A 40-week pregnant primigravida patient who is having an oxytocin (Pitocin) secondary infusion is complaining of lower back pain.
During the fourth stage of labor, which nursing intervention is most important?Identification and prevention of hemorrhage during the fourth stage of childbirth are top nursing priorities. 24. The nurse will make an effort to encourage cervical effacement and increase contractions in a patient whose status is uncertain.
Which course of action should the nurse take for a client at 36 weeks?Which nursing intervention is most crucial to carry out for a patient who is admitted with vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation? Observe the uterine contractions. Place a client's bottom on disposable pads.
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a client has an order for a clear liquid diet. the nurse is assisting the client to complete a menu. which item would be appropriate for the client to order? select all that apply.
White grape juice and other fruit juices without pulp, such as apple juice. beverages with a fruit flavor, like lemonade or fruit punch.
What foods are permitted on a clear liquid diet?A diet consisting exclusively of transparent liquids or meals that become liquid at body temperature is known as a clear liquid diet. As examples, consider clear broth, coffee, tea, clear fruit juices (apple, cranberry, grape), gelatin, popsicles, and commercially produced clear liquid supplements.
A full liquid diet consists of which of the following foods?All of the foods and beverages permitted on the clear liquid diet, including popsicles, clear juice without pulp, plain gelatin, ice chips, water, sweetened tea or coffee (without creamer), clear broths, carbonated beverages, flavored water, and water, as well as thin hot cereal, are permitted on the full liquid diet.
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the nurse notes that an older adult client with diabetes is prescribed rosiglitazone. which assessment should the nurse complete before providing this medication to the client?
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is managed and treated with the aid of the drug rosiglitazone. Prior to giving the patient these medications, it is important to always check their coagulant level and have a full blood count (CBC).
What medication should people with type 2 diabetes take first?The first drug typically administered for type 2 diabetes is metformin (Fortamet, Glumetza, etc.). It primarily works by reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and increasing your body's sensitivity to insulin so that it is utilised more efficiently by your body.
For what purposes is rosiglitazone maleate used?The symptoms of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus are treated with the prescription drug Avandia. You can take Avandia by itself or in combination with other drugs. Avandia is a member of the class of medications known as anti-diabetics, or thiazolidinediones.
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a college student reports the onset of skin burning and hives when walking outdoors in cold weather. which suggestions will the nurse make to limit this reaction from occurring? select all that apply.
When swimming in chilly weather, wear a wetsuit, stay away from cold-temperature meals and drinks, and take an over-the-counter antihistamine before venturing outside.
What do you mean reaction?Resistant or resistance to a source, influence, or movement is a reactionary act, process, or occurrence. especially: a reaction to just a particular treatment, circumstance, or stimulus; leaning toward a past and typically antiquated political or social system or policies.
What is the meaning of reaction and example?The reaction is an activity that is taken as a result of anything. You can tell if your parents are upset if you tell them you would really like to move out by their response. A reaction frequently has a physical component.
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the nurse works in an urban hospital and cares for a diverse population of clients. which action(s) by the nurse demonstrates the delivery of culturally sensitive care to clients? select all that apply.
The actions that show culturally sensitive care are:
Asking the client questions about healthcare beliefs related to the client's cultureAllowing the client to keep a religious necklace on until going into the operating roomIntegrating the client's cultural practices when assisting with the creation of the plan of careCulturally sensitive care is the type of care given that meets both the social and cultural needs of a diverse patient population. In it, the healthcare providers have the ability to be appropriately responsive to people that share a common and distinctive culture and background.
Besides the actions in the answer above, things such as speaking in terms that are easy to follow and understand by the patient is a way to be culturally sensitive.
The question above is not complete. The completed one is most likely as follows:
The nurse works in an urban hospital and cares for a diverse population of clients. Which action(s) by the nurse demonstrates the delivery of culturally sensitive care to clients? Select all that apply.
indicating that the cultural groups should adapt to the Anglo-American culturemaintaining direct eye contact during conversations with all cultural groupsasking the client questions regarding healthcare beliefs related to the client's cultureallowing the client to keep a religious necklace on until going into the operating roomintegrating the client's cultural practices when assisting with the creation of the plan of careLearn more about culturally sensitive care at https://brainly.com/question/25828530
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an older adult client comes to the health center reporting difficulty sleeping. which statement by the client would the nurse need to address?\
A senior citizen client who has trouble sleeping visits the clinic. a reduction in the amount of time spent in deep sleep.
What makes deep sleep less frequent?Your desire to sleep might be weakened by napping or oversleeping. You might be less able to fall asleep naturally, which would reduce the amount of deep sleep you get. medicine use and substance abuse. Deep sleep can be impacted by benzodiazepines, narcotic painkillers, and caffeine.
What occurs during the period of profound sleep?It is more difficult to rouse someone who is in stage 3 sleep, sometimes referred to as deep slumber. As the body relaxes even more during N3 sleep, muscle tone, pulse, and breathing rate all drop. The delta wave pattern in the brain's activity during this time can be recognized.
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Mark enters a patient's room and finds the patient kneeling on the floor. The patient is chanting something that Mark does not understand. He realizes that the patient is praying and most likely a Muslim. What should he do?
Answer:
Mark should try to be respectful and not interrupt the patient while they are praying. If the patient is comfortable doing so, he could ask them if they would like him to wait until they're finished before continuing the conversation. He could also ask if there is anything he can do to help make the patient more comfortable. Additionally, he could show respect for the patient's religious beliefs by asking if there is anything else he can do to help them during the prayer.
Explanation:
The patient's right to worship should be respected. It is not in order if Mark interrupts the patient while in prayers. Interrupting the patient while praying can be termed as a violation of his fundamental right to worship.
a client has been assessed for aldosteronism and has recently begun treatment. what are priority areas for assessment that the nurse should frequently address? select all that apply.
Urine output and Blood pressure are priority areas for assessment that the nurse should frequently address. According to research, 5% to 10% of individuals with hypertension also have primary hyper aldosteronism.
According to experts, up to 25% of individuals with medication-resistant high blood pressure may also have hyper aldosteronism. Aldosterone and renin levels in your blood will likely be measured during a screening test if your doctor suspects primary aldosteronism. Your kidneys release renin, which aids in blood pressure regulation. You can have primary aldosteronism if your renin level is very low and your aldosterone level is high.
Some of the tests your doctor recommends, including this screening test, may be impacted by certain blood pressure drugs, including spironolactone and eplerenone. It could be necessary for you to temporarily cease taking your prescription.
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a patient was placed in restraints for 2 hours in order to help manage impulsive, destructive, unsafe behavior. which statement made by the charge nurse during a meeting to discuss the incident shows an understanding of the need to use restraints only as a last resort?
The following statement made by the charge nurse shows an understanding of the need to use restraints only as a last resort:
“Let’s review what exactly happened that led to the use of restraints.”
What are Restraints?
Restraints are physical or chemical means of limiting or restricting a person’s movement or actions. Physical restraints are objects or materials used to immobilize or limit a person’s freedom of movement, while chemical restraints are drugs used to restrain a person’s behavior. Restraints are often used in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and nursing homes, to help keep patients safe from harm.
The charge nurse must not put the staff on the defensive in order to encourage an open, honest examination of the situation that will allow learning to take place. Reviewing the events before the patient's restraint in an unaccusatory manner demonstrates an awareness of proper restraint use. The other selections indicate that the nurse manager does not believe the matter was handled appropriately.
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the acute care nurse is preparing to care for an 86-year-old client who just returned to the unit after surgery to repair a fractured hip. the client has severe dementia. which pain management strategy would be most appropriate for this client?
The acute care nurse is preparing to care for an 86-year-old client who just returned to the unit after surgery to repair a fractured hip. the client has severe dementia.The pain management have to be , positioned by the nurse so that the injured leg is being pulled in.
pain management have to give unit for post-anesthesia care. After receiving anesthesia for a procedure or surgery, a patient is transported to the PACU to recover and awaken. In the PACU, a critical care facility, where pain management is also started and fluids are given, the patient's vital signs are regularly checked.The following tasks may be carried out by a PACU nurse: Following up with the medical team as needed to update them on the postoperative patients' level of consciousness and anesthesia recovery. Medications should be administered as prescribed in order to manage pain, nausea, and other post-operative anesthesia side effects.
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a patient asks what medication would be most effective in the treatment of seasonal hay fever (aka allergic rhinitis). the nurse will teach the patient about the use of which drug?
The nurse will teach the patient about the use of Fluticasone. The most effective agents used to treat allergic rhinitis are Glucocorticoids (fluticasone [Flonase]).
Rhinitis: when a reaction that causes runny nose, nasal congestion, sneezing, and itching occurs. Most rhinitis are caused due to an inflammation and are associated with symptoms in the ears, eyes, or throat.
Allergens are a usually harmless substance that can cause an allergic reaction. Hay fever or allergic rhinitis, is an allergic reaction to certain allergens, most commonly pollen. These allergens trigger the release of histamine in a person’s body, which leads to swelling, itching, and build up of fluid in the fragile linings of nasal passages, eyelids and sinuses.
Common symptoms of allergic rhinitis are:
SneezingItchy noseRunny noseCoughingFrequent headachesDry, itchy skinAllergic rhinitis can be treated in several ways. Medications and/or home remedies are effective as well.
Therefore, the nurse will teach the patient about the use of Fluticasone. The most effective agents used to treat allergic rhinitis are Glucocorticoids (fluticasone [Flonase]).
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what medication for the treatment of opioid use disorder does not currently have evidence showing that it reduces transmission of hiv and hcv?
The use of naltrexone, methadone, and buprenorphine for opioid therapy.
What is the most effective method of addiction treatment?Behavioral therapy is arguably the most common type of addiction treatment that is frequently used in drug rehab. A general behavioral treatment strategy has led to the development of several effective techniques.
What stage of the recovery from addiction is first?Detoxification usually happens first in a therapeutic schedule. It involves stopping withdrawal symptoms and getting rid of the substance from the body. According to the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, a treatment center will use medicine to lessen withdrawal symptoms in 80% of cases (SAMHSA).
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a nurse is caring for a client who's experiencing septic arthritis. this client has a history of immunosuppressive therapy and the immune system is currently depressed. which assignment is the most appropriate for the nurse caring for this client?
A nurse is caring for a client who's experiencing septic arthritis. this client has a history of immunosuppressive therapy and the immune system is currently depressed,Take the medication without food.
The major goal of a nursing joba is caring for a client who's experiencing septic arthritis. this client has a history of immunosuppressive therapy and the immune system is to help people attain, maintain, or regain optimal health and quality of life.They are crucial in teaching, analyzing situations, and providing assistance.In terms of patient care, education, and the range of their practice, nurses can be different from other healthcare professionals.Nurses operate in a variety of specializations and have varying degrees of prescription power.The majority of healthcare facilities are staffed by nurses, however evidence suggests that there is a global shortage of competent nurses.Nurses plan and deliver medical and nursing care to patients with acute or chronic physical or mental diseases in hospitals, at home, and in other settings.
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the nurse is counseling a group of clients about the importance of early testing for the human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). which information will the nurse share?
Saliva, urine, and feces are not ways that HIV can transmit. Therefore, the nurse does not have to counsel the patient to refrain from kissing the baby.
What prevention method can the nurse teach the patient to completely remove the possibility of HIV transmission?You can employ techniques like abstinence (not having sex), never sharing needles, and consistently using condoms properly. Additionally, you may be able to benefit from HIV preventive treatments including pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) and post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
What circumstances warrant suggesting an HIV test for a client?People who have had multiple sexual partners or who are having intercourse with someone whose sexual history they are unaware of should undergo testing more frequently.
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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?
The nurse will inform the healthcare physician about these tetracycline for acne medications.
A client is not a customer.Instead of a specific sort of customer who pays for professional assistance from a company, anybody who makes use of a company's products or services is referred to as a user. Clients often buy solutions and guidance, whereas consumers frequently buy things.
Who would you utilize as a representative client?A customer is a person who uses a business's products or services and pays for them. Companies might be among the clients. Clients, as opposed to customers, typically have a connection or agreement with the vendor. If you purchase a cup of coffee from a café kiosk in a train station, for instance, you are a client.
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a nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. which interventions would be appropriate for this client? select all that apply.
The nurse is providing anorexia nervosa treatment for her patient. Would the nurse add any nursing interventions to the plan of care? Reduce your attention to food and eating, Eat only for 30 minutes at a time.
What treatments are successful for those who have anorexia?Adults with anorexia nervosa did not respond to any particular type of therapy the best. Many anorexics do, however, experience recovery with therapy. The most well-known therapies for binge eating disorder and bulimia nervosa are CBT and IPT.
What guidance is suitable for someone who has anorexia nervosa?The best chance for your friend or relative to recover is to seek medical attention from a doctor, practice nurse, or a school or college nurse.
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'what do you need to consider in the assessment process for a client who is being treated for a dual diagnosis?''
A combined diagnostic and treatment strategy is required for dual diagnoses in both specialty alcohol and other substance services and mental health services.
Dual diagnosis describes the co-occurrence of problematic drug and alcohol use and one or more recognised mental health issues.
Services for alcohol, other drugs, and mental health ought to be able to cater to the needs of those who have a dual diagnosis.
This entails addressing a person's requirements in light of their presenting disease, utilising a risk framework, and being aware of the preferences of both the consumer and the caregiver/family. Staff members should receive suitable education and learning opportunities as well as training on dual diagnosis.
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a nurse explains to her client that food is moved along the gastrointestinal (gi) tract with intermittent contractions that mix the food and move it along. these movements are found in which organ?
Food is moved through the digestive system by muscular contractions called peristalsis, the small intestine, where waves of smooth muscle transport balls of ingested food to the gastrointestinal tract of stomach.
Peristalsis is the physiological mechanism through which food passes through your gastrointestinal tract. Your gastrointestinal tract's big, hollow organs are covered in a layer of muscle that allows the walls to move. The small intestine motion mixes the contents of each organ as it pushes food and fluids through your gastrointestinal tract. The esophagus, stomach, and intestines move when food travels through the small intestine , yet a person is often unaware of these motions.
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after neck surgery, the client asks the nurse why the head of the bed is up so high. which reason would the nurse give?
To lessen edema at the surgery site, the bed's head is raised quite high.
What posture would a client recovering from general anesthesia be placed in by the nurse?Legs can be stretched or slightly bent in the supine position, and arms can be raised or lowered. It offers general comfort to people recovering from surgery of any kind. most typical usage position The positions utilized for a general examination or physical assessment are supine or dorsal recumbent.
Which nurse evaluation is most important for a patient who may have myasthenia gravis?The most sensitive test for myasthenia gravis, single fiber electromyography (EMG), finds decreased nerve-to-muscle communication.
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the nurse is teaching a client about rheumatic disease. what statement best helps to explain autoimmunity?
Nurse is teaching a client about rheumatic disease, statement that best helps to explain autoimmunity is: your symptoms are the result of your body attacking itself.
What is meant by autoimmunity?In autoimmunity, body mistakes its own tissue for foreign tissue and begins attacking it and symptoms develop as the body destroys tissue.
In immunology, system of immune responses of an organism against its own healthy cells, tissues and other normal body constituents is called autoimmunity. Disease resulting from this type of immune response is called autoimmune disease.
The antinuclear antibody test is one of the first tests that physicians do when they suspect a patient of an autoimmune disorder.
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a client who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops myelosuppression. which instruction would the nurse plan to include in the client's discharge teaching plan? select all that apply.
(1) Avoid people who have recently received attenuated vaccines. (2) Avoid activities that may cause bleeding. (3) Wash hands frequently. (5) Avoid crowded places, such as shopping malls. instruction would the nurse plan to include in the client's discharge teaching plan
Every year, everyone over the age of 18 should receive a seasonal flu vaccines. A Td (tetanus, diphtheria) or Tdap booster dose every ten years is recommended for adults who did not receive the Tdap vaccines as an adolescent in order to protect against whooping cough. When someone bleeds, blood is lost. For example, when you get a cut or wound, it can be external, or outside the body. Injuries to internal organs are an example of when something is internal, or inside the body. Depending on where the internal bleeding is occurring in the body, certain signs and symptoms may indicate concealed internal bleeding.
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patient going through menopause. what do they experience in decrease in hormone secrection, which increase the risk of menopouse?osteoporosis pathophysiology
During the menopausal transition period, the drop in estrogen leads to more bone resorption than formation, resulting in osteoporosis.
The major health threat of osteoporosis is osteoporotic fractures.
What is osteoporosis?
A disorder when the bones become fragile and feeble.
Bone tissue is continuously absorbed by and replaced by the body. When someone has osteoporosis, the replacement of lost bone does not occur at the same rate. Osteoporosis is caused by a lifelong deficiency in calcium. Low calcium consumption increases the risk of fractures, early bone loss, and decreased bone density. eating problems. Bone deteriorates in both men and women who severely restrict their food intake and who are underweight. Osteoporosis makes bones so fragile that they can readily be broken. The term "silent sickness" refers to a condition in which a person may not notice any symptoms until a bone fracture, typically a bone in the hip, spine, or wrist. Living tissue is used to create bones.
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a student nurse is preparing to administer a client's ordered large-volume enema. what action should the nurse perform during this skill?
Give the medication gradually over a 5- to 10-minute period.
How should the patient arrange themselves for an enema?Due to the anatomical features of the colon, the left lateral position is the most suitable position for administering an enema.Even though the tube's authorized length is roughly 5–6 cm, if resistance is felt, pull the tube back a little instead of attempting to force it.
What are the two key methods for obtaining a stool sample?How to Gather the Sample (s) Pass feces into a large, clean container—such as a milk jug with the top cut off—or onto newspaper put under the toilet seat, avoiding contact with urine.Stools that are loose should be passed into .
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a major difference in the diagnosis of chronic disease between younger adults and older adults is that:
Older adults were just as receptive to daily pressures as younger persons were among those reporting four or more chronic illnesses.
Which chronic illness affects older people most frequently?The most prevalent chronic condition affecting older persons is hypertension, which significantly contributes to atherosclerosis (23). Even at advanced ages, isolated systolic hypertension is linked to death, especially in older persons.
What are the two most prevalent chronic illnesses affecting elderly people?Chronic Conditions
Chronic diseases include heart disease, cancer, chronic lower respiratory illnesses, stroke, Alzheimer's disease, and diabetes are the main killers of older Americans in the U.S.
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In right-handed individuals, which of the following abilities is predominantly a function of the right hemisphere of the brain?
A. Speech
B. Writing
C. Spatial reasoning
D. Reading comprehension
E. Language comprehension
Spatial reasoning abilities are mostly a function of the right hemisphere of the brain in right-handed people.
Explain the function of the brain's right hemisphere.Image processing, spatial reasoning, and movement in the left side of the body are all handled by the right side of the brain. Nerve fibers connect the left and right sides of the brain. The two sides of a healthy brain communicate with one another. It helps young children understand the concept of more versus less. Some cognitive tasks are controlled by the right hemisphere of the brain, including attention, processing of visual forms and patterns, emotions, language ambiguity, and implicit meanings. Children under the age of three are mostly directed by the right brain.
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which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? question 24 options: a) if your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment. b) the purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. c) you may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. d) a focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems.\
The statement that is correct regarding the secondary assessment is "you may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment". Hence, the correct answer is C.
What is secondary assessment?The secondary assessment can be defined as a quick and methodical examination of an injured pediatric client from head to toe in order to detect all injuries or of a dangerously ill patient whenever the origin of signs and symptoms is undetermined.
Just after the primary assessment, the secondary assessment will be used. This is where the physician goes through the process from head to toe to determine what happened. Inspection, bone and soft tissue palpation, specific testing, circulation, and neurological evaluation are all possible.
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a client asks the nurse how to identify rheumatoid nodules with rheumatoid arthritis. what characteristic will the nurse include?
Rheumatoid nodules are often nontender, moveable, and visible over bony prominences like the elbow or the base of the spine. The nodules have not become red.
Which of the following is a symptom of rheumatoid arthritis?More than one joint is stiff. Tenderness and edema in multiple joints. The symptoms are the same on both sides of the body (such as in both hands or both knees) Loss of weight. RA primarily affects the joints, often attacking multiple joints at once. The hands, wrists, and knees are the most typically affected joints by RA. The lining of the joint becomes inflamed in RA joints, causing joint tissue destruction. This tissue damage can result in persistent or long-term pain, unsteadiness (loss of balance), and deformity (misshapenness). RA can also affect other tissues and organs, including the lungs, heart, and eyes.
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a nurse is preparing to administer a sulfonamide to a client. the nurse is aware sulfonamides are commonly used to treat which types of infections? select all that apply.
Acute otitis media, urinary tract infection, and ulcerative colitis Sulfonamides are frequently used to treat acute otitis media, urinary tract infection, and ulcerative colitis.
What does "infection" mean to you?Infection is the spread and development of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, etc parasites that are not typically found in the body. Either a subclinical infection, which has no symptoms, or a clinically obvious illness, which does.
what is a body an infection?Bacteria can proliferate so swiftly that they crowd out host tissues and disrupt normal function in some cases. Tissues and cells can occasionally sustain lethal injury. There are occasions when they release toxins that can paralyze, harm cells' metabolic activities, or cause a strong immune response that is harmful in and of itself.
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the patient becomes rigid with feet flexed and arms curled to the chest. which abnormal reflex does this represent?
Decorticate posing is sometimes referred to as "mummy baby," "decorticate response," "decorticate rigidity," and "flexor posturing."
Patients that exhibit decorticate posturing have their legs stretched and feet turned inside, their hands clenched into fists, and their arms flexed or bent inward on their chest.
What symptoms decerebrate rigidity exhibits?
Decerebrate posture is characterised by rigid arms and legs, toes pointing down, and an arched back. opisthotonic stance, characterised by a rigid, arched back and a thrown-back head
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a nurse assesses a client who is in cardiogenic shock. what statement best indicates the nurse's understanding of cardiogenic shock?
reduction in cardiac output and signs of tissue hypoxia when there is enough intravascular volume.
Which clinical sign is frequently observed in individuals who are in cardiogenic shock?Patients with cardiogenic shock can have the most typical clinical signs of shock, including hypotension, altered mental status, oliguria, or cold, clammy skin.
Which medical condition is the nurse most likely to suspect as the root of the cardiogenic shock?Cardiogenic shock is a potentially fatal disorder wherein your heart suddenly is unable to supply your body with enough blood.
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true or false our patients have the right to know how we will use and disclose their protected health information
Patients have the right to obtain their medical records from hospitals, according to the law ministry.
What privacy rights do patients have?
The Privacy Rule, a Federal legislation, offers you control over your health information and establishes guidelines and restrictions on who may access and obtain it. Protected health information on people may be in any format, including oral, written, or electronic, and is subject to the Privacy Rule.
Patients have a right to anticipate that doctors and members of their staff will keep information about them private, unless disclosure is mandated by law or is in the public interest. Keeping patient information private is an important component of good medical practise.
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