The discomfort radiates "cape-like" along the lateral and medial trapezius muscles, which encompass the shoulders, in its most severe form.
The trapezius muscles are what?The trapezius muscle is thick and shallow in the back and resembles a trapezoid. It extends laterally to the backbone of the scapula and downward from the external tubercle of the crown area towards the lower thoracic vertebrae. Top, middle, and lower groupings of fibers make form the trapezius.
How can a stiff trapezius muscle be loosened?Keep your hands close to the back of your body and raise your clenched fists as high as possible while bending your elbows. Hold for two counts. While keeping your fists clinched, raise your arms out into a comfortable position.
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the nurse on the vascular unit is preparing to administer medications to clients on a medical unit. which medication should the nurse question administering? enalapril to a client with a sodium of 138. propanolol to a client with hypertension.
Nurses in the vascular ward prepare to administer medication to patients in the medical ward. A nurse must administer vitamin K (aquamephyton), one of the vitamins, to a patient with International Normal Ratio (INR) of 2.8.
When is Aquamephyton administered?The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends giving vitamin K1 to newborns. A single dose of AquaMEPHYTON 0.5-1mg intramuscularly within the first hour after birth is recommended.
What is AquaMEPHYTON and why is it used?Phytonadione injections are used to treat bleeding or blood clotting problems caused by vitamin K deficiency, certain medications (such as warfarin), or medical conditions (jaundice obstructive, ulcerative colitis). Phytonadione is a man-made vitamin K found naturally in the body.
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based on the nurse’s knowledge about the postpartum period and an increase in blood coagulability during the first 48 hours, the nurse closely assesses the client for which condition?
Based on the nurse's knowledge of the postpartum period and her first 48-hour increase in blood clotting, the nurse examines the client for thromboembolism.
What is the definition of thromboembolism?Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition that occurs when a blood clot forms in a vein. VTE is of two types: DVT (deep vein thrombosis) and PE (pulmonary embolism). Deep vein thrombosis occurs when blood clots form in the deep veins, usually in the legs, thighs, or pelvis.
What are the effects of thromboembolism and how is it treated?Thromboxane, a substance produced by platelets, blocks blood vessels by promoting clotting in the vascular system. It is associated with many cardiovascular diseases, from heart attack to stroke.Thromboembolism can be treated using following anticoagulants (commonly called "blood thinners"): warfarin, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, Edoxaban.What is the difference between thrombosis and thromboembolism?Thrombosis occurs when a blood clot or clot forms within a blood vessel, reducing blood flow through the vessel. An embolism occurs when a blood clot, foreign body, or some other body material lodges in a blood vessel, severely restricting blood flow.
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why are the caloric and micro/macronutrient needs per kilogram of body weight of children less than the needs of infants
Energy is provided by foodstuffs full of protein, fat, or carbs. The amount of kilocalories, or "calories," required for each unit of a person's body.
Why do newborns require a higher amount of calories from fat in their meals than adults do?Fat is crucial for brain function and neurological development, especially in infancy and early childhood. 40–50% of the energy in mother's milk and newborn formula comes from fat (Fidler et al. 1998).
Why can eating more fewer calories cause weight gain?When a person stops burning fat, they get much better at retaining it when they eat more calories. Instead of counting calories, a good weight should be determined by the types of meals you eat with lifestyle changes like exercise.
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the focus on low-glycemic load foods can aid in the control of diabetes. group of answer choices false true
True. It has been demonstrated that soluble dietary fibers lower blood cholesterol.
Why is cholesterol so high?When there is too much of the fatty molecule known as cholesterol in your blood, you have high cholesterol. It is mainly triggered by eating fatty foods, skipping workouts, getting overweight, smoking, and drinking alcohol. Moreover, it can run in families. By consuming a healthy diet and increasing your physical activity, we can lower your cholesterol.
Bananas lower cholesterol, right?The potassium and fiber in bananas can decrease cholesterol and blood pressure. Bananas are particularly well-known for being a great source of dietary fiber, which encourages a strong body and immune system.
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Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic?
A. Antacids.
B. Benzodiasepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics
an oncology clinic nurse is reinforcing prevention measures for oropharyngeal infections to a client receiving chemotherapy. which statement by the client indicates that teaching was successful?
The pupil reports that the instruction was effective. Several times a day, I carefully brush my teeth.
A client is a customer, right?An individual who utilizes a firm's goods or services is referred to as a user rather than a client, who is a specific type of consumer who purchases professional assistance from a corporation. While customers frequently make purchases, clients typically buy solutions and advice.
Which type of customer would you use as an example?A buyer or payer of services is referred to as a customer. Companies and other organizations might be clients. Comparatively speaking, clients as opposed to customers frequently have a relationship or agreement with the seller. A customer is someone who buys anything from a business, such a cup of coffee from a vending machine at the train station.
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the nurse is designing a program to control nosocomial infections on a geriatric unit of an acute care hospital. what strategy should be included in this plan?
When changing surgical dressings, make sure sterile procedure is followed.
What types of tasks do nurses perform?Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and perform medical operations, offer emotional support to patients' families, and educate the public about various health concerns. The majority of registered nurses work in tandem with doctors and other healthcare professionals in a range of contexts.
Possible candidates for the job include nurses.Their duties encompass a wide range of post-operative surgical therapy duties. Heart, pediatric, or obstetric surgery is a popular area of specialization for surgical nurses.
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which finding does the examininer consider abnormal when inspecting a 58 year old nulliparous patients cervix
When examining the cervix of a 58-year-old nulliparous patient, the examiner thought the cervix's lateral position was abnormal.
What is abnormal behavior?Any conduct that is abnormal for a certain culture, statistically rare, harmful to the individual or people around them, or that is maladaptive. Such behavior is frequently taken to be a sign of mental illness or emotional illness, which can range from mild adjustment issues to a serious mental disorder.
What is abnormal example?An illustration would be a mouse trying to flee even when it is blatantly impossible. societal norms are violated by behavior. People's behavior is viewed as abnormal when it deviates from the accepted social and moral norms of their community. An aberration or departure from the usual; an anomalous structure.
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a set of concepts, definitions, relationships, and assumptions or propositions derived from nursing models or from other disciplines and which project a purposive, systematic view of phenomena by designing specific interrelationships among concepts for the purposes of describing, explaining, predicting, and/or prescribing is called:
Set of concepts, definitions and relationships derived from nursing models and project a purposive, systematic view of phenomena by designing specific inter-relationships among concepts is : nursing theory.
What is nursing theory?It is used to describe and explain a nursing action in order to make a hypothesis or predict its effects on the outcomes of client like improved health or recovery from illness.
Main purpose of nursing theory is to to generate a scientific knowledge. A conceptual model of nursing provides framework for reflection, observation and interpretation of phenomena. It also provides guidelines and for aspects of clinical practice.
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the nurse is monitoring an infant who was born at 0515 hrs. at 1315 hrs, the same day, the nurse determines the infant is starting to show yellowish staining on the head and face. which action should the lpn prioritize?
The LPN should give documentation and reporting to RN first priority.
Which of the following situations can raise the chance that a baby will be born smaller than expected for gestational age?Newborns may be little due to their parents' diminutive stature, the placenta's dysfunction, the mother's medical condition, or her use of drugs, tobacco, or alcohol while she was pregnant.
How long does a normal pregnancy last?The average pregnancy lasts 40 weeks or 280 days. A baby is considered premature or preterm if it is born before 37 weeks of pregnancy. Infants who are extremely preterm are born between 23 and 28 weeks.
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which nursing action is appropriate when providing care to a hospitalized infant who is diagnosed with failure to thrive (ftt) due to inadequate caloric intake?
When caring for a hospitalized infant who has been diagnosed as failure to flourish (ftt) due to insufficient caloric intake, it is permissible to use the phrase inadequate caloric intake, insufficient action.
What do you mean by diagnosed?A procedure of determining a diagnosis, disease, or injury based on its indications and symptoms. For aid in the diagnosis, testing like blood work, imaging studies, or biopsies may be done in addition to a physical examination and health history.
How do you use diagnose in a sentence?The test aids in the identification of cardiac disease. Over the last year, hundreds of additional instances have indeed been identified. The dermatologist was unable to identify the skin disorder. a rookie physician with limited experience making patient diagnoses The mechanic failed to identify the issue.
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following and gunshot wound, an adult client a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/l si). the nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. the client has ab negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type a rh negative, reporting that there is not type ab negative blood currently available. which intervention should the nurse implement?
The nurse should transfuse type A negative blood until type AB negative is available, recheck the client's haemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor, and administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
What is the Rh factor?
The Rhesus (Rh) factor is the positive or negative symbol that appears adjacent to the blood types. The surface of red blood cells contains the hereditary protein known as the Rh factor. In blood donations and transfusions, it's crucial to make a determination. It prevents the body from producing anti-Rh antibodies. The antibodies are only produced by people with Rh negative factors. So, someone with Rh+ blood can receive transfusions of both Rh+ and Rh- blood, while someone with Rh- blood can only receive Rh- blood.
What is Haemoglobin?
A red blood cell (RBC) protein that contains iron and serves two main purposes. In the beginning, it distributes oxygen from your lungs to the tissues all over your body. Also it transports carbon dioxide back to the lungs so that it can be evacuated by moving it out of cells.
Hence, it can be concluded that nurse should transfuse type A negative blood until type AB negative is available, recheck the client's haemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor, and administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
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how do the hunger and satiety hormones respond to drastic caloric restriction and weight loss in overweight and obese individuals?
Hunger hormone levels elevate and satiety hormone levels decrease and remain at these levels for up to one year.
How does reducing calories help lose weight?Regardless of where they come from, the calories you eat are either converted to usable energy or are stored as fat in your body. The calories you've stored in fat will stay there unless you burn them off. You can accomplish this by consuming less calories so that your body has to utilise its stored energy.
How does metabolism change with weight loss?The basal metabolic rate refers to the number of calories required to maintain basal (resting phase) metabolism (BMR). BMR rises to around 0.02 kcal/min for every 1% drop in body weight when body weight falls.
What is the biological process of losing weight?Leptin, a hormone generated by fat cells, starts to decline when you start to lose weight. The brain receives a signal from this that the body's "fat storage" is decreasing. The brain sends signals to the body to conserve energy and calories because it believes that famine is imminent.
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the client is 24 weeks pregnant. by how many calories have her nutritional needs increased compared to those during the first trimester
The recommended daily increase in caloric intake during pregnancy is roughly 300 kcal. A full-term pregnancy requires an estimated 80,000 kcal, which is how this number is calculated.
When do pregnancy signs start? Which week?Early on in pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Morning sickness and nausea often start in weeks four to six and peak in weeks nine. Despite the name, morning sickness can strike at any time of day or night.
Which kind of cramps signal pregnancy?According to Dr. Nalla, it's normal to have light cramps in your lower stomach from the beginning of your pregnancy as your body adjusts to the developing human inside of you. Your uterus expands along with your tummy. You can experience a minor pulling or tugging as a result of this.
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a 38-year-old client has begun to suffer from rheumatoid arthritis and is being assessed for disorders of the immune system. the client works as an aide at a facility that cares for children infected with aids. which is the most important factor related to the client's assessment?
Her use of drugs is the most important factor related to the client's assessment suffering with rheumatoid arthritis .
What causes rheumatoid arthritis most often?Due to the immune system's attack on healthy human tissue, osteoarthritis is an autoimmune condition. Your immune system frequently creates autoantibodies that fight viruses and bacteria to fight infection.
Rheumatoid arthritis: is it curable?Lifelong osteoarthritis is a condition. It may disappear temporarily after treatment, but it frequently returns. You should visit your doctor immediately as symptoms appear. The better your outcome, the earlier you begin treatment.
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A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload
a. nitroglycerin
b. propranolol
c. propranolol
d. captopril
The medication prescription that decreases both preload and afterload is nitroglycerin. The correct option is a.
What is acute myocardial infarction?Acute myocardial infarction, also widely recognized as a heart attack, is a potentially fatal condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart muscle is suddenly interrupted, resulting in tissue damage. This is usually caused by a blockage in one or more coronary arteries.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with an acute myocardial infarction diagnosis. Nitroglycerin is a medication that reduces both preload and afterload.
Thus, the correct option is a.
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the nurse is caring for a client with an autoimmune disease. what is a characteristic of autoimmune disorders?
The basic characterisitic of autoimmune disorder is : Progressive tissue damage without any verifiable etiology.
What are the various characteristics of autoimmune disorders ?Pathologic responses to self- or autoantigens are the hallmark of autoimmune illnesses; these reactions, which can be classified as autoimmunity or autoreactivity, are the root of a wide variety of clinical disorders.
The immune system can typically distinguish between your own cells and foreign cells. The immune system misidentifies a portion of your body, such as your joints or skin, as alien when you have an autoimmune disease. Autoantibodies, which are proteins released by the body, assault healthy cells. Some autoimmune disorders only affect a single organ.
Lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis are examples of common ones.
Numerous different tissue types and almost every organ in your body are susceptible to autoimmune disorders.
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When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (tylonel), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body
a. flank
b. abdomen
c. chest
d. head
Answer:The correct anserw is d.
Explanation:
beacuse if you dont stop the pain in the head he could have a stroke because of the beeding in the heads
a client has sustained damage to wernicke's area from a stroke (brain attack). on assessment of the client, which sign or symptom would be noted?
Language comprehension will be difficult for the client, after sustaining damage to Wernicke's area from a stroke.
What is Wernicke's area?
Motor neurons involved in speech comprehension are found in the Wernicke area of the brain. The Wernicke area is situated in the left hemisphere's posterior part of the upper temporal convolution. The auditory cortex is hence nearby. The receptive language centre, also known as the language comprehension centre, is thought to be specifically critical for understanding speech sounds.
What is a Stroke?
When anything prevents blood flow to a portion of the brain or when a blood artery in the brain bursts, a stroke, also known as a brain attack, happens. The brain either ages or suffers harm in both scenarios. A stroke may result in permanent brain damage, chronic disability, or even fatality.
Hence, language comprehension will be difficult for the client, after sustaining damage to Wernicke's area from a stroke.
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a client with cancer has recovered from tumor removal surgery and is now stable while undergoing a chemotherapy treatment schedule. she is not having any symptoms at this time and is continuing to work and enjoy social events. what stage of the general adaptation syndrome (gas) would the nurse place her in?
Check the client's potassium and sodium levels. Increased potassium excretion and sodium and water retention are side effects of excessive cortisol. Mineralocorticoids control sodium and potassium secretion; when levels are excessive, this results in sodium and water retention as well as hypokalemia.
Which 3 nursing interventions are appropriate for postoperative patients?Nursing interventions needed for postoperative care include prompt pain management, evaluation of the surgical site and drainage tubes, tracking the rate and integrity of IV fluids and IV access, and determining the patient's level of sensation, circulation, and safety.
Acute stress that is experienced repeatedly or chronic stress that develops (over time) can harm arteries and blood vessels. Hypertension, heart attacks, and stroke are all made more likely as a result.
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a client is worried that her newborn’s stools are greenish, with an unpleasant odor. the newborn is being formula-fed. what instruction should the nurse give this client?
Greenish stools with an unpleasant odour are normal, for newborns who are formula-fed.
What are Stool characteristics?
Infant stools can come in a wide range of colours and textures that are considered typical. Meconium is the term for the first few days of an infant's life when their stools are dark brown or black and sticky. The stools will initially turn a dark green before turning yellow and seeming putrid.
What is Formula?
Formula is a dried milk powder that is used as a substitute for breast milk. In most cases, cow's milk, vitamins, and minerals are used to make infant formula. Babies are given formula in a bottle or cup after it has been blended with cooled, boiling water. During the first six months of a baby's life, the nutrients in the formula encourage growth.
Hence, greenish stools with an unpleasant odour are normal, for newborns who are formula-fed.
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the nurse is teaching a first-time parent about the newborn's sleep needs. the nurse would inform the parent that newborns sleep approximately how many hours in a 24 hour period?
Newborns sleep for roughly 8 to 9 hours during the day and for around 8 hours at night, the nurse is explaining to a first-time parent.
What is a period?When a woman flows for a number of days from her cervix, this is known as her menstruation. The majority of women have periods every 28 days or more, although it's common for them to occur somewhere since day 21 to day 40 in their menstrual cycle, which occurs more or less frequently than this.
What causes period?Ovulation is the term for the monthly release of an egg from one of the ovaries. Hormonal changes also prep the uterus towards pregnancy at the same time. in the event that ovulation occurs but the egg is not fertilized.
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a young child has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are consistent with otitis externa. what assessment question should the nurse ask to address the etiology of this health problem?
A young child with symptoms and signs those are associated with otitis externa has really been admitted to the clinic. Have you noticed a significant increase in your child's swimming lately .
Is external otitis serious?If treated right away, swimmer's ear is typically not serious, but complications can happen. temporary loss of hearing. It's possible that you have distorted hearing, which generally improves once the illness is gone. persistent infections (chronic otitis externa).
To treat otitis externa, which antibiotic is used?Acute otitis distal end and acute otitis media are two ear infections that can be treated with ciprofloxacin and dexamethasone mixture ear drops. Swimmer's ear, or otitis externa, is an illness of outer ear canal brought on by germs.
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a 43-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tb. he is prescribed a multiple drug therapy, including inh and rifampin. a priority assessment by the nurse will be to monitor which combination of laboratory test results?
An active TB diagnosis has been made for a 43-year-old guy. The outcomes of a combination of serum alanine aminotransferase, aspartate transaminase, & bilirubin laboratory tests will be monitored by the nurse.
Were you diagnosed meaning ?An ailment or condition is identified if it is determined that someone, something, or both, has it. When a condition or issue is identified, it is named. The flu was identified as the soldiers' ailment.
What is an example of a diagnosis?The unusual pattern of symptoms made accurate diagnosis difficult. She is an expert in recognizing and treating eye issues. The official diagnosis was mild concussion. His doctor first diagnosed him with pneumonia. clinical assessment a diagnosis made based on symptoms and physical signs rather than using diagnostic testing.
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the parents are concerned their newborn appears to be cold all the time. the nurse should point out the infant is best helped by which primary method in the first few days?
Brown fat store usage is the primary method in the first few days.
Babies are born with lot of brown fat behind their shoulder blades. Newborns can't shiver, which is one of the ways body creates heat. Brown fat acts as built-in heater. You lose most of it as you get older and form shiver response to cold temperatures.What is brown fat store?
Brown adipose tissue is uniquely mammalian tissue that protects neonatal body temperature around the time of birth by combusting triglycerides in numerous mitochondria to emit heat.
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the nurse is assessing a 3-day-postoperative client and the incision site. the nurse notes a moderate pinkish exudate on the dressing. this drainage is called .
The nurse is evaluating the incision site and a patient who is three days postoperative. Serosanguineous drainage is the name given to this drainage.
Serosanguineous: What is it?Serosanguineous indicates both blood as well as the liquid component of blood are present or are related (serum). Fluids that have been gathered from or have left the body are typically meant. For instance, the fluid that is exuding from a serosanguineous wound is yellowish and contains trace amounts of blood.
Serosanguineous drainage—does it signify recovery?Serosanguineous discharge can sometimes look like clear liquid that has crimson blood scattered throughout it. The amount of clotted blood that is incorporated into the blood serum determines how the look changes. When it occurs in regular proportions, this type of discharge, a sign for healing, normally does not raise any issues.
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an older adult patient had a hip replacement. when should the patient begin with assisted ambulation with a walker?
An older patient underwent hip replacement surgery. The patient should start using a walker with assistance ambulation in 2 to 3 weeks.
What does ambulation signify in the context of medicine?Ambulation is the capacity to move about independently, either with or without aids. One of its most important things seniors may do following surgery to avoid postoperative issues is to start walking right away.
Ambulation techniques – what are they?These tasks are very important when a disabled person is going from one location to some other so that if the person can reach their highest level of independence. Activities like taking a shower, using the restroom, getting in and out of a car, and others are examples.
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you are assessing an 80-year-old patient who explains that he was awakened by a sudden feeling of suffocation and respiratory distress. these symptoms are characteristic of:
Answer:
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Explanation:
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a sudden, severe shortness of breath that occurs at night. It is a symptom of heart failure, but it can also be caused by other conditions, such as asthma, emphysema, and pneumonia.
You are assessing an 80-year-old patient, who explains that he was awakened by a sudden feeling of suffocation and respiratory distress. These symptoms are characteristic of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?Shortness of breath that comes on suddenly and severely at night is known as paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND). Although it is a sign of heart failure, it can also be brought on by other illnesses like pneumonia, emphysema, or asthma.
The left ventricle's failure is what leads to PND. It cannot pump as much blood as the right ventricle, which is operating normally when this occurs. You consequently develop pulmonary congestion, a condition in which the lungs fill with fluid.
Therefore, these signs and symptoms are typical of intermittent nocturnal dyspnea.
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the use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called
The likelihood of severe drug effects, such as falls or cognitive impairment, hazardous drug interactions, as well as drug-disease interactions increases with inappropriate polypharmacy .
What does drug mean in the simplest terms?Any chemical (apart from sustenance) that is administered to treat, prevent, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal state is referred to as a drug. Drugs may alter mood, consciousness, thought, feelings, or behavior in addition to having an impact upon the way the brain and the remainder of the body function.
Examples of medications are they?Chemical chemicals known as drugs can alter how your brain and body function. They consist of alcohol, cigarettes, illegal drugs, prescription drugs, over-the-counter pharmaceuticals, and over-the-counter medications.
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which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence? a client a. who is bedfast, with increased serum bun and creatinine levels
A client who is confused and he/she frequently forgets about going to the bathroom. When the bladder is too distended, as frequently happens in a bewildered client who forgets to empty his or her bladder, overflow incontinence ensues.
What is overflow incontinence?One of the many varieties of incontinence (i.e, the inability to control urination) is overflow incontinence. When one can't completely empty their bladder, it causes overflow, which unexpectedly leaks out, which is known as overflow incontinence. It's possible to feel when one's bladder is full or not. Bacteria thrive when urine is left in the bladder. Repeated urinary tract infections may result from this.
What causes overflow incontinence?When the muscles in the bladder are unable to contract sufficiently to empty the bladder, overflow incontinence develops. This may occur in situations when there has been nerve or muscle damage, possibly as a result of an accident, surgery, or a condition like Parkinson's disease, multiple sclerosis, or spina bifida.
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