a 19-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of fever accompanied by chills, nausea, vomiting, and back pain. she denies any chest pain, cough, or urinary symptoms. on further questioning, she said she had 2 episodes of diarrhea yesterday with vague abdominal discomfort. she has no other significant past medical history, is on no medications, and has no allergies. family history is significant for hypertension in father and arthritis in mother. she is single, has no children, does not smoke or drink, and works part time as a waitress. on exam she has a temperature of 102.4°f, pulse rate of 110/min, bp 110/60 mmhg, and sp02 of 92%. mucous membranes are dry, and sclera is clear. lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. there is mild left flank tenderness and tenderness in the left costovertebral angle. labs: hb 12g/dl, wbc 17,000/ul, bands were 18% and platelets 350,000/ul. chest x ray and ekg are normal. urinalysis shows 35 wbc, 6 rbc, and no casts. question: what is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer 1

A 19-year-old woman has a 4-day history of fever accompanied by chills, nausea, vomiting, and back pain. She also complains of abdominal discomfort. Most likely diagnosis is : pyelonephritis.

What is pyelonephritis?

Inflammation of the kidney due to a bacterial infection is called pyelonephritis. The inflammation of the kidney is due to a type of urinary tract infection (UTI). The UTI begins in the urethra or bladder and travels to the kidneys.

The cause of acute pyelonephritis is gram-negative bacteria. Fever, frequent urination, and pain in the back, side, or groin are some of the symptoms.

Treatment for this disease includes antibiotics and often requires hospitalization.

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a 54-year-old man presents with chest pain. he has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. the pain is located in the middle of his chest and radiates to his jaw. the pain began about 20 minutes ago, and he rates the pain as a 10 on a 0-10 point scale, with 10 being the worst pain he has ever felt. he has had 3 similar episodes, but they have always resolved after 5 minutes or so of rest. he has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes a day for the past 36 years. he drinks 2 or 3 beers on friday nights. review of systems (ros) is positive for diaphoresis, acute dyspnea, and impending doom. ros is negative for fever, chills, and malaise. physical exam shows an obese, middle-aged man in moderate distress. bp is 148/80; pulse is 100; and respirations are 26. heart and lung exams are normal, except for tachycardia and tachypnea. he has no pedal edema. electrocardiogram (ecg) shows st elevation in leads ii, iii, and avf; this is a new finding when compared to ecg from 3 months ago. question: what is the diagnosis?

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A 54-year-old man has chest pain and has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Pain is located in the middle of his chest and radiates to his jaw, diagnosis is : diabetes mellitus.

What is Diabetes Mellitus?

Diabetes mellitus refers to that group of diseases that affects how the body uses blood sugar. Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make muscles and tissues. It is also the main source of fuel for brain.

Diabetes mellitus is more commonly known as diabetes. It occurs when your pancreas doesn't produce enough insulin to control the amount of glucose, or sugar, in the blood.

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the focus on low-glycemic load foods can aid in the control of diabetes. group of answer choices false true

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True. It has been demonstrated that soluble dietary fibers lower blood cholesterol.

Why is cholesterol so high?

When there is too much of the fatty molecule known as cholesterol in your blood, you have high cholesterol. It is mainly triggered by eating fatty foods, skipping workouts, getting overweight, smoking, and drinking alcohol. Moreover, it can run in families. By consuming a healthy diet and increasing your physical activity, we can lower your cholesterol.

Bananas lower cholesterol, right?

The potassium and fiber in bananas can decrease cholesterol and blood pressure. Bananas are particularly well-known for being a great source of dietary fiber, which encourages a strong body and immune system.

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which provision of the patient protection and affordable care act allows a 30-year-old law student with type i diabetes to get affordable health insurance?

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Congress approved a law in 2010 to make health insurance accessible for all Americans and stop the rise in medical costs. two channels are covered: -the extension of Medicaid using government funding to cover Americans with lower incomes.

The Affordable Care Act of 2010 is primarily focused on what?

The policy has three main objectives: boosting state control over insurance markets, maintaining Medicare and employer-based insurance coverage, and expanding Medicaid.

In order to minimise the rate of uninsured people, the ACA was passed with the objectives of improving the quality and cost of health care and boosting both public and private insurance coverage.

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the nurse is designing a program to control nosocomial infections on a geriatric unit of an acute care hospital. what strategy should be included in this plan?

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When changing surgical dressings, make sure sterile procedure is followed.

What types of tasks do nurses perform?

Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and perform medical operations, offer emotional support to patients' families, and educate the public about various health concerns. The majority of registered nurses work in tandem with doctors and other healthcare professionals in a range of contexts.

Possible candidates for the job include nurses.

Their duties encompass a wide range of post-operative surgical therapy duties. Heart, pediatric, or obstetric surgery is a popular area of specialization for surgical nurses.

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a client has been admitted to the postsurgical unit following a thyroidectomy. to promote comfort and safety, how should the nurse best position the client?

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The area of the brain that keeps the body's internal balance in check (homeostasis). The endocrine and neurological systems communicate with one another through the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus creates releasing and inhibiting hormones that initiate and stop the body's other hormones from being produced.

Why does the endocrine system often react more slowly than the neurological system?

The nervous system's neurons are linked, which speeds up signal transmission, but shortens the duration of activities. Due to the need for hormones to travel through the circulation, signal transmission in the endocrine system is sluggish, but the effects often remain longer.

Usually fast yet fleeting, responses to nervous system stimulation. Hormones are released into the circulatory system by the endocrine system in response to stimuli.

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the nurse identifies that a client receiving chemotherapy has lost weight. which intervention would the nurse take to improve the client’s nutrition?

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Following intervention should  be taken by the nurse who identifies that a client receiving chemotherapy has lost weight :

Promoting the consumption of chosen foodsEncouraging the consumption of modest, regular mealsGiving recommended antiemetic medications before meals

Chemotherapy is a medicinal therapy that employs strong chemicals to kill your body's rapidly proliferating cancer cells.

Chemotherapy is most frequently used to treat cancer because cancer cells reproduce and develop considerably more quickly than the majority of body cells. Chemotherapy medications come in a wide variety.

One or more anti-cancer medications are used as part of a regular chemotherapy program in chemotherapy, a kind of cancer treatment.

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a nurse is teaching a couple about how to use a condom. the nurse determines the couple can properly apply the condom when they state that it should be applied at which time to be most effective?

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Condom should be used at a time before penile-vulvar contact for maximum effectiveness.

A condom must be used whenever there is penile-vulvar contact because some sperm may be discharged with pre-ejaculation semen. Application is not required one hour in advance.

Condom would be ineffective to hold off until after ejaculation. However, the main objective of condom is to prevent sperm from entering the vagina, thus it should be in place before to any penile-vulvar contact.

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the nurse is caring for an elderly client who has experienced a sensorineural hearing loss. the nurse anticipates that the client will exhibit which symptoms?

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Nurse is caring for an elderly client who has experienced a sensorineural hearing loss, then the nurse anticipates symptoms like muffled hearing, difficulty in understanding speech, dizziness and ringing in the ear.

What is the sensorineural hearing loss?

Hearing loss caused by damage to the inner ear or the nerve from the ear to the brain is called sensorineural hearing loss.

Sensorineural hearing loss is permanent and causes include aging and prolonged exposure to loud noise in adults.

Treatment for this hearing loss is hearing aids and assistive devices. Sensorineural deafness that is present at birth (congenital) is mostly due to genetic syndromes.

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an older adult patient had a hip replacement. when should the patient begin with assisted ambulation with a walker?

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An older patient underwent hip replacement surgery. The patient should start using a walker with assistance ambulation  in 2 to 3 weeks.

What does ambulation signify in the context of medicine?

Ambulation is the capacity to move about independently, either with or without aids. One of its most important things seniors may do following surgery to avoid postoperative issues is to start walking right away.

Ambulation techniques – what are they?

These tasks are very important when a disabled person is going from one location to some other so that if the person can reach their highest level of independence. Activities like taking a shower, using the restroom, getting in and out of a car, and others are examples.

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an older client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (cva) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube (gt). what is the best position for the client for administration of the bolus tube feedings?

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Bolus enteral nutrition are already being given to an elderly patient with a cerebral vascular accident (cva) who is unresponsive through a gastrostomy tube (gt). The customer is in the best position at Fowler's to administer bolus tube feedings.

An important cerebral vascular accident is what?

Loss of blood supply to a portion of the brain in medicine, which harms brain tissue. Blood clots and ruptured capillaries in the brain are the main causes of cerebrovascular accidents. Dizziness, numbness, stiffness on one side of one's body, and difficulties speaking, writing, or recognizing language are among the symptoms.

Which of the following describe cerebral vascular accident symptoms?

Sudden numbness or weakness, usually across one side of the body, whether in the arm, leg, or face. Unexpected difficulty speaking, understanding, or perplexity. sudden vision problems in either on or both eyes. sudden difficulty walking, lightheadedness, losing your balance, or having poor coordination.

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the nurse on the vascular unit is preparing to administer medications to clients on a medical unit. which medication should the nurse question administering? enalapril to a client with a sodium of 138. propanolol to a client with hypertension.

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Nurses in the vascular ward prepare to administer medication to patients in the medical ward. A nurse must administer vitamin K (aquamephyton), one of the vitamins, to a patient with International Normal Ratio (INR) of 2.8.

When is Aquamephyton administered?

The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends giving vitamin K1 to newborns. A single dose of AquaMEPHYTON 0.5-1mg intramuscularly within the first hour after birth is recommended.

What is AquaMEPHYTON and why is it used?

Phytonadione injections are used to treat bleeding or blood clotting problems caused by vitamin K deficiency, certain medications (such as warfarin), or medical conditions (jaundice obstructive, ulcerative colitis). Phytonadione is a man-made vitamin K found naturally in the body.

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how should a nurse prepare to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (mmr) vaccination to a 6 year old child?

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The 6 year old kid should receive the MMR vaccination : Subcutaneously on the outside of the upper arm from the nurse.

The MMR vaccination, sometimes known as MMR, protects against measles, mumps, and rubella. Children typically receive the first dosage between the ages of 9 and 15 months, followed by the second dose between the ages of 15 and 6 years, with a minimum of four weeks in between each dose.

The MMR vaccination's second doses offer the strongest defense against measles, mumps, and rubella.

Two doses of the MMR vaccination should be given to children, the first at 12 to 15 months of age and the second at 4 to 6 years of age. Adults and teenagers should both be current on their MMR vaccinations.

The MMR vaccination is injected subcutaneously into the upper arm's outer surface. It's not advisable to provide injections to the gluteal muscle. The intramuscular method is not used to give the MMR vaccination.

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a set of concepts, definitions, relationships, and assumptions or propositions derived from nursing models or from other disciplines and which project a purposive, systematic view of phenomena by designing specific interrelationships among concepts for the purposes of describing, explaining, predicting, and/or prescribing is called:

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Set of concepts, definitions and relationships derived from nursing models and project a purposive, systematic view of phenomena by designing specific inter-relationships among concepts is : nursing theory.

What is nursing theory?

It is used to describe and explain a nursing action in order to make a hypothesis or predict its effects on the outcomes of client like improved health or recovery from illness.

Main purpose of nursing theory is to to generate a scientific knowledge. A conceptual model of nursing provides framework for reflection, observation and interpretation of phenomena. It also provides guidelines and for aspects of clinical practice.

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why are the caloric and micro/macronutrient needs per kilogram of body weight of children less than the needs of infants

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Energy is provided by foodstuffs full of protein, fat, or carbs. The amount of kilocalories, or "calories," required for each unit of a person's body.

Why do newborns require a higher amount of calories from fat in their meals than adults do?

Fat is crucial for brain function and neurological development, especially in infancy and early childhood. 40–50% of the energy in mother's milk and newborn formula comes from fat (Fidler et al. 1998).

Why can eating more fewer calories cause weight gain?

When a person stops burning fat, they get much better at retaining it when they eat more calories. Instead of counting calories, a good weight should be determined by the types of meals you eat with lifestyle changes like exercise.

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the laboratory identifies metamyelocytes in a 50-year-old patient who had a cbc performed. what might be an expected finding in this patient?

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The client must be a patient of splenomegaly.

What is splenomegaly ?

An enlarged spleen might cause catastrophic problems if left untreated. Most of the time, removing the spleen can be avoided by treating the underlying condition that is causing the enlarged spleen. The spleen may need to be surgically removed in various circumstances (splenectomy).

Vague abdominal discomfort is the physical symptom of splenomegaly that occurs most frequently. Patients may express pain in the left upper abdomen or shoulder referred pain. Additionally possible symptoms include early satiety, anorexia, abdominal bloating, and/or distension.

An enlarged spleen can be brought on by a variety of illnesses, such as infections, liver disease, and some types of cancer. Splenomegaly is another name for an enlarge spleen.

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the edrophonium (tensilon) test has been prescribed for a client. which statement by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understands this test?

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In order to evaluate a set of muscles, the client will be requested to do a repetitive action if the primary healthcare provider suspects myasthenia gravis (MG).

The edrophonium tensilon test: how does it operate?

Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular illness characterised by muscle weakness, and a Tensilon test is a diagnostic procedure performed to examine the condition. Tensilon (edrophonium) is injected during the test, and your muscular strength is then assessed to establish whether or not myasthenia gravis is to blame for your weakness.

What is the edrophonium Tensilon's mode of action?

Acetylcholine, which is produced naturally by the body, is how edrophonium functions. It accomplishes this by preventing the acetylcholinesterase enzyme from functioning. The nicotinic and muscarinic receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine.

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Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic?
A. Antacids.
B. Benzodiasepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics

Answers

B. Benzodiazepines
mixing the 2 could be deadly

When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (tylonel), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body
a. flank
b. abdomen
c. chest
d. head

Answers

Answer:The correct anserw is d.

Explanation:

beacuse if you dont stop the pain in the head he could have a stroke because of the beeding in the heads

the nurse is assessing a 3-day-postoperative client and the incision site. the nurse notes a moderate pinkish exudate on the dressing. this drainage is called .

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The nurse is evaluating the incision site and a patient who is three days postoperative. Serosanguineous drainage is the name given to this drainage.

Serosanguineous: What is it?

Serosanguineous indicates both blood as well as the liquid component of blood are present or are related (serum). Fluids that have been gathered from or have left the body are typically meant. For instance, the fluid that is exuding from a serosanguineous wound is yellowish and contains trace amounts of blood.

Serosanguineous drainage—does it signify recovery?

Serosanguineous discharge can sometimes look like clear liquid that has crimson blood scattered throughout it. The amount of clotted blood that is incorporated into the blood serum determines how the look changes. When it occurs in regular proportions, this type of discharge, a sign for healing, normally does not raise any issues.

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how do the hunger and satiety hormones respond to drastic caloric restriction and weight loss in overweight and obese individuals?

Answers

Hunger hormone levels elevate and satiety hormone levels decrease and remain at these levels for up to one year.

How does reducing calories help lose weight?

Regardless of where they come from, the calories you eat are either converted to usable energy or are stored as fat in your body. The calories you've stored in fat will stay there unless you burn them off. You can accomplish this by consuming less calories so that your body has to utilise its stored energy.

How does metabolism change with weight loss?

The basal metabolic rate refers to the number of calories required to maintain basal (resting phase) metabolism (BMR). BMR rises to around 0.02 kcal/min for every 1% drop in body weight when body weight falls.

What is the biological process of losing weight?

Leptin, a hormone generated by fat cells, starts to decline when you start to lose weight. The brain receives a signal from this that the body's "fat storage" is decreasing. The brain sends signals to the body to conserve energy and calories because it believes that famine is imminent.

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the nurse is monitoring an infant who was born at 0515 hrs. at 1315 hrs, the same day, the nurse determines the infant is starting to show yellowish staining on the head and face. which action should the lpn prioritize?

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The LPN should give documentation and reporting to RN first priority.

Which of the following situations can raise the chance that a baby will be born smaller than expected for gestational age?

Newborns may be little due to their parents' diminutive stature, the placenta's dysfunction, the mother's medical condition, or her use of drugs, tobacco, or alcohol while she was pregnant.

How long does a normal pregnancy last?

The average pregnancy lasts 40 weeks or 280 days. A baby is considered premature or preterm if it is born before 37 weeks of pregnancy. Infants who are extremely preterm are born between 23 and 28 weeks.

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the nurse is teaching a first-time parent about the newborn's sleep needs. the nurse would inform the parent that newborns sleep approximately how many hours in a 24 hour period?

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Newborns sleep for roughly 8 to 9 hours during the day and for around 8 hours at night, the nurse is explaining to a first-time parent.

What is a period?

When a woman flows for a number of days from her cervix, this is known as her menstruation. The majority of women have periods every 28 days or more, although it's common for them to occur somewhere since day 21 to day 40 in their menstrual cycle, which occurs more or less frequently than this.

What causes period?

Ovulation is the term for the monthly release of an egg from one of the ovaries. Hormonal changes also prep the uterus towards pregnancy at the same time. in the event that ovulation occurs but the egg is not fertilized.

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mr. z has recently had palliative surgery for colon cancer. the purpose of this surgery most probably was:

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Most likely, this procedure was performed to ease symptoms.

What is colon cancer palliative chemotherapy?

When colorectal cancer has spread to other bodily parts, palliative chemotherapy is used. In this instance, surgery cannot completely eradicate the cancer. Drugs used in chemotherapy may reduce malignancies, relieve symptoms, and lengthen your life.

Is colon cancer curable in its advanced stages?

When limited to the gut, colon cancer is an extremely treatable and frequently curable condition. About 50% of patients who have surgery are cured. Surgery is the main route of treatment. Recurrence after surgery is a significant issue and frequently the cause of demise.

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the nurse is caring for a client with an autoimmune disease. what is a characteristic of autoimmune disorders?

Answers

The basic characterisitic of autoimmune disorder is : Progressive tissue damage without any verifiable etiology.

What are the various characteristics of autoimmune disorders ?

Pathologic responses to self- or autoantigens are the hallmark of autoimmune illnesses; these reactions, which can be classified as autoimmunity or autoreactivity, are the root of a wide variety of clinical disorders.

The immune system can typically distinguish between your own cells and foreign cells. The immune system misidentifies a portion of your body, such as your joints or skin, as alien when you have an autoimmune disease. Autoantibodies, which are proteins released by the body, assault healthy cells. Some autoimmune disorders only affect a single organ.

Lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis are examples of common ones.

Numerous different tissue types and almost every organ in your body are susceptible to autoimmune disorders.

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a young child has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are consistent with otitis externa. what assessment question should the nurse ask to address the etiology of this health problem?

Answers

A young child with symptoms and signs those are associated with otitis externa has really been admitted to the clinic. Have you noticed a significant increase in your child's swimming lately .

Is external otitis serious?

If treated right away, swimmer's ear is typically not serious, but complications can happen. temporary loss of hearing. It's possible that you have distorted hearing, which generally improves once the illness is gone. persistent infections (chronic otitis externa).

To treat otitis externa, which antibiotic is used?

Acute otitis distal end and acute otitis media are two ear infections that can be treated with ciprofloxacin and dexamethasone mixture ear drops. Swimmer's ear, or otitis externa, is an illness of outer ear canal brought on by germs.

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a client diagnosed with colorectal cancer reports constipation to the nurse. which teaching will the nurse provide to help the client identify sign(s) or symptom(s) of constipation? select all that apply.

Answers

Watch for liquid bowel motions if there have been days without any. You might urinate less frequently or not at all.

What exactly is cancer?

Cancer is a condition when a few of the body's cells grow from out control and spread to other bodily regions. In the thousands of cells that make up the human body, cancer can develop practically anywhere.

How does cancer start in the body?

Gene mutations in cancer cells cause the cell to change from a healthy cell to a cancer cell. These gene mutations may be inherited, appear gradually as we age and your genes degenerate, or appear if we are exposed to factors that harm our genes, such as cigarette smoke, alcohol, or ultraviolet light (UV)

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which nursing action is appropriate when providing care to a hospitalized infant who is diagnosed with failure to thrive (ftt) due to inadequate caloric intake?

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When caring for a hospitalized infant who has been diagnosed as failure to flourish (ftt) due to insufficient caloric intake, it is permissible to use the phrase inadequate caloric intake, insufficient action.

What do you mean by diagnosed?

A procedure of determining a diagnosis, disease, or injury based on its indications and symptoms. For aid in the diagnosis, testing like blood work, imaging studies, or biopsies may be done in addition to a physical examination and health history.

How do you use diagnose in a sentence?

The test aids in the identification of cardiac disease. Over the last year, hundreds of additional instances have indeed been identified. The dermatologist was unable to identify the skin disorder. a rookie physician with limited experience making patient diagnoses The mechanic failed to identify the issue.

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a client is worried that her newborn’s stools are greenish, with an unpleasant odor. the newborn is being formula-fed. what instruction should the nurse give this client?

Answers

Greenish stools with an unpleasant odour are normal, for newborns who are formula-fed.

What are Stool characteristics?

Infant stools can come in a wide range of colours and textures that are considered typical. Meconium is the term for the first few days of an infant's life when their stools are dark brown or black and sticky. The stools will initially turn a dark green before turning yellow and seeming putrid.

What is Formula?

Formula is a dried milk powder that is used as a substitute for breast milk. In most cases, cow's milk, vitamins, and minerals are used to make infant formula. Babies are given formula in a bottle or cup after it has been blended with cooled, boiling water. During the first six months of a baby's life, the nutrients in the formula encourage growth.

Hence, greenish stools with an unpleasant odour are normal, for newborns who are formula-fed.

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which finding does the examininer consider abnormal when inspecting a 58 year old nulliparous patients cervix

Answers

When examining the cervix of a 58-year-old nulliparous patient, the examiner thought the cervix's lateral position was abnormal.

What is abnormal behavior?

Any conduct that is abnormal for a certain culture, statistically rare, harmful to the individual or people around them, or that is maladaptive. Such behavior is frequently taken to be a sign of mental illness or emotional illness, which can range from mild adjustment issues to a serious mental disorder.

What is abnormal example?

An illustration would be a mouse trying to flee even when it is blatantly impossible. societal norms are violated by behavior. People's behavior is viewed as abnormal when it deviates from the accepted social and moral norms of their community. An aberration or departure from the usual; an anomalous structure.

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describe the steps of the nursing process, then differentiate critical thinking and clinical judgment.

Answers

The nursing process consists of five steps: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.

Difference between critical thinking and clinical judgement?

Critical Thinking:

Critical thinking is a cognitive process used to analyze knowledge based on evidence and science. Critical thinking is a key skill or essential process of clinical reasoning. Critical thinking can be measured by valid, reliable and standardized tests that are not specific to the nursing field.

Clinical Judgment:

Clinical Judgment in Nursing consists of the cognitive, psychomotor, and affective processes exhibited through behavior and action within the four stages of clinical judgment: awareness, interpretation, response, and reflection. encompasses the development of clinical judgments in nursing students within its 4 phases can be evaluated using the LCJR in the simulation environment.

The nursing process consists of five steps: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.

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Prepare an outline for a conversation between the two owners: List your suggestions and the pros and cons for each.DAY FOUR: PREPARING FOR THE SALE (25 points)Choosing a ContractorUsing the Internet, locate six companies that offer sales training.Activity How would you go about choosing which one, if any, to use for your company? Develop a feature-benefit chart that applies to such service providers. what is figured bass? 1. when the bass part plays a repeated figure. 2. when the bass part is played by a high - pitched instrument. 3. an improvised bass accompaniment. 4. a series of numbers used in musical notation to imply chordal harmony >) The Johnsons set aside money in their budget for food for their anniversary party. They spent $320 but had set aside 25% more than that. How much money did the Johnsons set aside in their budget for food for the party? which technique is likely to discover a value that is 10x larger than the next highest value in a dataset of 500,000 records? group of answer choices basic statistical tests. visual inspection. advanced testing techniques. auditing a sample. what wireless security method allows you to configure access points to only allow connections from specific physical addresses belonging to devices you trust a nurse is caring for a 28-week gestation infant. what assessment finding would the nurse determine as being consistent with this gestational age? Anna works at an electronicsstore as a salesperson. Anna earns a 5% commission athe total dollar amount of allphone sales she makes, and earns a 7% commission Orall computer sales. Anna made a total of $2100 in salesand earned $119 incommission. Write a system of equations that could be used to determine the dollaramount of phone sales Anna made and the dollar amount of computer sales shemade. Define the variables that you use to write the system.Let Which of the following processes occurs in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes? a. transcription and translation occur simultaneously b. post-transcriptional splicing c. translation in the absence of a ribosome d. gene splicingTerma. transcription and translation occur simultaneously Name two hormone secretions of the kidneys. which of the following assumptions is associated with client change in humanistic therapies? a. clients must be passive and receptive to therapist input b. clients should experience anxiety c. clients must pay for therapy in order to be invested in it d. therapists must use specific treatment factors a nurse is managing a client's continuous tube feeding via an ng tube. how often should the nurse check for residual? Can someone please explain how to solve this type of equation? a nurse is preparing to conduct a neurological physical assessment of a neonate, including an evaluation of the major congenital reflexes. which reflexes would the nurse assess? select all that apply. Objects A and B interact with each other via both conservative and nonconservative forces. Let KA and KB be the kinetic energies, U be the potential energy, and Eint be the thermal energy. If no external agent does work on the objects then:A. KA + U is conservedB. KA + U + Eint is conservedC. KA + KB + Eint is conservedD. KA+KB+UisconservedE. KA +KB +U +Eint is conserved once the sales agents begin receiving email responses from prospects, they should prioritize their selling efforts by qualifying the prospects based on product need and ability to purchase the product. which two questions will you include in the agents' email response to preliminarily qualify a prospect for the purchase of a welcome home town home?