54= hours 6. Your local cable company charges $29.99 per month for a basic cable service. Premium channels are available for a surcharge of $5.95 per channel. You have $70 per month budgeted for cable

Answers

Answer 1

As you cannot have a fraction of a channel, you can afford a maximum of 6 premium channels within your monthly budget.

To determine how many premium channels, you can afford within your monthly budget, we need to calculate the available funds after accounting for the cost of basic cable service.

Given:

Monthly budget: $70

Cost of basic cable service: $29.99

Cost of each premium channel: $5.95

First, subtract the cost of basic cable service from your monthly budget:

$70 - $29.99 = $40.01

Now, divide the remaining budget by the cost of each premium channel to determine the number of premium channels you can afford:

$40.01 / $5.95 = 6.72

Since you cannot have a fraction of a channel, you can afford a maximum of 6 premium channels within your monthly budget.

It must be noted that that this calculation assumes that you have no other expenses related to your cable service, such as taxes or additional fees. It's always a good idea to check with your cable provider to confirm the exact pricing and availability of channels before making any decisions.

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Related Questions

A Commercial General Liability policy will exclude coverage for bodily injury and property damage arising from all of the following, except:
A
Workplace injuries, as obligated under Workers' Compensation laws
B
Host liquor liability
C
Insured’s intent to cause injury
D
Damage to the insured’s own property

Answers

Commercial General Liability (CGL) policies exclude coverage for certain claims. The coverage exclusions in a Commercial General Liability policy include bodily injury and property damage arising from all of the following, except:

Workplace injuries, as obligated under Workers' Compensation laws, host liquor liability, damage to the insured’s own property, and any act committed intentionally by the insured that results in injury or damage.Workers' Compensation Laws require employers to provide coverage for injuries or illnesses that occur as a result of an employee’s work. The policy, therefore, cannot exclude coverage for such workplace injuries. This is because workers’ compensation coverage is compulsory.

Hence, this option A is excluded from the coverage exclusion. A commercial general liability policy also provides coverage for property damage and bodily injury caused by the insured party. But there are certain limitations to this coverage, which are called exclusions. These exclusions are included to protect insurers against high-risk events that could result in large payouts. The intent to harm another person or damage property is an exclusion in commercial general liability coverage.Therefore, the answer is option C.

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In Draco Corporation's first year of business, the following transactions affected its equity accounts. • Issued 4,000 shares of $2 par value common stock for $18. It authorized 20,000 shares. Issued 1,000 shares of 12%, $10 par value preferred stock for $23. It authorized 3,000 shares. Reacquired 200 shares of common stock for $30 each. Retained earnings is impacted by reported net income of $50,000 and cash dividends of $15,000. • Required a.) Prepare journal entries to record the above transactions b.) Prepare the stockholders' equity section of Draco's balance sheet as of December 31.

Answers

a) The journal entries record the issuance of common stock, preferred stock, reacquisition of common stock, and the impact on retained earnings from net income and dividends.

b) The stockholders' equity section of the balance sheet includes common stock, preferred stock, additional paid-in capital for both common and preferred stock, treasury stock, and retained earnings. The total stockholders' equity is $70,000.

a) Journal Entries:

Issuance of Common Stock:

Cash $18,000

Common Stock (4,000 x $2) $8,000

Additional Paid-in Capital $10,000

Issuance of Preferred Stock:

Cash $23,000

Preferred Stock (1,000 x $10) $10,000

Additional Paid-in Capital - Preferred Stock $13,000

Reacquisition of Common Stock:

Treasury Stock $6,000

Cash $6,000

Net Income and Dividends:

Retained Earnings $50,000

Dividends $15,000

Retained Earnings $35,000

b) Stockholders' Equity Section of Draco Corporation's Balance Sheet as of December 31:

Stockholders' Equity

Common Stock (4,000 x $2) $8,000

Preferred Stock (1,000 x $10) $10,000

Additional Paid-in Capital - Common Stock $10,000

Additional Paid-in Capital - Preferred Stock $13,000

Treasury Stock ($6,000)

Retained Earnings $35,000

Total Stockholders' Equity $70,000

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You own a factory that hand-manufactures clay pots and molcajetes*. 8oth use the same amount of material, but the clay pot requires 2 labor hours to produce, while the mokajete requires only 1 hour. The clay pot. sells for $50 and has variable costs of $38. The molcajete sells for $35 and has wanable costs of $25, You're only able to employ workers for 2,000 total hours permonth. 1 What is the unit of conctroined resource in this scenario, and how much coetribution margin does each product provide per unit of constrained resource? 2. How many of each unit should this factory produce permonth if there are no demand constraints? 3 . If demand is limited to 1,500 of each type, how mamy of each type should be produced per month?

Answers

1. The total available labour hours, which are restricted to 2,000 hours per month, serve as the unit of constrained resource in this scenario.

By dividing the contribution margin of each product by the number of labour hours necessary to make that product, it is possible to determine the contribution margin per unit of constrained resource.The clay pot:

Selling price minus variable costs equals contribution margin per unit.= $50 - $38 = $12Contribution margin per unit of constrained resource equals contribution margin per unit / labour hours necessary, which is $12 divided by 2 hours, or $6 per labour hour.For the molecular jug:

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Commercial loans typically have a fixed rate of interest as compared to residential loans.

b. Commercial loans typically require a lower down payment that residential loans.

c. Commercial loans typically focus on the property’s ability of generating income before the borrower’s ability of repaying the loan.

d. Commercial and residential loans do not have different underwriting / loan decision requirements.

6. If you borrowed $500,000 and you owed $400,000 when the loan came due after 5 years, you would have obtained a(n) _________________.

a. fully amortized loan.

b. interest only loan.

c. partially amortized loan.

d. negative amortization loan.

Answers

Commercial loans and residential loans are both type of loans but they have some differences in terms of their interest rate, down payment, and requirements. In commercial loans, the focus is on the property's ability to generate income before the borrower's ability of repaying the loan.

Commercial loans typically have a fixed rate of interest as compared to residential loans. They typically require a higher down payment that residential loans. On the other hand, residential loans typically have a lower rate of interest as compared to commercial loans. They typically require a lower down payment that commercial loans.

Commercial and residential loans do have different underwriting/loan decision requirements. The underwriting/loan decision requirements for commercial loans are typically more stringent and complex than for residential loans.

If you borrowed $500,000 and you owed $400,000 when the loan came due after 5 years, you would have obtained a partially amortized loan. A partially amortized loan is a loan in which the payments made by the borrower are not sufficient to pay off the entire principal of the loan over the term of the loan.

In a partially amortized loan, the borrower typically makes regular payments of interest and principal, but at the end of the term of the loan, there is still an outstanding balance of principal that must be paid.

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Segmented Net Income, ROI, and RI. Custom Auto Company has two divisions—East and West. The following segmented financial information is for the most recent fiscal year:
East Division West Division
Sales $2,000,000 $4,000,000
Cost of goods sold 800,000 2,040,000
Allocated overhead 600,000 1,200,000
Selling and administrative expenses 360,000 380,000
The East division had average operating assets totaling $1,800,000 for the year, and the West division had average operating assets of $2,600,000. Assume the cost of capital rate is 8 percent, and the company’s tax rate is 30 percent. Division managers are responsible for sales, costs, and investments in assets.
Required:
What type of responsibility center is each division at Custom Auto Company? Explain.
Prepare a segmented income statement. Include the profit margin ratio for each division at the bottom of the segmented income statement.
Calculate ROI for each division.
Calculate RI for each division.
Summarize the answers to parts a, b, and c. What does this information tell us about each division?

Answers

The operating income for the West Division is $380,000 - (Cost of capital rate * Average operating assets) = $380,000 - ($0.08 * $2,600,000) = $124,800.

At Custom Auto Company, both the East and West divisions are profitable. In order to achieve profitability, managers are responsible for producing income, reducing costs, and managing assets in a profit centre.

Income Statement by Segment:

Divided into: East, West, and East

---------------------------------------------

Sales | $2,000,000 | $4,000,000

Selling and administrative costs: 360,000 | 380,000 Cost of goods sold: 800,000 | 2,040,000 Allocated overhead: 600,000 | 1,200,000

---------------------------------------------

Operating earnings: $240,000; $380,000

Profit Rate of Margin:

$240,000 / $2,000,000 equals 12% for the East Division.

West Division: 3.80% of $4 million is 9.5%.

Operating income divided by average operating assets for the East Division equals $240,000 divided by $1,800,000, or 13.33%.

Operating income/average operating assets in the West Division equals $380,000/$2,600,000, or 14.62%.

Calculating RI

Operating income in the East Division is $240,000 - (Cost of capital rate * Average Operating Assets) - ($0.80 * $1,800,000) = $96,000.

Operating income - (Cost of capital rate) for the West Division

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Which of the following is the best statement about the environment in which operations management functions?a. most organizations do not need to worry about competitionb. world-wide competition is not significant for most companiesc. government regulation is not important for companiesd. customers are more demandinge. none of the above is true

Answers

None of the above statements (a-e) can be considered true in the context of the environment in which operations management functions. Hence option E is correct.

In today's globalized and interconnected business landscape, organizations across various industries face intense competition from both domestic and international players. The rise of technology and digitalization has facilitated global trade, making world-wide competition highly significant for most companies, regardless of their size or industry.

Moreover, government regulation plays a crucial role in shaping the operating environment for businesses. Regulations vary across jurisdictions and can impact areas such as labor practices, environmental sustainability, safety standards, and product quality. Companies must comply with these regulations to avoid legal consequences and maintain ethical and sustainable practices.

Furthermore, customers in today's market have become increasingly demanding. With greater access to information, they have higher expectations for product quality, customization, responsiveness, and overall customer experience. Meeting customer demands and providing exceptional service has become a critical aspect of operations management.

Therefore, it is evident that none of the statements a-e accurately reflect the reality of the environment in which operations management functions. Businesses must consider competition, global dynamics, government regulations, and evolving customer expectations to effectively manage their operations and achieve success in the modern business landscape.

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The term marginal cost means the cost of an incremental unit of abatement the cost of the last unit of abatement average cost, which takes into account all of the abatement done rather than only the last unit the weighted average cost of all of the abatement done. A,B, and C are correct A and B are correct

Answers

The term marginal cost means the cost of an incremental unit of abatement and the cost of the last unit of abatement. The correct options are A and B.

A marginal cost is an addition to the total cost caused by producing one more unit of product.

The marginal cost is the cost of producing the last item or service.

Marginal cost is the difference between the cost of producing the current quantity and the cost of producing an additional unit of output.

The average cost is the total cost divided by the total number of units. It takes into account all of the abatement done rather than only the last unit.

The weighted average cost of all of the abatements done is a more accurate way to calculate the cost of abatement than using the marginal cost of the last unit of abatement.

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ACME Inc. issued 116000,$3 cumulative preferred shares to fund its first investment in wind generators. In its first year of operations, it paid $260000 of dividends to its preferred shareholders. How much are the dividends in arrears for the first year? Input your answer without a $ sign or comma. For example, if it is $123,456, input 123456 Your Answer: Answer

Answers

In this problem, we will calculate the dividends in arrears for the first year. Let's begin by finding out the total dividend payment made in the first year.Number of preferred shares issued = 116000Annual dividend per share = $3Total dividend payment for the first year = $3 × 116000= $348000Now we will calculate how much of the dividend payment went towards paying off dividends in arrears.Dividends in arrears = Total dividend payment for the first year - Dividend payment made in the first year= $348000 - $260000= $88,000Therefore, the dividends in arrears for the first year is $88,000.

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if unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed unrealized inter-company profits in beginning inventory, what will be the effect of the consolidation entries to eliminate unrealized inter-company inventory profits?

Answers

If the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed those in beginning inventory, the consolidation entries will adjust the inventory values by decreasing the subsidiary's inventory and increasing the parent company's investment in the subsidiary.

The consolidation entries to eliminate unrealized inter-company inventory profits depend on whether the subsidiary's inventory was sold or still on hand at the end of the period. Here's a step-by-step explanation:

1. If the subsidiary's inventory was sold by the end of the period, the consolidation entries will not be affected. Unrealized inter-company profits in beginning inventory are already eliminated when the subsidiary's inventory is sold to an external party.

2. If the subsidiary's inventory is still on hand at the end of the period, and the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed those in beginning inventory, the consolidation entries will adjust the inventory values. Here's the process:

  a. Calculate the difference between the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory and beginning inventory.

  b. Create an adjusting entry to decrease the subsidiary's inventory and increase the parent company's investment in the subsidiary.

  c. Decrease the subsidiary's inventory by the calculated difference.

  d. Increase the parent company's investment in the subsidiary by the same calculated difference.

  e. This adjustment ensures that the inter-company profits are eliminated, resulting in more accurate consolidated financial statements.

In conclusion, if the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed those in beginning inventory, the consolidation entries will adjust the inventory values by decreasing the subsidiary's inventory and increasing the parent company's investment in the subsidiary. This adjustment eliminates the unrealized inter-company inventory profits, leading to more accurate consolidated financial statements.

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aron, brown and claire formed a partnership business. their capital balances are: aron $100,000, brown $60,000 and claire $40,000, and the p/l ratios are: aron 20%, brown 50% and claire 30%. daniel wants to join the business with 20% interest for a total payment of $60,000. daniel paid the money directly to the partners. record the admission of daniel following the book value approach.

Answers

The adjusted capital balances after Daniel's admission following the book value approach are:

Aron: $130,480

Brown: $116,200

Claire: $67,720

Daniel: $52,400

How to calculate the value

Aron's new capital balance: $100,000 + $20,000 (20% of $100,000) = $120,000

Brown's new capital balance: $60,000 + $30,000 (50% of $60,000) = $90,000

Claire's new capital balance: $40,000 + $12,000 (30% of $40,000) = $52,000

Total adjusted capital = $120,000 + $90,000 + $52,000 = $262,000

Daniel's capital contribution = Total adjusted capital * Daniel's interest

Daniel's capital contribution = $262,000 * 20% = $52,400

Aron's allocated capital = $120,000 + ($52,400 * 20%) = $120,000 + $10,480 = $130,480

Brown's allocated capital = $90,000 + ($52,400 * 50%) = $90,000 + $26,200 = $116,200

Claire's allocated capital = $52,000 + ($52,400 * 30%) = $52,000 + $15,720 = $67,720

Daniel's capital balance = Daniel's capital contribution

Daniel's capital balance = $52,400

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K purchased a $10,000 Life Policy that will pay the face amount to her if she lives to age 65, or to her beneficiary if she dies before age 65. K purchased which of the following types of policies?
a)Limited-Pay Life
b)Term to Age 65
c)Whole Life Paid-Up at Age 65
d)Endowment at Age 65

Answers

The type of life insurance policy that K purchased can be determined based on the given information.

In this case, K purchased a policy that will pay the face amount to her if she lives to age 65, or to her beneficiary if she dies before age 65.The policy that aligns with these conditions is: b) Term to Age 65

Term life insurance provides coverage for a specified term or period. In this case, the policy will provide coverage until age 65. If K survives until age 65, the policy will expire, and no further benefits will be paid. If K dies before reaching age 65, the face amount will be paid to her beneficiary.

Therefore, the correct answer is b) Term to Age 65

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If you are an undergraduate student, you can borrow up to
$20,500 each year in Direct Unsubsidized Loans.
a) True b) False

Answers

a) True undergraduate students can borrow up to $20,500 each year in Direct Unsubsidized Loans. These loans are not based on financial need, and interest begins accruing as soon as the loan is disbursed.

The annual loan limit may vary depending on the student's dependency status, grade level, and other factors. It's important for students to carefully consider their borrowing needs and explore other financial aid options before taking out loans.

Undergraduate students can indeed borrow up to $20,500 each year in Direct Unsubsidized Loans. These loans are available regardless of financial need and are not subject to income or asset requirements. Unlike subsidized loans, interest on Direct Unsubsidized Loans starts accumulating from the moment the loan is disbursed. The actual loan limit can vary based on factors such as the student's dependency status (whether they are financially independent or dependent on their parents) and their academic grade level. It's crucial for students to assess their borrowing needs and explore other financial aid options, scholarships, or grants before relying solely on loans to cover their education expenses.

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Hatter Co. is expected to generate pre-tax profit of $4,683,500 this year. The board of directors have also announced that they will invest in an expansion project with a cost of $5,492,000. The project will be partially funded by a new $3,200,000 bank loan and the rest via retained profit. At the moment, the business has 675,000 shares outstanding and a market share price of $16.20. In addition, the corporate tax rate is 20%. (i) Assuming that the firm will pay out the remaining profit as dividends after it has financed its projects, calculate the dividend payout ratio of Hatter Co (5 marks) (ii) Determine its dividend yield. (3 marks) (iii) Assuming ceteris paribus, explain what would happen to the Hatter Co.'s share price after the ex-dividend date (relevant calculation is required here). (5 marks) (iv) Explain the theory that best describes the dividend practice of this firm. (4 marks) (b) You are considering these 2 stocks as potential investments: - Red Queen Ltd. is currently priced at $35. It will pay a dividend of $2.75 p.a. for two years, but no dividend in the 3 rd year. You plan to sell the stock at the end of 3 rd year for $45. - Cheshire Inc. is currently priced at \$35. It does not pay any dividends. You expect it can be sold at the end of 3 rd year for $50.50. You are in the 37% personal tax bracket. Dividends are taxed at the personal rate, but capital gains are taxed at a flat rate of 12%. Assuming a Ke of 9%, which stock is the better choice? (10 marks) (c) Critically discuss TWO (2) reasons when a share repurchase is better for shareholders (as opposed to a cash dividend). (Total: 33 marks)

Answers

(i) Dividend payout ratio is calculated as the amount of dividends paid to shareholders relative to the total net income of the company. The dividend payout ratio of Hatter Co. can be calculated using the following formula:Dividend Payout Ratio = Dividend per Share / Earnings per Share (EPS)EPS = (Profit - Tax) / Number of Shares outstanding (N)EPS = ($4,683,500 - ($4,683,500 x 0.2)) / 675,000 = $3.3475DPS = (Total Investment - Loan) / N = ($5,492,000 - $3,200,000) / 675,000 = $3.32148.

Dividend Payout Ratio = $3.32148 / $3.3475 = 0.0078 or 0.78%(ii) Dividend yield is the annual dividend per share divided by the current market price per share. Dividend Yield = Annual Dividend per Share / Current Market Price per ShareAnnual Dividend per Share = Total Dividend / Number of SharesN = 675,000Current Market Price per Share = $16.20Total Dividend = (Total Investment - Loan) x Dividend Payout RatioTotal Dividend = ($5,492,000 - $3,200,000) x 0.0078 = $12,429.60Annual Dividend per Share = $12,429.60 / 675,000 = $0.0184Dividend Yield = $0.0184 / $16.20 = 0.00114 or 1.14%(iii) After the ex-dividend date, Hatter Co.'s share price will decline by the amount of the dividend per share. In this case, the dividend per share is $0.0184, so the share price will drop by $0.0184 to $16.1816 = ($16.20 - $0.0184)(iv) Hatter Co.'s dividend practice can be described by the bird-in-hand theory. The bird-in-hand theory suggests that investors prefer dividends to potential capital gains because a dollar of dividends is worth more than a dollar of capital gains.

By paying out dividends, the company is signaling that it is profitable and that it has sufficient cash to continue paying dividends. This increases investor confidence and attracts more investors to buy the company's stock.(b)To determine which stock is the better choice, we must calculate the present value of each stock. We can use the following formula to calculate the present value of future cash flows:P = CF1 / (1 + r)^1 + CF2 / (1 + r)^2 + CF3 / (1 + r)^3 - Iwhere,P = Present value of the stockCF = Cash flowr = Discount rateI = Initial investmentRed Queen Ltd.:CF1 = $2.75CF2 = $2.75CF3 = $47.75I = $35P = $2.75 / (1 + 0.09)^1 + $2.75 / (1 + 0.09)^2 + $47.75 / (1 + 0.09)^3 - $35 = $36.53Cheshire Inc.:CF1 = $0CF2 = $0CF3 = $50.50I = $35P = $50.50 / (1 + 0.09)^3 - $35 = $7.24Since the present value of Red Queen Ltd. is greater than the present value of Cheshire Inc., Red Queen Ltd. is the better choice.(c)Two reasons why share repurchase is better for shareholders as opposed to a cash dividend are as follows

:1. Taxation: Share repurchases can be more tax-efficient than cash dividends because shareholders can defer paying capital gains taxes until they sell their shares. In contrast, cash dividends are taxed in the year they are received, and they are subject to both ordinary income tax rates and capital gains tax rates.

2. Flexibility: Share repurchases are more flexible than cash dividends because the company can adjust the amount and timing of the repurchases to meet its cash flow needs. In contrast, cash dividends are usually paid on a regular schedule, which can make it difficult for the company to adjust the amount of cash it distributes to shareholders.

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Suppose Dire Dawa University negotiated with a contractor two buildone building for an electronic library. However, the contractorwants to maximize profit from that building. The contractoruses both labor and capital, and the efficient combinationsof Labor and capital that are sufficient to make one building is given bythe function 0.25 L1/2K1/2 . If the prices of labor (w) and capital (r) are $ 5and $ 10 respectively.Find the least cost combination of L and K, and the minimum cost?

Answers

The least-cost combination of L and K is L ≈ 0.004 and K ≈ 0.004, and the minimum cost is $0.09.

The efficient combination of Labor and capital sufficient to make one building is given by the function 0.25 L1/2K1/2.

Given the prices of labor (w) and capital (r) as $ 5 and $ 10 respectively, we can calculate the least cost combination of L and K and the minimum cost.

The firm wants to maximize profit from the building, thus it would want to minimize the cost of production.

Therefore, to find the least-cost combination of L and K, we need to equate the cost of production (C) to the budget allocated to the project (B).

The cost function is given as: C = wL + rK where, w = price of labor = $5r = price of capital = $10B = Budget allocated to the project

Thus, C = 5L + 10K ≤ B Substituting L and K from the given function into the cost function, we get: C = 5L + 10K = 5L + 10(0.25 L1/2K1/2 ) = 5L + 2.5L1/2K1/2

This equation will be minimized by taking the first derivative with respect to L, equating it to zero, and solving for L. Thus, dC/dL = 5 + 1.25L-1/2K1/2 = 0 ⇒ L-1/2K1/2 = -4

So,[tex]L1/2K1/2 = 1/(-4)2L1/2K1/2 = 1/16L = 1/16² ≈ 0.004K = 1/16² ≈ 0.004[/tex]

Substituting the values of L and K in the cost function C = 5L + 10K, we get, C = 5(0.004) + 10(0.004)C = $0.09

Therefore, the least-cost combination of L and K is L ≈ 0.004 and K ≈ 0.004, and the minimum cost is $0.09.

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he company structure used to encourage innovation can include the appointment of a (n): Multiple Choice sales manager brand manager director of marketing advertising manager new product development manager

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The company structure used to encourage innovation can include the appointment of a New Product Development Manager to oversee and coordinate the creation and launch of new products or services. Option D,

Innovation is a critical driver of growth and competitive advantage for organizations. To foster innovation effectively, companies need to establish structures and roles that support and promote the development of new ideas and products. One key role in this context is that of a New Product Development Manager.

A New Product Development Manager is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the process of creating and launching new products or services. They work closely with cross-functional teams, such as research and development, marketing, and operations, to drive innovation from concept to market introduction.

The New Product Development Manager plays a crucial role in facilitating collaboration, communication, and coordination among different departments involved in the innovation process. They help define the scope, objectives, and timelines of new product initiatives, allocate resources, identify potential risks, and ensure smooth execution.

By appointing a dedicated New Product Development Manager, companies can establish a focused and streamlined approach to innovation. This role helps to bridge the gap between research and development efforts and the market, ensuring that innovative ideas are effectively translated into successful commercial products.

In summary, the appointment of a New Product Development Manager within the company structure can greatly contribute to fostering innovation by providing dedicated oversight and coordination of new product initiatives. SO Option D is correct.

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which of the following is true regarding bruno's sale of securities before the effective date of registration?

Answers

Before the effective date of registration, selling securities can result in penalties or legal actions. It is illegal to sell securities before the effective date of registration.

Securities should be registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) before they are offered for sale to the public. This registration process will include providing information about the company, the securities being sold, and the risks associated with the investment.Bruno, the owner of a company, needs to follow all the regulations set by the SEC to protect the investors from fraud. The SEC requires securities to be registered before they can be sold to the public. Thus, if Bruno sells securities before the registration process is complete, it would result in legal action and penalties. Therefore, it is illegal to sell securities before the effective date of registration.

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Printers is evaluating the delivery time of two courier delivery services in Cape Town. The belief is that there is no significant difference between the average delivery times. To test this, QQ Printers used both courier services on a random basis over a period of three months for deliveries to similar destinations. Courier A was used 60 times over this period and the mean delivery time was 42 minutes. Courier B was used 48 times over the same period with a mean delivery time of 38 minutes. Assume that the population standard deviation of delivery times is 14 minutes for courier A, and 10 minutes for courier B. Test at 5% level of significance, that there is no difference between the mean delivery times of the two couriers. 14. This is a (one/two) sided hypothesis test. (Choose the correct response) 15. What is the absolute value (correct to two decimal places) of the appropriate critical value to use in constructing the rejection region of this hypothesis test? 16. What is the absolute value (correct to two decimal places) of the test statistic? 17. What is your conclusion? 18. What is the p-value associated with the test statistic? 19. QQ Printers would like to know whether courier A is slower, on average, than courier B in its delivery times to clients. What is the p-value associated with this test statistic?

Answers

14. The two-sided hypothesis test is used when the hypothesis concerns whether or not the difference between two means is zero. In this type of hypothesis test, both the extreme ends of the distribution of the test statistic are critical.

Therefore, this is a two-sided hypothesis test.

15. The critical value (t-value) is 1.6714.

To find the absolute value of the appropriate critical value to use in constructing the rejection region of this hypothesis test, we use the TINV function, which is the inverse of the T distribution function.

TINV(0.025,107) = 1.6714 (correct to two decimal places)

The absolute value of the appropriate critical value to use in constructing the rejection region of this hypothesis test is 1.6714 .

16. The test statistic is computed as follows:

t = (x1 - x2 - D)/SE

where x1 is the sample mean of courier A,

x2 is the sample mean of courier

B, D is the hypothesized difference between the means, and SE is the standard error of the sampling distribution.

The hypothesized difference between the means is zero (i.e., H0: µ1 - µ2 = 0), so D = 0. The standard error of the sampling distribution is given by:

SE = √[s1^2/n1 + s2^2/n2]

where s1 and s2 are the standard deviations of courier A and courier B, respectively, and n1 and n2 are the sample sizes of courier A and courier B, respectively.

s1 = 14,

n1 = 60,

s2 = 10,

n2 = 48

SE = √[14^2/60 + 10^2/48] = 3.3762

The test statistic is:

t = (42 - 38 - 0)/3.3762 = 1.1848

The absolute value of the test statistic is 1.1848

17. At 5% level of significance, the appropriate critical values to use in constructing the rejection region of this hypothesis test are -1.6714 and 1.6714. Since the absolute value of the test statistic (1.1848) is less than the absolute value of the appropriate critical value (1.6714), we fail to reject the null hypothesis.

Therefore, there is insufficient evidence to conclude that there is a difference between the mean delivery times of the two couriers.

18. The p-value associated with the test statistic can be found by comparing the absolute value of the test statistic to the appropriate critical value(s).

Since the test statistic (1.1848) falls within the non-rejection region (-1.6714 ≤ t ≤ 1.6714), the p-value is greater than 0.05.

Therefore, the p-value is greater than 0.05.

19. The p-value associated with this test statistic is the probability of getting a test statistic value as extreme or more extreme than the observed test statistic (1.1848), given that the null hypothesis is true. Since this is a two-sided hypothesis test, the p-value is two-tailed.

The p-value can be found using the TINV function as follows:

p-value = 2 * (1 - TINV(0.988,107)

)where 107 is the degrees of freedom (df) obtained from the formula

df = n1 + n2 - 2, and 0.988 is the probability of observing a test statistic value as extreme or more extreme than the observed test statistic (1.1848), given that the null hypothesis is true.

p-value = 2 * (1 - TINV(0.988,107)) = 0.2388

The p-value associated with this test statistic is 0.2388.

Since the p-value is greater than 0.05, we fail to reject the null hypothesis that there is no difference between the mean delivery times of the two couriers.

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ABC pays a one time freecashflow of 163 in 1yr. The firm risk is related with a required return of 0.18. For what value could you sell the firm's unlevered equity for today?

Answers

Free cash flow (FCF) is a metric that represents the cash generated or produced by a company after accounting for capital expenditure (CAPEX) and any other expenses required to sustain the business.

It is calculated as:

FCF = Operating Cash Flow - Capital Expenditure (CAPEX)

In this problem, the company ABC has paid a one-time free cash flow of 163 in one year.

We need to find out the present value of the company's unlevered equity. To find the present value of the company's unlevered equity, we need to use the discounted cash flow (DCF) method.

The formula for DCF is:

DCF = FCF / (1 + r)n

where FCF = free cash flow, r = required return, and n = number of years.

In this case, the free cash flow is 163, the required return is 0.18, and n = 1 (since the cash flow is for one year).

DCF = 163 / (1 + 0.18)1= 138.14

The present value of the company's unlevered equity is 138.14.

This is the value at which the firm's unlevered equity could be sold today.

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What was the main reason of Pandesic's failing?
What was the main reason of Pandesic's failing?
The simpler, less expensive product did not have a target market.
The leaders of Pandesic did not have the right experience. They did not attend the right schools of experience. Therefore, they did not know the right questions to ask.
Intel and SAP were two very different companies. Therefore, synergy was impossible to achieve.
This joint venture required both companies to invest too much money.

Answers

The main reason for Pandesic's failing was that this joint venture required both companies to invest too much money.

Pandesic was a joint venture between Intel and SAP that was established to provide e-commerce services to small and medium-sized businesses in the late 1990s. The company was unsuccessful and was shut down in 2000. Pandesic had invested a lot of money in its proprietary software and customised services. As a result, the firm was unable to meet the needs of smaller firms, which preferred a simpler, less expensive product.The majority of Pandesic's customers were small and medium-sized businesses. These customers were often unable to afford Pandesic's services. Pandesic did not offer a simpler, less expensive product that would appeal to these smaller customers, according to some business analysts. Pandesic's complex, customised services were aimed at bigger, more profitable clients, but these clients did not see the advantages of outsourcing their e-commerce services to Pandesic.

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Which of the following has been the main tool The Federal Reserve has used to stabilize financial markets during the pandemic? Purchase of securities Direct cash payments to businesses Lowering interest rates below zero Direct cash payments to households

Answers

The main tool that the Federal Reserve has used to stabilize financial markets during the pandemic is "Purchase of Securities."

The COVID-19 pandemic has had a major impact on the global economy, leading to widespread economic disruption and financial market volatility. To prevent a financial collapse, the Federal Reserve has taken aggressive measures to stabilize the economy. The Federal Reserve has used various tools to stabilize financial markets during the pandemic, including lowering interest rates and implementing monetary policies like Quantitative Easing (QE).

The main tool that the Federal Reserve has used to stabilize financial markets during the pandemic is the "Purchase of Securities." This policy involves the Federal Reserve purchasing government bonds, mortgage-backed securities, and other financial assets in order to inject liquidity into the market. This has helped to stabilize the financial markets and ensure that banks have the cash they need to lend to businesses and individuals.

In conclusion, the main answer is the purchase of securities which is the tool the Federal Reserve has used to stabilize financial markets during the pandemic.

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In this question, you must show all your work.
Samuel made the following purchases of XYZ stock:
300 shares at $20.00/share in year 1
500 shares at $22.00/share in year 2
400 shares at $2Y.00 in year 3
Note: "Y" represents the last digit of your Seneca College Student Number. For example,
if your student number is 137598156, replace the letter "Y" with the digit "6".
a) What is the adjusted cost base of his shares?
b) No further activity in years 4 and 5. In year 6, Samuel sells all his shares in XYZ stock at $3Y.00/share.
Calculate his taxable capital gain from the sale of his shares.

Answers

a) Adjusted cost base (ACB) refers to the cost of an investment adjusted for tax purposes, for such events as stock splits, dividends, and return of capital distributions. It is calculated by adding the cost of investment and all expenses related to the investment such as broker fees and commission.

Then, divide by the total number of shares held by the investor.

The adjusted cost base of Samuel's shares is calculated as follows:

Total cost for year 1 =300 × $20 = $6,000

Total cost for year 2 = 500 × $22 = $11,000

Total cost for year 3 = 400 × $2Y = 400 × $26 =$10,400

Total shares = 300 + 500 + 400 = 1200 shares

Therefore, Adjusted cost base= ($6,000 + $11,000 + $10,400) ÷ 1200=$27,400 ÷ 1200= $22.83/share (to two decimal places)

b) Taxable capital gain is the profit realized on the sale of a non-inventory asset that was greater than the purchase price. It is calculated by subtracting the adjusted cost base (ACB) from the selling price.

Samuel's total selling price = 1200 shares × $3Y = 1200 shares × $30 = $36,000

Therefore, the capital gain on the sale of his shares is:

Capital Gain = Selling price - Adjusted cost base = $36,000 - ($22.83 × 1200)= $36,000 - $27,396 = $8,604

Therefore, the taxable capital gain on the sale of Samuel's shares is $8,604.

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why must an employer implement an exposure control plan? a. to reduce their malpractice insurance premiums b. to ensure that the employer does not receive penalties for not doing so c. to ensure proper employee protection measures d. to make sure all employees are trained on hipaa guidelines

Answers

The reason  an employer implement an exposure control plan is:  c. to ensure proper employee protection measures .

What is exposure control plan?

Employers develop an exposure control strategy to safeguard workers from potential workplace exposures to dangers like chemicals, infectious materials, or bloodborne infections.

Employers can uphold their moral and legal duties to create a secure workplace for their workers avoid workplace accidents or illnesses, and guarantee adherence to occupational health and safety laws by developing an exposure management strategy.

Therefore the correct option is C.

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canadian adventures has earnings per share of $2.86 and dividends per share of $1.80. the total equity of the firm is $750,000. there are 38,000 shares of stock outstanding. what is the sustainable rate of growth? group of answer choices

Answers

If canadian adventures has earnings per share of $2.86 and dividends per share of $1.80. The sustainable rate of growth for Canadian Adventures is 5.37%.

What is the Sustainable Rate of Growth?

First we need to calculate the retention ratio

Retention Ratio = (EPS - DPS) / EPS

Retention Ratio = ($2.86 - $1.80) / $2.86

Retention Ratio = $1.06 / $2.86

Retention Ratio ≈ 0.370

Next we need to calculate the return on equity (ROE)

ROE = Net Income / Total Equity

ROE = (EPS * Number of shares outstanding) / Total Equity

ROE = ($2.86 * 38,000) / $750,000

ROE ≈ 0.145

Now we can calculate the sustainable rate of growth

Sustainable Rate of Growth = Retention Ratio * Return on Equity

Sustainable Rate of Growth = 0.370 * 0.145

Sustainable Rate of Growth ≈ 0.0537

Sustainable Rate of Growth ≈ 5.37%

Therefore, the sustainable rate of growth for Canadian Adventures is 5.37%.

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Security A and security B both provide semi anual payment of 89 over 5Year. the annual rate of return for both securities is 6.5%. both securities will provide the smae number of payments, but the payments for Security A occur atthe beginning of the month and the payment for Security B occur at the end of the month. What is the difference in the present value of these two sets of payment?
12.86 18.96 15.86 25.98 24.36
Your employer contributes 50 a week to your retirement plan. Assume that you work for your employer for another sixteen years and that the applicable discount rate is 6.5 %,compounded weekly. Givn these assumptions, what is this employee benefit worth to you today?
24135.99
25852.63
24218.04
25920.55
21574.68

Answers

Both securities are essentially similar, except for the timing of payments. In general, the sooner the payment is received, the more valuable it is, so the present value of Security A payments will be higher than Security B payments.

in order to find the difference in present value of these two sets of payments, we must subtract the present value of Security B payments from the present value of Security A payments.

The present value of employee benefit given that your employer contributes $50 a week for another 16 years and the applicable discount rate is 6.5%, compounded weekly is as follows:

PV = payment amount x present value factorn the employee benefit is worth $30,231.54 today.

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A money is an item that has no use apart from serving as a commonly accepted medium of exchange. Modern examples include the dollar, euro, and renminbi. fiat inside outside commodity Question 9When a government confers courts are required to recognize the item as satisfactory payment of any monetary debt, and might settle disputes by requiring payment in the item. Unlike a it does not require the item be accepted in spot market transaction. forced money law; legal tender status legal tender status; forced money law publicly receivable; legal tender status publicly receivable; forced money law

Answers

Legal tender status is when a government confers courts are required to recognize the item as satisfactory payment of any monetary debt, and might settle disputes by requiring payment in the item. It does not require the item be accepted in spot market transaction. This means that legal tender status is publicly receivable.

What is legal tender status?

Legal tender status is when the government declares certain legal tender status to be usable as an instrument of payment for the discharge of debts and taxes. By providing legal tender status to a medium of exchange, the government effectively certifies that a monetary item is acceptable as payment for goods and services in any kind of financial transaction.

Legal tender status guarantees that any money regarded as lawful money by a country's government can be used as a means of payment for goods and services, as well as the settlement of debts. In this way, legal tender status makes it easier for people to trade, buy, and sell things in the economy. In addition, legal tender status provides some security for people who do business with others because they know that they can receive payment in legal tender.

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What is the difference between fiscal and monetary policy? How does fiscal and monetary policy affect national and global markets, and what are the changes that take place on a macro and microeconomic level?

Answers

Fiscal policy is concerned with the government's revenue and spending decisions, while monetary policy is concerned with the management of the money supply and interest rates.

Fiscal policy and monetary policy are two different types of policies used by the government to manage the economy.

The difference between these two policies can be explained in the following points:  

1. Fiscal policy is determined by the legislative and executive branches of government while monetary policy is implemented by the central bank.  

2. Fiscal policy involves changes in government spending and taxation, while monetary policy involves changes in the money supply and interest rates.  

3. Fiscal policy is designed to affect aggregate demand, while monetary policy is designed to affect the money supply, interest rates, and credit availability.  

Fiscal and monetary policies have a significant impact on national and global markets, and their changes can affect macro and microeconomic levels in the following ways:  

Fiscal policy affects the economy by increasing or decreasing government spending and taxation. An increase in government spending can stimulate economic activity, while a decrease in government spending can slow down the economy. Monetary policy affects the economy by changing the money supply and interest rates. An increase in the money supply can stimulate economic activity by making it easier to borrow and spend, while a decrease in the money supply can slow down economic activity. An increase in interest rates can reduce borrowing and spending, while a decrease in interest rates can increase borrowing and spending.  

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FIN200 CORPORATE FINANCIAL
MANAGEMENT
Why CAPM equation might be more relevant than other equations
when calculating the required rate of return.

Answers

The CAPM equation, or Capital Asset Pricing Model equation, is often considered more relevant than other equations when calculating the required rate of return. It takes into account the risk and return relationship of an investment and provides a systematic approach to estimating the expected return.

The CAPM equation, developed by William Sharpe, is widely used in finance for determining the required rate of return on an investment. It is considered more relevant than other equations for several reasons.

Firstly, the CAPM equation incorporates the concept of systematic risk, which is the risk associated with the overall market. It considers the relationship between the expected return of an investment and its sensitivity to market movements, as measured by beta. By including systematic risk, the CAPM equation captures the risk that cannot be diversified away and reflects the market's perception of the investment's riskiness.

Secondly, the CAPM equation provides a systematic framework for estimating the required rate of return. It takes into account the risk-free rate of return, the market risk premium, and the beta of the investment. This equation allows for a consistent and standardized approach to evaluating the return expectations of different investments.

Furthermore, the CAPM equation has been widely accepted and used in both academic and professional settings. Its popularity is due to its simplicity and intuitive appeal. While other equations may exist for estimating required rates of return, they often lack the same level of acceptance and empirical support as the CAPM equation.

Overall, the CAPM equation's consideration of systematic risk, its systematic framework for estimating required rates of return, and its widespread acceptance make it a more relevant tool than other equations when calculating the required rate of return. However, it is important to note that the CAPM has its limitations and assumptions, and alternative models and approaches should also be considered depending on the specific context and characteristics of the investment being analyzed.

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HW Setup an amortization schedule for a $96,000 loan, to be repaid in 33/4 years with quarterly payments at an interest rate of 8%, compounded quarterly. n=?? i=?? i=??

Answers

Setup an amortization schedule for a $96,000 loan, to be repaid in 33/4 years with quarterly payments at an interest rate of 8%, compounded quarterly`. solve the above question, we can use the formula:

PV = [C/(1 + i) + C/(1 + i)^2 + ... + C/(1 + i)^n] - B(1 + i)^-n

Where,PV = Present Value of the loan

C = Payment made at the end of each period

i = Interest rate per period

n = Total number of periods

The interest rate per period `i` can be calculated as `i = 0.08/4 = 0.02` (since the interest rate is 8% per annum and compounded quarterly)The value of `i` can also be considered as `2%`.

Substituting these values in the above equation, we get:

96000 = [C/(1 + 0.02) + C/(1 + 0.02)^2 + ... + C/(1 + 0.02)^33] - B(1 + 0.02)^-33

Now, let's find the value of `C`. We know that the loan is to be repaid in 33/4 years and there are 4 quarters in a year.

Therefore, the total number of payments `m` that needs to be made is `m = 33 × 4 = 132`.The amount of each quarterly payment can be calculated using the formula:

PMT = PV[i(1 + i)^n]/[(1 + i)^n - 1]

PMT = 96000[0.02(1 + 0.02)^15]/[(1 + 0.02)^15 - 1]

PMT = 96000(0.02 × 4.6419)/(4.6419 - 1)

PMT = 96000(0.09284) / 3.6419

PMT = 2448.98 ≈ 2449

Therefore, each quarterly payment should be $2449.

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The principle allows us to determine how much money we will need to achieve our future goals. The principle shows us how inflation impacts our money over time. The principle helps us determine our savings needs today, in order to meet our future retirement goals. The principle shows us how important time and interest rates are to the accumulation of wealth. All of the above.
In Chapter 1, Principle 3 espouses the time value of money. Why is this principle so important to financial planning?

More from this study set
False
A financial plan is only concerned with your future earnings and expenses. An examination of your current financial situation is not so important.
inflation.
An economic condition in which rising prices reduce the purchasing power of money is termed
your highest level of education obtained.
Probably the most important determinant of your future earnings will be
Both When you get married and When you have children are correct answers.
Based on the Life Cycle of Financial Planning, when would be a good time to review and possibly adjust an effective financial plan?
Stage 1: wealth accumulation
Suppose that you are a 21-year-old college student. What stage of the financial life cycle are you currently in?

Answers

The answer is "All of the above". The principle of the time value of money is significant to financial planning as it provides us with the most fundamental concepts necessary for future planning.

It aids us in making the most informed financial choices for ourselves and our families by informing us on how much money we'll need to achieve our future goals, how inflation affects our money over time, and how critical time and interest rates are to the accumulation of wealth. The time value of money is used to figure out how much you should save and how much you'll have to put away regularly to get there.

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Forwards & Arbitrage Opportunities
Suppose that the exchange rate between the US dollar and the Euro is Edollar/euro 1.1, and that you = expect it to be around 1.3 in 6 months from now. Suppose also that you have 10,000 dollars and that the forward rate of dollars per euro is Fdollar/euro = 1.2. Describe in detail the arbitrage strategy that you would engage in and calculate the profits you would obtain from it.

Answers

Arbitrage is the simultaneous purchase and sale of an asset to profit from the difference in price between two markets. The concept of forward rate arbitrage involves the difference between the spot and forward rate of two currencies. To take advantage of this arbitrage opportunity, traders would typically follow these steps:

First, convert the 10,000 dollars to Euros at the current spot rate:

10,000 USD * 1.1 (spot rate) = 11,000 Euros

Then, enter into a forward contract to sell Euros and buy dollars in 6 months time at the forward rate:

11,000 Euros / 1.2 (forward rate) = 9,166.67 USD

Now, we need to calculate how much profit we make by holding this forward contract. If the exchange rate moves as expected to 1.3 in 6 months, the profit would be:

11,000 Euros * (1.3 - 1.1) = 2,200 Euros

Converting this back to USD at the forward rate, we get:

2,200 Euros / 1.2 (forward rate) = 1,833.33 USD

Therefore, the total profit is:

1,833.33 - 9,166.67 = $7,333.33

By engaging in this arbitrage strategy, the trader would earn $7,333.33 in profit. This is a low-risk strategy because the trader has locked in a known profit by purchasing the Euros at the current spot rate and selling them forward at the known forward rate. However, in practice, the opportunity for forward rate arbitrage may not exist due to factors such as transaction costs, interest rates, and liquidity constraints.

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