Surface area of the body, The usual formula for calculating the body surface area of a child can be used to calculate the medicine dosage for vomiting and diarrhea . A nomogram can also be used to calculate body surface area.
How long does the stomach flu cause vomiting to last?An easy gag reflex could be a factor. Vomiting often ends after about 24 hours as the "stomach flu" virus progresses through the stomach and intestines.
Are you frequently sick with the stomach flu?Several times a day, you might vomit. Dehydration is a serious issue for certain people (fluid loss). Young children are the group most at risk.
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Which of the following statements is true?
A. Most food guides classify eggs in the protein foods group.
B. According to MyPlate, foods that provide empty calories should be avoided.
C. Olives, salmon and avocados are sources of unhealthy solid fats.
D. Food guides generally classify butter in the food group that includes milk and eggs.
Most food guides classify eggs in the protein foods group is the true statement among the given ones.
What is a protein ?Large biomolecules and macromolecules are termed as proteins that are made up of one or more extended chains of amino acid residues.
Antibodies, contractile proteins, enzymes, hormone proteins, structural proteins, storage proteins, and transport proteins are the seven different categories of proteins.
A rise in the level of protein in the blood is known as high blood protein. Hyperproteinemia is the medical term for high blood protein levels. Although high blood protein is not a specific illness or condition, it may be a sign that you are ill. Rarely do symptoms of high blood protein appear on their own.
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the nurse is reviewing the health care record of a pregnant client at 16 weeks of gestation. which assessment findings are most likely present at this time? select all that apply.
3.Fetal heart tones can be heard by Doppler. 4.Braxton Hicks contractions may be felt by the mother. 5.The fundus is located midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
At 16 weeks of pregnancy, the fundus is situated halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus. Just below the ensiform cartilage at 36 weeks' gestation, the fundus can be felt. Preterm birth risk can be predicted by measuring the cervical length using ultrasound; as the length falls, the chance of preterm birth increases. Transvaginal ultrasound in the second trimester is used to measure the length of the cervix. A cervix shorter than 25 mm is regarded as short and indicates a higher risk of preterm delivery. The size of an avocado, your baby measures approximately 11.6 cm from head to foot. Comparable to a medium bag of salad, it weighs about 100g. Your kid is starting to make expressions now, but any smiling or frowning will be utterly arbitrary because there is no muscle control at this point.
The complete question is:
The nurse is reviewing the health care record of a pregnant client at 16 weeks of gestation. Which assessment findings are most likely present at this time? Select all that apply. 1.Blood pressure peaks at 140/90. 2.The fundus is located at the umbilicus. 3.Fetal heart tones can be heard by Doppler. 4.Braxton Hicks contractions may be felt by the mother. 5.The fundus is located midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
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flag a nurse is teaching a young adult about risk factors for developing melanoma. what of the client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
D. "The blistering sunburns I had as a child increase my risk for melanoma as an adult."
The likelihood of acquiring melanoma as an adult is increased by excessive sun exposure and childhood sunburns that are severe or blistering.
what is melanoma?
Cancer that starts in melanocytes is called melanoma. This tumors are often dark or black because the majority of melanoma cells still produce melanin. Some of these, however, do not produce melanin and might thus look pink, tan, or even white. It can appear anywhere on the skin, but in men and women, they are more likely to begin on the trunk (chest and back). Darkly pigmented skin reduces your chance of developing melanoma in these more prevalent locations, although anybody can develop the disease on their hands, feet, or beneath their nails.
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The above question is incomplete. The complete question is given below-
A nurse is teaching a young adult about the risk factors for developing melanoma. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "The fact that I have five moles increases my risk for developing melanoma."
B. "My cousin had squamous cell carcinoma, which increases my risk for melanoma."
C. "Having a light complexion decreases my risk for developing melanoma."
D. "The blistering sunburns I had as a child increase my risk for melanoma as an adult."
nursing students are reviewing information about various types of skin lesions. the students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as a vascular lesion?
Wheals Larger regions of skin that are flat and elevated may develop from wounds as they grow, spread, and come together. In a matter of minutes or hours, wounds frequently change shape, vanish, and then resurface.
What kinds of things are wheals?Usually, wounds are the result of localized mast cell degranulation in the skin. This illness manifestation is referred to as "urticaria." Insect stings, venom, bites, medicine reactions, food allergies, environmental allergies, and physical variables like pressure, cold, and exercise are a few of the causes.
What causes a wheal?The primary early phase mediator and the one responsible for the wheal reaction is histamine release. Upon coming into contact with the material you are sensitive to, histamine is quickly released. Vasodilation results from the histamine that mast cells produce.
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all of the following are lancefield carbohydrate antigens found on beta-hemolytic streptococcus species. all of the following antigens are found on organisms from the streptococcus anginosus group except?
A
B
F
G
The following list contains all known lancefield carbohydrate antigens from beta-hemolytic streptococcus species. B antigens are present on most members of the Streptococcus anginosus group, with the exception of
An antigen is what exactly?any substance that makes the immune system of the body respond unfavorably to it. Antigens include things like toxins, chemicals, microbes, viruses, and other substances that come from the outside of the body. Immune reactions can be triggered by antigens on bodily tissues and cells, including cancer cells.
What are antibodies and antigens?A foreign material that enters your body is known as an antigen. This can include allergies, bacteria, viruses, fungus, venom, and other other types of poisons. Your immune system makes an antibody protein to go after and combat certain antigens.
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the sunshine act requires manufacturers of drugs, medical devices and biologicals that participate in u.s. federal health care programs to report payments and items of value given to physicians and teaching hospitals. which item(s) are not reportable?
The reporting of buffet meals, snacks, soft drinks that are routinely provided to all attendees at big conferences or other large-scale events is not required by the Sunshine Act's implementing regulations.
What is the Sunshine Act's primary goal?Increased transparency regarding the financial ties between doctors, teaching hospitals, and producers of pharmaceuticals, medical devices, and biologics is the goal of the Physician Payments Sunshine Act (PDF).
What products from the pharmaceutical and device industries must be disclosed in accordance with the Physician Payments Sunshine Act?Consulting fees, travel and housing, food and beverages, honoraria, research, and present or prospective ownership or investment interests are, in general, the main categories of payments that must be reported under the SA.
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a client is scheduled for fetal ultrasound. which type of fetal abnormalities will the nurse teach the client the ultrasound is able to detect?
The type of fetal abnormalities that the nurse will teach the client the ultrasound is able to detect is skeletal abnormalities.
Obstetric ultrasonography, often known as prenatal ultrasound, is the use of medical ultrasonography during pregnancy to provide real-time visual pictures of the growing embryo or baby in the uterus (womb). The method is a standard element of prenatal treatment in many countries since it can provide information about the mother's health, the timing and progress of the pregnancy, and the health and development of the embryo.
Pregnant women should have regular obstetric ultrasounds between 18 and 22 weeks' stage of pregnancy to confirm pregnancy dating, measure the foetus so that growth abnormalities can be recognised early in pregnancy, and assess for congenital anomalies and multiple pregnancies, according to the International Society of Ultrasound in Obstetrics and Gynecology.
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which communication technique would the nurse use with a aptient who has been identified as being reluctant to express thoughts and feelings
Open-ended questions give the client the widest possible latitude in answering. if the nurse use with a aptient who has been identified as being reluctant to express thoughts and feelings .
What is latitude or longitude?Latitudes are horizontal lines that measure distance north or south of the equator. Longitudes are vertical lines that measure east or west of the meridian in Greenwich, England. Together, latitude and longitude enable cartographers, geographers and others to locate points or places on the globe.
Why is it called latitude?They are named after the angle created by a line connecting the latitude and the center of the Earth, the line connecting the equator and the center of Earth. Latitudes specify the north-south position of a location on the globe.
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Blood pressure values are often reported to the nearest 5 mmhg (100, 105, 110, etc.). the actual blood pressure values for nine randomly selected individuals are given below.(a) What is the median of the reported blood pressure values?(b) Suppose the blood pressure of the second individual is 117.9 rather than 117.4(a small change in a single value). What is the new median of the reported values?(c) What does this say about the sensitivity of the median to rounding or grouping in the data?A. When there is rounding or grouping, the median can be highly sensitive to small change.B. When there is rounding or grouping, the median is only sensitive to large changes.C. When there is rounding or grouping, the median is not sensitive to small changes.
(a) The median of the reported blood pressure values is 117.4.
(b) If the blood pressure of the second individual is 117.9 rather than 117.4 (a small change in a single value), the new median of the reported values is 117.9.
(c) The sensitivity of the median to rounding or grouping in the data is when there is rounding or grouping, the median can be highly sensitive to small changes.
Thus, the answers are
(a) 117.4
(b) 117.9
(c) A
We are given the following data set in the question:
108.6, 117.4, 128.4, 120.0, 103.7, 112.0, 98.3, 121.5, 123.2
Median:
If n is odd, then
Median = [tex]\frac{n+1}{2}[/tex]th term
If n is even, then
Median = [tex]\frac{\frac{n}{2}th term+(\frac{n}{2} +1)th term }{2}[/tex]
n = 9
a) Mediаn of the reported blood pressure vаlues
Sorted Vаlues: 98.3, 103.7, 108.6, 112.0, 117.4, 120.0, 121.5, 123.2, 128.4
Mediаn = [tex]\frac{9 + 1th}{2} term[/tex] = [tex]5^{th}[/tex] term = 117.4
b) New median of the reported values
Dаtа: 108.6, 117.9, 128.4, 120.0, 103.7, 112.0, 98.3, 121.5, 123.2
Sorted Vаlues: 98.3, 103.7, 108.6, 112.0, 117.9, 120.0, 121.5, 123.2, 128.4
New Mediаn = [tex]\frac{9 + 1th}{2} term[/tex] = [tex]5^{th}[/tex] term = 117.9
c) Since mediаn is а position bаsed descriptive stаtistics, а smаll chаnge in vаlues cаn bring а chаnge in the mediаn vаlue аs the order of the dаtа mаy chаnge. Thus, when there is rounding or grouping, the mediаn cаn be highly sensitive to smаll chаnges.
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the nurse is caring for clients with chronic respiratory disorders. for which client with cyanosis should the nurse intervene first? the client with cyanosis and:
The nurse should intervene first for the client with cyanosis and anemia of chronic disease and a hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL (87 g/L).
This client's low hemoglobin level indicates a deficiency in red blood cells that deliver oxygen. Due to the deficiency of oxygen in the blood, this might result in cyanosis, or a bluish staining of the skin and mucous membranes. The client's long-term respiratory condition may become worse due to anemia, which can also lead to exhaustion, weakness, and shortness of breath. In order to address this client's anemia and enhance their oxygenation status, the nurse needs to give their care first priority.
Reduced blood supply to the brain brought on by high blood pressure can also result in disorientation, lightheadedness, and even unconsciousness. In order to avoid any more issues, it is imperative to handle this client's blood pressure as soon as feasible.
Complete question:
The nurse is caring for clients with chronic respiratory disorders. For which client with cyanosis should the nurse intervene first? The client with cyanosis and:
a) a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
b) anemia of chronic disease and a hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL (87 g/L).
c) polycythemia and a hemoglobin of 16.8 g/dL (168 g/L).
d) a blood pressure of 155/95 mm Hg.
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a nurse is preparing to teach a client about the importance of contraception and safe-sex practices. which factors can most affect the nurse's teaching strategies for this client? select all that apply.
She would lecture about contraception using a variety of approaches, depending on the resources that are available, her preferred learning style, and the audience's literacy level.
What is an illustration of a direct measuring technique that is employed to assess the teaching-learning process?In order to assess student learning in the classroom, direct measurements are frequently used. Direct measures are those that evaluate actual student work samples to gauge how well students are learning.
Which instance of providing emotional support does the nurse use in the lesson?"An example of emotional support is being able to confide in your spouse." A group in the community receives information about social networks from the nurse.
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what would be an appropriate dose of azithromycin immediate release administered by iv for a baby weighing 17 lbs? how does your calculated dose compare with that indicated by dr. loiselle?
An infant weighing 17 pounds should receive 10 mg/kg/dose (maximum: 500 mg/dose) of azithromycin (immediate release) delivered intravenously once daily until symptoms subside.
What is azithromycin used for?
Azithromycin is used to treat STDs, bronchitis, pneumonia, infections of the lungs, sinuses, skin, throat, reproductive organs, and other bacterial illnesses.Azithromycin is used to treat or prevent disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection, a type of lung infection that frequently affects people with HIV.Azithromycin is a member of this class of medications known as macrolide antibiotics. This is how azithromycin works, by stopping bacterial growth.Avoid using aluminum- or magnesium-containing antacids for two hours before or after taking azithromycin. Acid Gone, Aldroxicon, Alterna gel, Di-Gel, Gaviscon, Gelusil, Genaton, Maalox, Maldroxal, Milk of Magnesia, Mintox, Mylagen, Mylanta, Pepcid Complete, Rolaids, and more products fall under this category.To learn more about Azithromycin refer to:
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while assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remains peaked. this is a sign of
While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remains peaked. This is a sign of dehydration.
Dehydration can result from factors other than underlying diseases. Examples include heat, intense exercise, dehydration, excessive perspiration, or adverse drug reactions.
Dehydration occurs when you don't drink enough water or when you lose a lot of water rapidly, such when you sweat, throw up, or have diarrhoea. Dehydration and excessive urination are possible side effects of several drugs, including diuretics (water pills).
Your blood gets more concentrated as you lose fluid, which makes your cardiovascular system work harder to effectively pump blood. You urinate less when your blood concentration is high because your kidneys are retaining more water.
Water is the ideal option for daily hydration since it has no sugar, calories, or caffeine. Your daily fluid requirements are met by all of the foods and beverages you consume.
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This is a sign of poor skin turgor, which is a sign of dehydration. Skin turgor is the ability of the skin to return to its normal position after being pinched or pulled.
With poor skin turgor, the skin remains peaked after being pinched and does not return to its normal position. Dehydration occurs when the body does not have enough water and other fluids to function properly.
Dehydration can be caused by not drinking enough fluids, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, excessive sweating, and some medications. It is important to assess a patient’s hydration status, particularly the elderly, as dehydration can lead to serious health problems. To assess skin turgor, pinch the skin on the back of the hand for about 2 seconds and then release.
A normal response is for the skin to flatten out within 2 seconds. Poor skin turgor is an indication that the patient is dehydrated and needs to increase their fluid intake.
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the nurse is providing care for a client following a bone biopsy. which action by the nurse is unnecessary in the care of this client?
The nurse's activity of administering intramuscular opioid analgesics is unnecessary in the client's treatment following a bone biopsy.
A biopsy is a technique that involves removing tissue or germs from the body to be examined under a microscope. A bone biopsy is a process in which bone samples are extracted (either with a specific biopsy needle or even during surgery) to determine the presence of cancer or other abnormal cells. A bone biopsy involves the bone's outer layers, as opposed to a bone marrow biopsy, that involves the bone's interior layers.
A bone biopsy can be performed as an outpatient procedure or as part of a hospital stay. Procedures may differ based on your situation and the procedures of your healthcare practitioner. Furthermore, certain biopsies may be performed under local anaesthetic to numb the region. Others may be performed with general or spinal anaesthetic. You will lose feeling from ones waist down if spinal anaesthetic is administered. Your healthcare professional will go through this with you ahead of time.
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which statement by the client who suffered a strained ankle 2 days earlier (which is still swollen and painful) indicates the need for further teaching?
The customer, who had a strained ankle two days prior, says that I should apply ice.
What key benefit is unique to external fixation devices?infection risk is lower than with internal fixators. little harm to the blood supply of the broken bone. a greater degree of local control than non-invasive immobilization methods like slings and casts. greater adaptability than internal fixators.
How may external fixation's stability be improved?Modifying the pin configuration is one way to alter stability. The stiffness of the construct can be increased by adding additional pins, spacing them farther apart, and placing pins closer to the fracture site.
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Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?
a. Barbell squats
b. Medicine ball catch and pass
c. Stability ball plank
d. Suspended bodyweight crunch
Exercises involving catch and pass with a medicine ball could result in more incorrect heart rate measurements when using a wrist-worn monitor.
The applicability of wearable sensor technology has gradually expanded to include a large number of well-known applications. Wearable sensors are frequently used for human activity detection and quantified self-assessment since they can typically analyse and quantify the wearer's physiology. Wearable sensors are being used more and more to track patient health, diagnose diseases more quickly, and forecast and frequently enhance patient outcomes. Clinicians ask patients to self-report their symptoms and perform standardised tests to measure their functional abilities. These evaluations require a lot of time and money and rely on the patient's memory. Furthermore, measurements might not be a reliable indicator of the patient's functional capacity at home. In a variety of applications, wearable sensors can be used to identify and measure particular movements.
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client returns to the clinic two days after receiving treatment for diarrhea caused by a campylobacter jejuni infection. the client reports a tingling sensation that began in the toes yesterday and has spread to the feet and legs today. the nurse notes muscle weakness in the legs and that the client is having difficulty walking steadily. based on this data, what does the nurse suspect is wrong with the client?
1., 2., 3., & 6. Correct: Anxiety, agitation, insomnia, and tremors are the first symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Throughout withdrawal, there is a tachycardia of 120–140 per minute.
What triggers insomnia?Stress, an inconsistent sleep pattern, poor sleep pattern, mental health conditions including anxiety and depression, physical ailments and pain, drugs, neurological issues, and particular sleep disorders are some of the common causes of insomnia.
How can insomnia be determined?A specialized test to identify insomnia does not exist. A medical professional will do a physical examination and quiz you to find more about your sleep problems and symptoms. Assessing your sleep history with a physician is essential for the diagnosis of insomnia.
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the health care provider prescribes an oral hypoglycemic medication for the client with type 2 diabetes. which statement will the nurse need to consider when developing the teaching plan?
the health care provider prescribes an oral hypoglycemic medication for the client with type 2 diabetes, Clients taking oral hypoglycemics may subconsciously relax dietary rules to gain a sense of control will the nurse need to consider when developing the teaching plan
What is type 2 diabetes?It is the most prevalent kind of diabetes. Your body improperly uses insulin if you have type 2. And although some individuals can regulate their blood glucose (blood sugar) levels with good nutrition and exercise, others might need to use insulin or prescription medications to do so. It doesn't matter; you have all you need to combat it.
The disease is severe and may last a lifetime. If you have type 2 diabetes and are not receiving medication, excessive blood sugar levels have the potential to significantly harm your feet, heart, and eyes. The complications of diabetes are these.
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The complete question is as follows:
The health care provider prescribes an oral hypoglycemic for the client with type 2 diabetes. What will the nurse need to consider when developing the teaching plan?
1. Oral hypoglycemics work by decreasing absorption of carbohydrates.
2. Oral hypoglycemics work by stimulating the pancreas to produce insulin.
3. Clients taking oral hypoglycemics may subconsciously relax dietary rules to gain a sense of control.
4. Clients with type 2 diabetes do not need to be concerned about serious adverse effects from oral hypoglycemics.
mr. penny, age 67, was diagnosed with chronic angina several months ago and has been unable to experience adequate relief of his symptoms. as a result, his physician has prescribed ranolazine (ranexa). which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ranolazine for the treatment of this patient's angina?
Mr. Penny has to have beta blockers, nitrates, or calcium channel blockers concurrently. So, option 3 is correct alternative.
When metformin and ranolazine are combined, metformin levels are increased. Check the side effects of metformin and the patients' blood sugar levels. Serum creatinine, BUN, and urine output should all be monitored when a patient's CrCl is less than 60 ml per minute. Ranolazine works primarily by inhibiting late INa, which stops the cell from becoming sodium-overloaded. When calcium ions are present, the heart muscle typically beats. Ranolazine is supposed to ease the symptoms of angina pectoris, improve blood flow to the heart muscle, and lower the flow of calcium into the cells, which all contribute to the heart's ability to relax. Myocardial contractions that are defective and unusually protracted are reduced, which lowers myocardial oxygen demand. Ranolazine is thought to improve coronary blood flow while simultaneously increasing diastolic function.
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The complete question is:
Mr. Penny, 67, was given a chronic angina diagnosis a few months ago but has yet to receive adequate symptomatic relief. Consequently, his doctor has prescribed ranolazine for him (ranexa). Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ranolazine for the treatment of this patient's angina?
1) Mr. Penny calls the doctor's office and complains that she feels dizzy.
2) Grapefruit juice should be consumed by Mr. Penny.
3) Mr. Penny has to have beta blockers, nitrates, or calcium channel blockers concurrently.
4) For the treatment of stable angina, Mr. Penny's doctor prescribes sublingual nitroglycerin.
You are preparing to clean up a spill of blood that occurred while caring for a patient. Which solution would be most appropriate to use?
A alcohol
B chlorine bleach
C hydrogen peroxide
D liquid soap
The best solution to use would be chlorine bleach.
What are chlorine's five uses?Numerous industrial applications exist for chlorine as well. Including the manufacturing of polymers like PVC, solvents like contains three different, chloroform, and dichloromethane, as well as bulk goods like bleached paper products. In addition, it is utilized in the production of paints, textile colors, antiseptics, and medicines.
Is chlorine a disinfectant?The foundations of pool chlorine. Let's first clarify something: bleach is composed of chlorine. Chemically speaking, liquid Clorox and pool-grade chlorine are nearly identical. They aren't produced using the same amounts of chlorine, though. To destroy hazardous germs, chlorine is added to water supplies and pool water.
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which of the following methods of sterilization is a safer method of sterilizing heat- and moisture-sensitive items in hospitals?
In hospitals, gas plasma technology offers a safer way to sterilize heat- and moisture-sensitive items. So, option "c" is the correct one.
Sterilization: What is it?In healthcare facilities, sterilization is a process that uses physical or chemical means to remove or eliminate all types of microbial life. Sterilization, which usually involves surgical treatments, eliminates a person's ability to procreate. Early in the 20th century, sterilization initiatives were undertaken in several nations.
Why is sterilization important?Sterilization is the technique used to eradicate all bacterial, viral, fungal, and microbial pathogens. Before and after medical event, disinfection techniques stop the spread of germs. It will safeguard both the patients and the health care provider.
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The complete question is -
Which of the following methods of sterilization is a safer method of sterilizing heat- and moisture- sensitive items in hospitals?
a) chemicals
b) autoclaving
c) gas plasma technology
d) ethylene oxide
a patient's hr decreases from 63 to 50 beats/minute on the cardiac monitor. what should you do first?
In case of decrease in the heart rate from 63 to 50 beats/minute, the first action to be taken is: measuring the blood pressure of the patient.
Heart rate is defined as the number of time heart beats each minute, i.e., the number of time it pumps blood into the arteries of the body. The average heart rate of a normal adult human ranged from 60-100. Children often have a faster range of heart rate from 80- 120.
Blood pressure is defined as the force with which the heart pumps blood into the large arteries of the body. In case of a dropping heart rate, the blood pressure should be measured first to decide what kind of medication needs to be given to the patient.
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Which of the following vital signs would be abnormally elevated, or increased, in a resting adult patient?Select one:A. Body temperature 97 FB. Pulse 110/minuteC. BP 110/80D. Respiration rate 12/minute
Body temprature 97 F is vital signs would be abnormally elevated, or increased, in a resting adult patient.
The amount of heat in the body is measured by its temperature. Healthy adults typically have body temperatures around 98.6°F (37°C), however this varies a little bit from person to person and during the day. A temperature reading that is higher than this range is regarded as elevated or increased and may signify an infection or underlying sickness. The significance of keeping an eye on body temperature comes from the fact that it is one of the most essential indicators of one's health and can give valuable information on the operation of one's body's metabolic processes.
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true or false? medical assistants should always use appropriate personal protective equipment (ppe) when contact with body fluids is expected during a procedure.
Physician assistants should always wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) if the statement that body fluids are likely to be generated during the procedure is correct/true.
Personal protective equipment (PPE) is special clothing or equipment worn by employees to protect them from infectious agents. Personal protective equipment, commonly referred to as "PPE", is equipment worn to minimize exposure to various hazards. Examples of PPE include gloves, foot, and eye protection, hearing protection (ear plugs, muffs), helmet, respirator, and full body suit. Eye and face protection, then the hand protection, the body protection, respiratory protection, and hearing protection thse are the components if the PPE. It will be useful in keeping the life of the working people safe.
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the attached picture is from a blood smear stained with brilliant cresyl blue, a supravital stain. select which cell(s) would be identified as reticulocyte.
The attached picture is from a blood smear stained with brilliant cresyl blue, a supravital stain ,slightly immature red blood cells would be identified as reticulocyte.
A reticulocyte count is a blood test that measures the amount of these cells in the blood.
Reticulocytes can be counted by instrumentation or by haemocytometer. Automated reticulocyte counts are performed similarly to automated RBCs. Before counting, red blood cells are stained with a dye that stains for nucleic acid (such as acridine orange) to differentiate reticulocytes from mature red blood cells.
The aggregate reticulocytes are red cells with clumps of blue-stained granules and the punctate reticulocytes are red cells with fewer, smaller blue granules.
Reticulocytes are made in the bone marrow and sent into the bloodstream. About two days after they form, they develop into mature red blood cells.
The normal reticulocyte count ranges between 0.5 % to 2.5% in adults and 2% to 6% in infants.
Emolytic anemias: These anemias are a result of red blood cell destruction. The bone marrow is still functional and has the required components to create reticulocytes. It responds to anemia by increasing the synthesis of reticulocytes,
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the client is a clerical assistant for an inpatient hospital unit. he spends most of his day at a desk. what would the nurse advise the clerical assistant to do to minimize damage to his musculoskeletal system? select all that apply.
The patient works as a clerical assistant in a hospital inpatient unit. He works at a desk the most of the time. the nurse would suggest to the administrative assistant.
Which customer would benefit from a triple cane the most?
Anyone who need greater balance consistency than a normal cane offers should use a quad cane. A quad cane should be used by very elderly and those who have had a stroke, hemiplegia, loss of feeling, or vertigo. A quad cane is also frequently helpful for those recovering from joint or knee replacement surgery.
After you've evaluated them, ask them to collect their walking aid, such as a cane, walker, or crutches, if there aren't problems. Verify that they are using it properly. Start ambulation by following the client and moving in the direction of their stronger side.
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which dietary education would the nurse provide to the parent of an infant with galactosemia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Nurse will assist you in creating a nutrition plan. They eliminate lactose and galactose from their diet. Instead, kids must abstain from milk and milk derivatives and get soy-based formula.
Galactosemia is a rare genetic condition, thus most people are not familiar with its symptoms or therapy. In American newborns, it happens in around 1 in 65,000 cases. Learn more about the disorder that prevents kids from using and breaking down the sugar galactose with this review. A baby or infant with galactosemia may exhibit the following signs and symptoms if given milk or milk products:poor nutrition, Vomiting\sJaundice,sluggish weight gain, Failure to gain back the weight lost at birth, which often occurs by the time a baby is two weeks old, Lethargy,Irritability, Seizures. Galactose-1-phosphate (gal-1-p) and GALT levels will be checked in confirmatory tests if galactosemia is suspected as a result of a newborn screening test. Gal-1-p will be elevated and GALT will be significantly depleted in a baby with galactosemia. Galactosemia can also be identified during pregnancy via an amniocentesis or chorionic villus biopsy. If newborn screening tests fail to diagnose a child with symptoms and they contain "reducing chemicals" in their urine, galactosemia may be suspected in those kids. If your child has galactosemia, a certified dietitian or paediatric metabolic expert can assist you in determining which foods to stay away from. Additionally, this expert can guarantee that your child is receiving the recommended amounts of calcium and other crucial vitamins and minerals. Gal-1-p levels can also be monitored to determine whether a child's diet contains an excessive amount of galactose.
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the nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter into a male client. as the catheter is inserted into the urethra, urine begins to flow into the tubing. when would the nurse inflate the balloon?
As you delicately push the indwelling uriinary caatheter tip into the , remind your patient to breathe deeply. Once uirine begins to drain, move it forward another inch, or 7 to 9 inches (17.5 to 22.5 cm) (2.5 cm).
When placing an indwelling caatheter in an uncircumcised male, what procedures should the nurse follow?A sterile sheet should go beneath the patient's buttuocks, and a feneustrated (drape with hole) sheet should go over the pienis. To the caatheter tip, apply a water-soluble lubbricant. Grab the pienis just below the glans and hold it up straight with your non-dominant hand.
How long should the caatheter be inserted for a male patient?Male caatheters typically range in length from 15 to 18 inches. Because of this physical difference, men need a male length caatheter because their uraethras are longer.
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a 32-year-old g2p2 woman presents for a health maintenance examination. she is in good health and takes no medications. she does not have a history of abnormal pap tests. and her last one was three years ago. her examination is normal, including her pelvic examination. a pap test is performed and returns as normal with high-risk hpv negative. what is the most appropriate screening recommendation for cervical cancer in this patient?
The guideline for the Prevention and Early Detection of Cervical Cancer from the American Cancer Society (ACS), , American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP), and the American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP).
The work of a pathologist do?A pathology is a doctor who analyzes body parts and bodily tissues. Additionally, he is also in charge of running lab testing. A pathologist is a critical member of the medical team who aids in diagnosis by other doctors.
Which four categories of pathology are there?Anatomic pathology, predominantly, criminal pathology, and laboratory are the other four core specialities recognised by the American Osteopathic Board of Pathology. It is possible for pathologists to complete specialized fellowship training in one or several anatomic or clinical pathology.
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the nurse has completed an assessment of a client's typical hygiene practices. how should the nurse best document the findings of this assessment in the client's chart?
The nurse can best document the findings of this hygiene practice assessment in the client's chart as "Client normally bathes and washes her hair every other day; applies moisturizer to dry areas on her elbows and forearms."
Hygiene is a series of practices performed to preserve health. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), "Hygiene refers to conditions and practices that help to maintain health and prevent the spread of diseases." Many diseases and conditions can be avoided or controlled by practising good personal hygiene and washing parts of the body and hair with soap and water on a regular basis. Body washing can help to prevent the spread of hygiene-related diseases. Data entry process documentation is a critical component of standard operating procedures and one of your most important data hygiene tools. Documentation is how you describe in detail, step by step, how to complete tasks in your database. Good documentation aids in ensuring that information is entered correctly, thoroughly, and consistently. It acts as a barrier against employee turnover and is the first step toward process improvement.
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