prioritize the fact that EBP improves patient outcomes as the primary argument for continuing to use it.
Through the EBP process, the most recent scientific data is reviewed, analyzed, and translated. To enable nurses to make knowledgeable decisions on patient care, the goal is to rapidly combine the most pertinent research, clinical expertise, and patient preferences into clinical practice. EBP is the cornerstone of clinical practice.
The standard of care and patient outcomes in nursing practice are improved through EBP integration. Studies have demonstrated that in terms of care quality, patient outcomes, cost, and nurse satisfaction, evidence-based practice (EBP) is superior than conventional treatment.
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pyridostigmine is prescribed for a client with myasthenia gravis. why would the nurse instruct the client to take pyridostigmine about 1 hour before meals?
Pyridostigmine can be used by patients with certain muscular diseases to improve their muscle strength (myasthenia gravis). It works by preventing the natural chemical acetylcholine from degrading in your body. Acetylcholine is required for muscles to function normally.
How soon does pyridostigmine start working?The effects of the tablets start working after 30 to 60 minutes and last for about 4-6 hours. Take the pills at regular intervals to make sure your muscles are at their strongest when you need to be most active.
What happens after taking pyridostigmine?You can experience diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, cramping in the abdomen, increased saliva or sweating, a runny nose, smaller pupils, or increased urine. If any of these effects stay the same or get worse.
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identify the independent variable and the dependent variable. a medical researcher determined that eating hot peppers reduces blood pressure.
This independent variable in this scenario is "eating hot peppers," and the dependent variable is "blood pressure."
When is the blood pressure at its maximum during the day?Blood pressure changes on a daily. The person's blood pressure often starts to rise just few minutes before their awaken. It continues to rise all day long, peaking at midday. Typically, blood pressure drops in the late afternoon into early evening.
How accurate are home blood pressure monitors?The accuracy of home blood pressure monitors, however, isn't always what it should be. Depending on the accuracy level employed, blood pressure monitors could be erroneous in 5% to 15% of individuals, according to Dr. Mr. sunil Hiremath, a kidney expert at Ottawa University in Canada.
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a client in active labor is rushed from the emergency department to the labor and birth suite screaming, 'knock me out!' examination reveals that her cervix is dilated 9 cm and 100% effaced. which would the nurse say while trying to calm the client?
While attempting to calm the client, the nurse should warn that the drug may impair with the baby's initial breaths and to keep breathing. Hence option 'd' is correct.
What is the purpose of medication?Medicines are chemicals or substances that cure, halt, or prevent disease, lessen symptoms, or help with disease diagnosis. Doctors can now save and treat numerous diseases thanks to modern medicine.
Why is medication beneficial to you?Reduced blood pressure, the treatment of infections, and pain relief are a few examples of how drugs are beneficial. There is a chance that something unfavorable or unexpected possibly happen to you when you use a drug.
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The complete question is -
A client in active labor is rushed from the emergency department to the labor and birth suite screaming, "Knock me out!" Examination reveals that her cervix is dilated 9 cm and 100% effaced. What should the nurse say while trying to calm the client?
a) "I'll rub your back—that will help ease your pain."
b) "You'll get a shot when you reach the birthing room."
c) "I'm sure you're in pain, but try to bear with it for the baby's sake."
d) "Medication may interfere with the baby's first breaths; keep breathing."
in the mid-1990s, medical treatment for aids in the united states select one: a. failed to significantly improve the health of most patients. b. allowed for dramatic improvement for most patients through protease inhibitors. c. had made few advances since the mid-1980s. d. led researchers to claim they had found a cure. e. eliminated the disease entirely.
Through the use of protease inhibitors, medical treatment with AIDS in the United States allowed for a substantial improvement for the majority of patients by the mid-1990s.
What are inhibitors give example?An inhibitor in chemistry has the ability to dampen, stop, or slow down an activity. For instance, antifreeze acts as an inhibitor in an automobile engine by preventing or delaying the production of ice. For certain processes and activities, different chemicals function as inhibitors.
What is inhibitors in biology?The substance or even a macromolecule that inhibits an enzyme's activity in enzymology by reversible attachment that prevents the substrate from binding (competitive inhibition) or by stopping the reaction even while the substrates still can bind (non-competitive inhibition).
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a client with tetraplegia complains bitterly about the nurse's slow response to the call light and the rigidity of the therapy schedule. which interpretation of this behavior would serve as a basis for planning nursing care?
The head of the bed should be elevated by 30 degrees for patients who have had supratentorial surgery to encourage venous draining from the head.
How should the caregiver place the patient whose intraocular pressure ( iop is high and making them drowsy after a recent craniotomy?The client's head should be held in a neutral midline posture with the increased intracranial pressure. The client's neck should not be bent, extended, or rotated in any way by the nurse. It is recommended to raise the bed's head by 30 to 45 inches.
What should the nurse do to treat a patient who might have a skull fracture?Using sterile gauze, apply tight pressure to the wound. a spotless cloth. If you think there may be a skull fracture, however, avoid putting direct pressure on the wound. Awareness and respiratory patterns to watch for. Start CPR if the person is not breathing, coughing, or otherwise demonstrating indications of circulation.
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a client with a history of intolerance to fatty foods is admitted to the hospital with a sudden onset of severe right upper quadrant pain radiating to the right shoulder. what should be included in the nurse's initial focused assessment of this client?
Stools that are clay-colored indicate biliary blockage and are caused by a shortage of bile. The feces gets a deeper shade from the bile. The client's description of feces will provide the nurse with extra information and is open-ended.
What role does bile play in the body?The liver cells release bile, a greenish-yellow fluid made up of cholesterol, waste products, and bile salts, to serve two main purposes: to transport trash away. to digest fats by breaking them down.
What occurs when there is too much bile?Watery stools, urgency, and fecal incontinence are common symptoms of bile acid malabsorption (BAM), which can be brought on by an excessive amount of bile acids entering the colon. Despite the fact that BAM has been connected to diarrhea for about
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which intervention would the nurse plan to implement for a school-aged child with autism spectrum disorder (asd) who has been hospitalized for some tests?
Provide appropriate play-based stimulation, Putting the kid in a room by themselves, urging staff to check in with the youngster frequently and provide thorough explanations of the upcoming examinations.
Which objective would be the youngster with autism spectrum disorder's top priority?Improve fundamental social communication and social interaction impairments, reduce the negative effects of restricted behaviors, and ultimately support children in gaining more independence and functional abilities are the main objectives of ASD treatment.
With a child who has an intellectual handicap, what task would the school nurse complete?The school nurse's duties for a student with a disability include identifying the necessary health accommodations, outlining a plan of care, offering nursing services, and assessing the health-related elements of the IEP and/or 504 Plan.
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the nurse is documenting a teaching session with a client. which nursing documentation is the most appropriate and detailed?
Since anxiety is a common symptom of depression, it is most likely to blame for the client's behavior.
This is described as a mental illness that affects how people act or think. Additional traits include a low mood and a loss of interest in a number of socially acceptable activities . It was considered that this response was the finest since those who are known to be sad show uneasiness and don't maintain eye contact for long compared to other persons who aren't affected by this sickness.
The most popular kind of therapy is eye drops on prescription. They ease eye strain and guard your optic nerve from harm. laser therapy Doctors can assist patients by using lasers. Early intramuscular (IM) epinephrine injection is the main course of therapy for anaphylaxis because there is no recognized alternative. Administration of epinephrine in anaphylaxis is not prohibited.
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the nurse assists a client who has had a stroke affecting the left side causing difficulty moving the hand and fingers. which range-of-motion exercise(s) will the nurse use? select all that apply.
Spreading out the fingers, The nurse will employ finger range-of-motion exercises such as flexion, adduction, and abduction.
What are the 5 warning signs of a stroke?When any of these indications of a stroke arise, dial 9-1-1 right away: A strong headache with no apparent cause, numbness and weakness inside the face, arm, or leg, confusion or difficulty hearing or understanding speech, difficulty seeing out of one or both eyes, difficulty walking or feeling dizzy.
What happens to you when you have a stroke?Brain activity is lost when brain cells are destroyed. It's possible that you won't be able to perform tasks that require that section of your brain. For instance, a stroke may impair your capacity for movement, speech, eating, thinking, and remembering.
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A client's blood glucose us 23. The client is unresponsive and unable to swallow. What priority action should be taken to increase the blood glucose rapidly?
According to the research, the correct answer is Option 3. The administration of a glucagon injection is the priority action that should be taken to increase the blood glucose rapidly.
What is hypoglycemia?It is the clinical syndrome or a condition characterized by low glucose, that is, it appears in those situations in which blood glucose concentrations are below normal.
In this sense, Glucagon is a natural hormone, which has the opposite effect to that of insulin in the human body, which is used when, in cases of severe hypoglycemia, children and adults with diabetes are unable to take sugar orally. This hormone helps the liver break something called “glycogen” into glucose (sugar).
Therefore, in case of severe hypoglycemia in which the person is unable to swallow, glucagon should be administered as a subcutaneous or intramuscular injection.
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the nurse recommends that, when in bed, a client who has osteoarthritis should lie in the supine or prone position. the client states that these positions are uncomfortable for the knees and hips. which action would the nurse take?
Learn with Quizlet and retain terms from flashcards such as An arthritic patient is admitted to hospital for a prospective hip replacement to be assessed.
A hospital is what?
A hospital is what? A hospital is a type of healthcare facility that offers patients professional nursing and medical services as well as medicinal supplies.
E-hospital: What is it?
e-Hospital is a workflow-based, integrated HMIS that runs on the cloud. It is a general application that covers all of a hospital's key functional areas. The e-Hospital application's patient registration module is used to schedule, confirm, and cancel appointments as well as register patients in the OPD and Trauma departments.
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hypoxemia triggers the production of erythropoietin. erythropoietin increased the rate of erythropoiesis. this an example of ?
Negative feedback control
Hypoxemia triggers the production of erythropoietin. erythropoietin increased the rate of erythropoiesis. This an example of negative feedback.
What do you mean by negative feedback?A negative feedback mechanism, often known as negative feedback homeostasis, is a pathway that is triggered by a deviation in output and produces changes in output in the opposite direction of the initial deviation.
Also known as an inhibitory loop, a negative feedback loop allows the body to regulate itself. The process starts when there is an increase in output from a body system, which results in higher levels of certain proteins or hormones.
Another example of negative feedback is the regulation of the blood calcium level. The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone, which regulates the level of calcium in the blood. If calcium decreases, the parathyroid glands sense the decrease and secrete more parathyroid hormone.
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the nurse is caring for a 5-year-old in a clinic setting. the child is due for a scheduled immunization. which approach is the best for the nurse to take when administering the im injection?
The child is due for a scheduled immunization. the best for the nurse to take Allow the child to pick which arm the injection will go in.
What are the 3 types of injections?The three main routes are intradermal injection, subcutaneous injection and intramuscular injection. Each type targets a different skin layer: Subcutaneous injections are administered in the fat layer, underneath the skin. Intramuscular injections are delivered into the muscle.
What is injection and types of injection?An injection (often and usually referred to as a "shot" in US English, a "jab" in UK English, or a "jag" in Scottish English and Scots) is the act of administering a liquid, especially a drug, into a person's body using a needle and a syringe.
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a patient is put on a medication at 20 mg per day the first week
What are the side effects of citalopram 20 mg?
Citalopram is a member of the SSRI class of antidepressants (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). Treatments using citalopram include: . Agoraphobia and other panic disorders include a dread of crowds or wide-open places.
What are citalopram's harmful side effects?
Hallucinations, lack of coordination, severe muscle stiffness or twitching, fever, sweating, confusion, fast or irregular heartbeat, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. blisters or hives, or coma (loss of consciousness). rash.
What occurs if I cease citalopram use?
Irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headaches, and/or paresthesias are only a few withdrawal symptoms that could occur if you stop taking citalopram suddenly (, tingling sensation on the skin).
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at her prenatal visit a client reports that she cannot find any shoes that are comfortable. assessment of her legs reveals dependent edema. the nurse suggests that the client attempt which actions to help reduce the edema? select all that apply.
The actions which help to reduce the edema are elevating feet and legs when sitting or lying, Avoiding foods high in sodium, sugar, and fats, and Drinking 6 to 8 glasses of water each day.
Why is the first prenatal appointment always the longest?In most cases, the first prenatal visit is the longest, barring pregnancy difficulties. Your doctor will obtain a medical history during this session, as well as measure your blood pressure, and weight, and do blood tests.
What three tests are performed during a prenatal visit?During pregnancy, the following screening techniques are available: either the multiple marker test or the AFP test. Amniocentesis. sample of chorionic villus.
What method of prenatal evaluation is most common?The ultrasound examination can be used to determine the fetus' gestational age and whether its rate of growth is suitable, count the number of kids being carried, check the location, structure, and blood flow of the placenta, and – most critically – allow a physical examination of the fetus.
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the nurse is caring for a client on mechanical ventilation with a brain injury. arterial blood gas values indicate a paco2 of 60 mm hg. the nurse understands this value to have which effect on cerebral blood flow? group of answer choices
Osmotic diuretics increase urine flow and drain water from healthy brain cells, which lowers ICP and raises CPP. Both the ICP and CPP are within acceptable ranges at 10 and 70 mm Hg, respectively.
I have how many brain cells?Neuroscientists once believed that the human brain comprised 100 billion nerve cells. Suzana Herculano-Houzel, a neurologist, developed a novel method to count brain cells, and her result was a different number: 86 billion.
Are brain cells regenerative?The fact that brain cells DO renew over the course of your life is one of the most fascinating and significant recent findings. We now understand that neurogenesis, or the growth of new brain cells, is not only conceivable but also occurs often.
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a nurse has permission from the homebound client to educate any of the family members about providing care for the client. which family member is the most appropriate choice?
The homebound client has given the nurse permission to instruct any family members. The client is told by the nurse that giving up smoking will lower their risk of developing cancer.
Describe cancer?A very serious illness wherein cells in one area of the body begin to proliferate and develop lumps in an abnormal manner.
Cancer comes in a variety of forms. Cancer is named by the region of the body in which it first appeared and can appear anywhere in the body. For instance, even if breast cancer that originates in the breast spreads metastasizes to certain other parts of the body, it is still referred to as breast cancer.
A cancer cell is what?Solid tumours are created by the uncontrollably dividing cancer cells.
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nursing students are learning about assessment of the head and neck. what cultural considerations would the students learn to assess in relation to this area? (select all that apply.)
Assessment of the head and neck is a topic that nursing students are learning about. The students learn to evaluate the cultural factors in relation to options(c),(d), and(e)i.e, the shape of the lips, the shape of the nose, and the shape of the eyes.
“Head and neck malignancy” is a healing term used to depict a number of various diseased tumors that cultivate in or about the neck, neck, nose, sinuses, and mouth. Most head and narrow connector cancers are squamous container carcinomas. This type of tumor starts in flat squamous containers.
Begin by inspecting the left skin color and symmetry of the first shifts, noticing some drooping. If drooping is noted, request the patient to beam, frown, raise their eyebrows, and see for symmetrical activity. Note the attendance of previous harms or deformities.
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The Complete question is:
Nursing students are learning about the assessment of the head and neck. What cultural considerations would the students learn to assess in relation to this area? (Select all that apply.)
a) The shape of the ears,
b) The shape of the chin,
c) The shape of the lips,
d) The shape of the nose,
e) The shape of the eyes
a potentially serious complication of appendicitis is peritonitis. which changes in assessment data compared with admission values would indicate the development of this complication and thus should be monitored for by the nurse? (select all that apply.)
White blood cell (WBC) count rising to 24,000 cells per milliliter. 37.8 C temperature increase (100 F)
What are white blood cells used for?The immune system includes white blood cells. They improve the body's natural defenses against illness and infection. Lymphocytes, monocytes, or granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils) are different types of white blood cells (T cells and B cells).
What conditions result in elevated white blood cells?Response to infection is, overall, the most frequent reason for a high white blood cell count. Leukemia is another another probable reason for a high white blood cell count. This is essentially a malignant alteration of the bone marrow and blood that results in a marked overproduction of white blood cells.
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a young couple is having difficulty getting pregnant. the nurse is preparing the couple for the initial tests to determine their fertility. when asked by the couple why they need to start with a sperm analysis, what will be the nurse's best response?
The nurse's best response is that one of the simplest tests to complete is sperm analysis.
What is analysis of sperm?Semen analysis, a lab test, counts the number of sperm, as well as their velocity, morphology, and other characteristics. It can be used by men to check their fertility or see if their vasectomy was successful. To ensure accurate findings, please provide a cleaned sample and follow the instructions. A lot of times, anomalous results point to the necessity for more testing.
What does a typical sperm analysis report?Each milliliter (mL) of such semen usually contains 15 million to 200 million sperm. Low sperm counts are defined as less than 15 million sperm each milliliter & 39 million sperm every ejaculate.
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the nurse has educated a client scheduled to have an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp). which of the following client statements would indicate the need for additional teaching by the nurse? select all that apply.
the nurse has educated a client scheduled to have an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp). The client will have an endoscope put down my throat so they can see my gallbladder.
What is endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?A treatment called endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, sometimes known as ERCP, is used to identify and treat conditions affecting the pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and bile ducts. A unique, flexible, thin tube (endoscope) with a built-in camera is used by the doctor during an ERCP. The tube is inserted into the kid's upper digestive tract through the mouth while the youngster is sleeping. Stones, abnormal narrowing, or obstructions in the ducts can all be seen by the doctor using contrast dye and X-rays. A multitude of gastrointestinal problems can be diagnosed and treated with an ERCP, a minimally invasive interventional technique.
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the nurse is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with a hiatal hernia about measures to prevent recurrence of symptoms. which statement would the nurse make to the client for consideration
The condition may present with a variety of symptoms that can be classified as typical, atypical, and extra-esophageal. Heartburn and acid regurgitation have the best specificity for GERD.
Heartburn definition ?A burning or uncomfortable feeling in the upper and middle chest that may also involve the head and throat and that may get worse when lying down.
Stomach acid, which transports food from the mouth to your stomach, backs up in the oesophagus, causing heartburn.
What does the stomach's acid represent?Acid that stomach glands in the wall of the stomach emit into the stomach. Food digestion is aided. Hydrochloric acid is used to make gastric acid. To aid in the digestion of meals, cells in the stomach emit this acid into your stomach.
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which of the following statements are true? a. if ppo members see a doctor who is not in the network their cost share for services may be higher b. in the aetna medicare open access hmo plan, members can go to any aetna medicare plan hmo network doctor they choose for covered services, without a pcp referral, as long as the doctor is a contracted hmo doctor. c. all of the medicare advantage plans include free monthly fitness club memberships to any facility participating within the silversneakers network. d.
The cost share in services for ppo members who visit a physician outside the network could be greater. The responses are all accurate.
Is everything covered by Medicare free?Seniors and anyone with certain medical conditions are covered by a government health insurance program. Although not totally free, the program seeks to help seniors with the cost of healthcare. Each Medicare part has a different price tag, which could include copay, deductibles, and monthly payments.
What is the eligibility for Medicare?Be a U.S. person; be 65 years of age or older; AND either be U.S. citizen, OR Being an alien who has been legitimately accepted for permanent residence or who has lived in the country for five years in a row previous to the month of submitting a Medicare application.
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a client with anemia has a regularly scheduled hemoglobin test result of 10 g/dl (100 g/l). while traveling a week later, the client went to urgent care where a hemoglobin level of 15 g/dl (150 g/l) was reported. for which reason will the nurse question the findings of the second result?
A routine hemoglobin test for an anemic patient is 10 g/dL (100 g/L). One week later, client went to emergency and was reported to have hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL (150 g/L). For validity reason the nurse will question the findings of the second result.
What is hemoglobin tested for?Your doctor will order a hemoglobin test to find out if you have too many or too few red blood cells. This can be done as part of a routine checkup to look for problems or if your child is unwell. A low red blood cell count is called anemia.
What are the 3 types of hemoglobin?In adults, there are normal percentages of different hemoglobin molecules. HbA: 95% to 98% (0.95 to 0.98) HbA2: 2% to 3% (0.02 to 0.03) HbE: absence.
What is normal hemoglobin level?Normal results in adults vary but generally include: Man: 13.8 to 17.2 grams per deciliter (g/dL) or 138 to 172 grams per liter (g/L) Women: 12.1-15.1 g/dl or 121-151 g/l.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is ordered to be in the fowler position. when assessing the client's position in bed, the nurse will adjust the client in bed if what is observed? select all that apply.
Fowler's position, where the patient is positioned on bed with their head at a 45 degree angle. Hip flexion is possible or not.
What is Fowler's position used for?Surgery on the head, chest, and shoulders frequently takes place in this posture. Most ideal position to treat respiratory distress syndrome is standard Fowler's position. Standard Fowler's position benefits from better chest expansion due to the bed's posture, which enhances breathing by aiding oxygenation.
When in Fowler's position the patient is?The patient is often situated at High Fowler's position (also known as Fowler's position) just at top portion of the examination table. The angle between the upper and bottom halves of the person's blood is between 60 and 90 degrees.
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Answer:
-There is a large pillow under the clients head.
-The knee gatch on the bed is engaged.
-The clients foot is in the plantar
flexion position.
Explanation:
In the fowler position, the clients head should be against the mattress or supported by a small pillow only. Using large pillow may cause flexion contracture of the neck. The knee gatch should be avoided to prevent pressure on the popliteal artery that could comprise lower extremity circulation. When the clients foot is in plant flexion position, the client is at risk for foot drop. A foot board, high-top sneakers, or improvised firm foot support should be used. It is appropriate to place the clients forearms on pillows. This will prevent pull on the shoulders and help prevent dislocation of the shoulder. A rolled towel or trochanter roll will help prevent external rotation of the hips.
a 30-year-old client tells the nurse that she would like to use a contraceptive sponge but does not know enough about its use and whether it will protect her against sexually transmitted infections (stis). which information should the nurse provide the client about using a contraceptive sponge? select all that apply.
She will be safeguarded against STDs thanks to it (stis). The nurse is approached by a 30-year-old client who says she would want to use a prophylactic sponge but is unsure it will be effective.
What precautions should use of the birth control patch take?
Among the possible negative effects of the modern contraceptive patch are: an increased risk of high blood pressure, liver cancer, gallbladder disease, heart attack, and stroke. hemorrhage or spotting that is excessive. irritated skin.
How should you apply the contraceptive patch?
Put on your first patch, then wear it for seven days. Change this patch to just a new one on day eight. After three weeks of weekly changes in this manner, there will be a week without any patches. Although it's possible that it won't always happen, you'll experience a withdrawal bleed similar to a period throughout your patch-free week.
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