4. calculate the blending department's cost of units transferred out to the bottling department for materials, conversion, and in total for june.
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The cost of the units transferred to the Materials Bottling Department in June is $1,080,000. This is calculated by multiplying the number of units transferred by the cost of the material per unit.
The conversion cost of the units transferred to the bottling department in June is $2,400,000. This is calculated by multiplying the number of units converted by the conversion cost per unit. The total cost of units transferred to the bottling department in June is $3,480,000. This is calculated by adding the material and conversion costs together. The mixing department's cost of the units transferred to the bottling department for materials, conversion, and the total for June can be found from the total materials and conversion costs required to complete production of the units transferred.
The question is incomplete, the complete question is:
calculate the blending department's cost of units transferred out to the bottling department for materials, conversion, and in total for june.
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Related Questions
what is the purpose of the auditor? multiple choice question. to report taxable income to the irs. to provide investment advice. to add credibility to the financial statements.
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The auditing is done to give the financial statements more credibility and to give the users of the financial statements an independent auditor's view on whether or not the financial statements are presented fairly in compliance with the applicable financial reporting framework.
An independent auditor's opinion on whether the financial statements are honestly presented in compliance with the appropriate financial reporting framework is provided to users of financial statements as part of the audit process. An audit is the examination of an organization's accounting records by an auditor, who may then physically examine the inventory to ensure that transactions are accurately documented and tally with what is stated in the book of accounts. To assess the veracity of financial accounts, work is being done.
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how did southern democrats most likely react to stephen douglas’s freeport doctrine?
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A Federal Slave Code was demanded by the South as a result of the Freeport Doctrine. They demanded that the Federal Government ensure the right to slavery in all territories.
Why was Douglas Plan a source of ire for politicians from the southern states?Democrats in the South worried Stephen Douglas' support for popular sovereignty would not go down well with southern voters. While popular sovereignty gave people the power to decide whether to allow slavery in their country, it did not guarantee that newly created states would agree to allow slavery to spread throughout the west.
What possible harm could the Freeport Doctrine do to Douglas' political reforms in the South?Douglas's reaction, in which he claimed that slavery could only continue in places with support from local police restrictions, is where the Freeport Doctrine was derived.
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sam is tasked with employing marketing-mix modeling to determine the effectiveness of various marcom elements in affecting sales volume. what will sam need to conduct this analysis?
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In marketing top-of-mind awareness refers to a brand or specific product being first in customers' minds when thinking of a particular industry or category. Top-of-mind awareness is defined in marketing metrics .
Co-branding is a marketing strategy that utilizes multiple brand names on a good or service as part of a strategic alliance. also known as a brand partnership, co-branding or cobranding encompasses several different types of branding collaborations, typically involving the brands of at least two companies. customer-based brand equity occurs when the consumer is familiar with the brand and holds some favorable, strong, and unique brand associations in memory. Issues in building, measuring, and managing customer-based brand equity are discussed, as well as areas for future research.
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sarah is an actively licensed broker for xyz realty, a registered real estate brokerage corporation. she has an opportunity to buy an existing real estate corporation, bbd realty, inc., in a town which is located 25 miles away. sarah wants to become the only broker for both corporations; however, she does not wish to change the name or combine the two corporations. how may sarah accomplish this?
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She has the chance to purchase BBD Realty, Inc., an existing real estate company in a town 25 miles away.
Which company can legitimately apply to become a real estate brokerage?Joint ventures and corporations cannot register as real estate brokers. To provide brokerage services, a general partnership may apply for registration with the DBPR. True partnerships do not exist in apparent or quasi-partnerships.
What responsibilities does the broker have to the client?When a broker becomes a client's fiduciary, he or she has a duty to treat the client's account with the utmost good faith, reasonable care, and loyalty. The broker also has a responsibility to stay informed of market changes that could affect the interests of the client, to act responsibly to protect those interests, and to keep the client's account in good standing.
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write
the full abbreviation of franco
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Applied to several adjectives and nouns, with or against France war between France and Germany.
What is an acronym's entire form?a printed word or phrase that has been abbreviated and substituted for its entirety. Amount is denoted by the abbreviation "amt. the act or outcome of shortening something: abridgment. "USA" is an abbreviation for "United States of America.
What is Paris's complete name?The Industrial Property Rights Paris Convention.
What does the term "foreign office" stand for?Over 14,000 individuals serve in approximately 270 diplomatic offices across The Foreign & Commonwealth Office's (FCO) global network of embassies and consulates.
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a financial advisor schedule an introductory meeting
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The initial encounter between a financial planning and a potential client is crucial since it establishes a client's first impression.
What exactly does financial planning entail?Establishing a company's ability to afford its strategic objectives and goals is the responsibility of financial planning. A business often develops a financial plan as soon as the vision and goals have been established.
Why is preparing your finances so important?With a well-defined financial plan, you have a measurable goal to work toward. You may make adjustments to help you get beyond any obstacles since you can track your progress, which removes any uncertainty or doubt about your decisions.
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True or False
1. Dividends paid to corporate stockholders have already been taxed once as corporate income
2. One advantage of the corporate form of organization is that income received by stockholders is not taxable since the corporation already paid taxes on the income distributed.
3. A corporation must have more than 100 stockholders to qualify for Subchapter S designation.
4. Corporate governance issues have become less important to the financial community during the first decade of the new millennium.
5. Agency theory assumes that corporate managers act to increase the wealth of corporate shareholders.
6. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is primarily intended to increase public scrutiny of private companies that had previously been exempt from many public disclosure requirements.
7. The primary market includes the sale of securities by way of initial public offerings
Answers
Answers are 1. False, 2. False, 3. False, 4. False, 5. True, 6. False, and 7. True.
Why the statements true or false in the given question?1. True - Dividends paid to corporate stockholders have already been taxed once as corporate income. This is because when a corporation earns income, it must pay corporate income taxes on that income. Any remaining profits are then distributed to shareholders in the form of dividends, which are then taxed again as dividend income.
2. False - One advantage of the corporate form of organization is that income received by stockholders is not taxable since the corporation already paid taxes on the income distributed. This is not true because when a corporation distributes its profits to shareholders, those profits are taxed as dividends at the individual shareholder's income tax rate.
3. False - A corporation must have more than 100 stockholders to qualify for Subchapter S designation. This is not true because a Subchapter S corporation can have as few as one shareholder.
4. False - Corporate governance issues have become less important to the financial community during the first decade of the new millennium. On the contrary, corporate governance has become increasingly important as corporate scandals have become more prevalent.
5. True - Agency theory assumes that corporate managers act to increase the wealth of corporate shareholders. This is because it is the fiduciary responsibility of corporate managers to act in the best interest of shareholders.
6. False - The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is primarily intended to increase public scrutiny of private companies that had previously been exempt from many public disclosure requirements. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is actually intended to increase the accountability and transparency of public companies by increasing the requirements for disclosure and reducing the freedom of corporate managers to make decisions without oversight.
7. True - The primary market includes the sale of securities by way of initial public offerings. An initial public offering (IPO) is when a company first offers its securities to the public. It is the first time the company has offered securities to the public and is the primary market for the company's securities.
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All of the following are part of the FASB conceptual framework: (Select all that apply).A,Multiple select question.B,ElementsC, ObjectivesD, Recognition and measurementE, Assumptions
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A,C,D, and E are all part of the FASB conceptual framework. The elements of the framework include assets, liabilities, equity, income, expenses, and gains and losses
What is liabilities ?Liabilities are a company's financial obligations or debts. They are usually listed on a company's balance sheet and can include items such as accounts payable, loans, mortgages, deferred revenues, and accrued expenses. Liabilities also represent the future sacrifices of economic benefits that an entity is required to make to other entities in order to settle a present obligation.
The objectives of the framework are to provide the basis for making accounting decisions, to guide the selection of accounting policies, and to provide a useful tool for resolving accounting issues. The recognition and measurement component of the framework includes the recognition and measurement of assets, liabilities, and equity, as well as the recognition and measurement of income and expenses. Finally, the assumptions component of the framework includes the economic entity assumption, the going concern assumption, the periodicity assumption, and the monetary unit assumption
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Assume that a company produced 10,000 units and sold 8,000 units during its first year of operations. It has also provided the following information: Per Unit Per Year Selling price $ 240 Direct materials $ 85 Direct labor $ 60 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 10 Sales commission $ 11 Fixed manufacturing overhead $ ? Fixed selling and administrative expense $ 250,000 If the company’s unit product cost under absorption costing is $208, then what is the amount of fixed manufacturing overhead per year?
Answers
The amount of fixed manufacturing overhead per year is $390,000
How to Calculate the unit cost?Cost of goods sold and unit costs are equivalent terms (COGS).
The costs both fixed and variable involved in producing a good or service are all included in this accounting measure.
Direct material per unit = $85
Direct labor per unit = $60
Variable manufacturing overhead per unit = $10
Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit = ?
Unit product cost = $194
Unit product cost = Direct material per unit + Direct labor per unit + Variable manufacturing overhead per unit + Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit
194 = 85 + 60 + 10 + Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit
Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit = $39
Number of units produced = 10,000
Total Fixed manufacturing overheads = Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit x Number of units produced
= 39 x 10,000
= $390,000
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select the three approaches marketers use to change consumer attitudes toward products and brands. multiple select question. change how consumers interact with the product or brand change the perceived importance of attributes change beliefs about the extent to which a brand has certain attributes add new attributes to the product
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The three approaches marketers use to change consumer attitudes toward products and brands are changing beliefs about the extent to which a brand has certain attributes
2. changing the perceived importance of attributes;
3. adding new attributes to a product
Option B,C and D is correct.
What factors have changed consumers' attitudes?A consumer's attitude is also influenced by their state of mind, such as sadness, happiness, rage, or stress. Conative Component: The final component is the conative component, which is a person's likelihood or intention toward a specific product.
What three factors influence consumer attitudes?There are three components to the tri component model of attitudes: a cognitive, emotional, and interpersonal component. A consumer's knowledge and perceptions (i.e., beliefs) regarding products and services are captured by the cognitive component.
Question is incomplete:
select the three approaches marketers use to change consumer attitudes toward products and brands. multiple select question.
A. change how consumers interact with the product or brand
B. change the perceived importance of attributes
C. change beliefs about the extent to which a brand has certain attributes
D. add new attributes to the product
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the radius of the procedural outer area of class c airspace is normally
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20 NM, An Outer Area is indeed the procedural counterpart to Class C airspace, even if it doesn't call for any regulatory action. An outer area's normal radius from the main Class C airport is 20 nautical miles.
What are the boundaries of Category C airspace on the sides?Class C airspace is constructed as two concentric rings centred on the airfield reference point using Standard Lateral Dimensions. The radius of the inner circle, also known as the surface, should be 5 NM. The outermost concentric circle shouldn't surround the airport point of comparison by more than 10 NM.
What distinguishes Class C from Class D airspace?Around terminals with a modest degree of traffic, category C airspace is used. Class D airports are those that are smaller and Having a control tower An ICAO controlled Substance and D area is used in the United States, however only radio communication with ATC instead of an ATC permission is necessary for VFR operations.
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which region of the united states is correctly matched with its primary economic activity during the early to mid 1800's?
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Regarding their main economic pursuits in the early to mid-1800s, Canada and the United States are accurate.
When manufacturing's relative importance declines and the proportional importance of services, information, and research rises, the economy is said to be in a post-industrial stage of development. The United States and Canada have officially entered the post-industrial era, according to detailed evaluations of the North American economy during the previous 20 years.
We can see that the United States is now seen as a postindustrial league rather than an industrial society as a result of its shift away from producing goods and services and toward a more service-based economy.
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4. assets taken out of a business for the personal use of the owner are called (a) net income. (b) net loss. (c) investments. (d) withdrawals.
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Assets taken out of a business for the personal use of the owner are called (c) investments.
Investments could include withdrawing funds from a business account to purchase items for personal use, or taking out a loan from the business in order to make a personal purchase.
The tax implications of such investments should be carefully considered, as the owner may be liable for tax on the income generated from these investments. It is also important to remember that the funds taken out of the business must be repaid in order for the business to remain financially viable.
Taking out investments without proper planning could lead to significant financial losses for the business.
Assets taken out of a business for the personal use of the owner are called investments. These can range from stocks and bonds to real estate and cash. Investing in your business is a great way to ensure its long-term growth and success.
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which peripheral device is best for capturing a customer's signature when they check out at a convenience store or supermarket?
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Electronic signature pads and ID card design software can be used to add signatures to the front or back of ID cards and badges.
What is a signature pad used for?Signatures can be added to the front or back of ID cards and badges using electronic signature pads and ID card design software. In addition to these additional uses, signature pads are also used to sign papers that are stored electronically. Input devices, output devices, and storage devices make up the three categories of peripherals that are most frequently used.
An external or internal device that is directly connected to a computer or other digital device is referred to as a peripheral device if it has a purpose other than the computer's main one, which is to perform computations. It facilitates the usage of a computer's features by end users.
A computer's peripheral, also known as a peripheral device, is an auxiliary tool used to input and output data.
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as a follow-up to her annual testing, isabella would like to conduct quarterly disaster recovery tests. these tests should include role-playing and introduce as much realism as possible without affecting live operations. what type of test should isabella conduct?
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Isabella should perform a desktop crash recovery test. This is a type of test which involves a group of participants simulating a disaster scenario in a safe, controlled environment.
The purpose is to practice disaster response and test the recovery plan. The test should include role playing and as much realism as possible, but should not affect live operations. The group should consist of key personnel involved in disaster response, including executives, IT personnel, business unit leaders, and other stakeholders. The test should also include a facilitator who will lead the discussion and ensure that the objectives of the exercise are met.
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Your company will generate $68,000 in annual revenue each year for the next seven years from a new information database. If the appropriate interest rate is 8. 5 percent, what is the present value of the savings?
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A production expense known as a variable cost can go up or down in response to shifts in a firm's manufacturing activities.
What causes such high interest rates?Therefore, why are bond yields increasing? The most straightforward argument is that rising inflation is the source of rising interest rates. The Federal Reserve raises interest rates in an effort to stifle inflation by curbing economic expansion. This trend is anticipated to last through the end of 2023 and into 2023.
What is an example of an interest rate?For instance, if we borrow $100 at 5% interest, your repayment to the lender will be $105 dollars. The money lender will profit $5. You might come across a variety of interests throughout.
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how do your values play a role in the groups, organizations, or career opportunities you decide to be a part of
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Knowing your values can help you not only choose the profession you really want, but it can also help you make better decisions at work and ease the transition if you decide to take on a completely different role.
A job in freelancing or entrepreneurship may appeal to you if you place a high importance on independence. You might choose to pursue a career in academics if lifelong learning is one of your core principles. Beginning your career may also assist you in realizing your values by the enabling you to move into a role that more accurately represents them.
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test that the expected price of a house of 2000 square feet is equal to, or less than, $120,000. what is the p-value of the test?
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$60 per square feet is the p-value of the test. The probability that you would have discovered a specific collection of observations if the null hypothesis were true is expressed as a number called the p value.
Which is determined from a statistical test. In order to determine whether to reject the null hypothesis, P values are utilised in hypothesis testing. The likelihood that the null hypothesis is correct is P > 0.05. The likelihood that the alternative probability is correct is equal to 1 minus the P value. If the test result is statistically significant (P 0.05), the test hypothesis is unreliable or needs to be rejected. If the P value is higher than 0.05, no effect was seen.
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mohammad ishaque has checked his credit report with experian and believes there is an error in it. which consumer protection law specifies that he has the right to have incorrect information reinvestigated and removed?
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According to the Fair Credit Reporting Act, he has the right to have false information examined and erased.
What precisely is the Fair Credit Reporting Act?The Fair Credit Reporting Act is a piece of law adopted by the United States Federal Government to improve the truth, fairness, and privacy of consumer information kept in the files of consumer reporting organizations. It was designed to protect customers from the intentional and/or careless inclusion of incorrect data in their credit reports. The FCRA governs the acquisition, transmission, and use of consumer information, including consumer credit information, to that goal. The FCRA, together with the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, is the cornerstone of consumer rights legislation in the United States. It was enacted in 1970 and is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission, the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, and private plaintiffs in the United States.
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if the function describing one of the charlie's indifference curves is 100/a what is the equation for the mrs for this indifference curve?
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U(Xa, Xb) can be used to denote a utility function. You can calculate MRS by using (Xa, Xb) as a point on the indifference curve to determine the MRS. MRS, for instance, equals -Xa/Xb.
What is the indifference curve's formula?
In algebraic terms, g(t, c) is a decreasing and convex function of t for a given c if we rewrite the equation for an indifference curve U(t, y)=c in the form y=g(t, c).
How is the MRS of a utility function determined?
Therefore, the MRS can be calculated by multiplying this expression by -1 and dividing the utility function's partial derivative with respect to x1 by its partial derivative with respect to x2.
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net income is the amount you get paid before taxes.
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It is calculated by subtracting all of your expenses from your total revenue. Net income is also known as "net profit" or "net earnings".
What is net income calculated by?
Net income is determined by deducting total expenses from total revenue. Total expenses include all costs associated with running a business, such as purchases, wages, and taxes.
Total revenue includes all of the money a company brings in from sales, investments, and other sources. Net income is calculated by taking the total revenue and subtracting all of the expenses associated with running the business.
This calculation is important because it provides a measure of how profitable the company is. It can be used to inform decisions on how to allocate resources and help identify areas of improvement. Additionally, it is used to calculate dividends and other distributions of company profits.
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while moving on the production possibilities frontier, if the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, the opportunity cost of producing the other good (in the same range) is
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The opportunity cost of producing one good is the amount of the other good that must be given up in order to produce an additional unit of the first good.
If the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, it means that for every additional unit of the first good produced, half a unit of the second good must be given up. On a production possibilities frontier, this is represented by a slope of -1/2.
The opportunity cost of producing the other good in the same range would also be 1/2. This is because the production possibilities frontier represents the maximum output of one good that can be produced for every possible level of output of the other good. If the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, it means that the two goods are close to each other in terms of production efficiency, so the opportunity cost of producing the other good would also be 1/2.
In other words, the slope of PPF is negative and equal to the ratio of the opportunity cost of one good over the other. As the slope is -1/2, this implies that the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, and the opportunity cost of producing the other good is also 1/2.
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which of the following statements is correct regarding the effect of the generation-skipping transfer tax (gstt) and the transferor's spouse? a) only an individual who is currently married to the transferor will always be deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor regardless of the difference in their ages. b) only an individual who is currently married to the transferor at the time of the transfer will always be deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor. c) any individual who has been married at any time to the transferor is always deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor regardless of the difference in their ages or whether they are married or have been divorced at the time of the transfer. d) a transferor may make a generation-skipping transfer to any individual who has been married at any time to the transferor without restriction.
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Only an individual who is currently married to the transferor will always be deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor regardless of the difference in their ages statements is correct regarding the effect of the generation-skipping transfer tax (gstt).
What is generation-skipping tax?
The generation-skipping tax (GST), sometimes known as the generation-skipping transfer tax, forbids you from intentionally omitting your children from your estate plan in favor of younger generations in order to avoid any estate taxes that might be owed once your children pass away. When someone transfers assets to a "skip person," either during their lifetime or after death, the generation-skipping tax is activated.
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the central bank of hamsterville requires banks to keep 20 % 20 , percent of deposit accounts on reserve at the central bank. assume all money is kept in banks and banks keep no excess reserves. what is the maximum increase in the money supply that occurs if the monetary base increases by $ 100 $100dollar sign, 100? choose 1 answer: choose 1 answer: (choice a) a $ 20 , 000 $20,000dollar sign, 20, comma, 000 (choice b) b $ 100 $100dollar sign, 100 (choice c) c $ 500 $500dollar sign, 500 (choice d) d $ 1 , 000 $1,000dollar sign, 1, comma, 000 (choice e) e $ 400 $400
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$500 is the maximum increase in the money supply that occurs if the monetary base increases by $100
What is meant by money supply?The entire amount of money owned by the general population at a specific period is referred to as the money supply in macroeconomics.There are many ways to define "money," but common measures typically comprise circulation-level money and demand deposits. The total amount of money—cash, coins, and balances in bank accounts—in circulation is referred to as the money supply. The money supply is typically thought of as a collection of secure assets that individuals, businesses, and governments can use to make payments or hold as short-term investments. The money aggregates, sometimes known as M1, M2, and M3, are measurements of the US money supply. Money in circulation (M1) also includes bank checkable deposits. M2 consists of M1 plus savings deposits (less than $100,000) and money market mutual funds.To learn more about money supply refer to:
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as of january 1, 2014, the company has $300,000 in retained earnings. during the year the company had earnings/net income of $150,000 and paid cash dividends of $50,000. what is the amount of retained earnings as of december 31, 2014?
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As of january 1, 2014, the company has $300,000 in retained earnings. during the year the company had earnings/net income of $150,000 and paid cash dividends of $50,000. The balance the ending retained earning is $400,000
The amount of retained earnings on the balance sheet is determined using the beginning period, any net income or loss, and any dividends.
The following chart illustrates how the ending retained earning balance was calculated:
= Beginning retained profits plus earning minus dividend paid
= $300,000 + $150,000 - $50,000
= $400,000
Consequently, $400,000 is the final retained earning balance at december 31, 2014
The same needs to be taken into account and applied.
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in addition to cost, quality and access, which can be considered a building block of health systems?
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Answer:
Another building block of health systems is organization and governance. This includes the structure and management of the health system, as well as the policies and regulations that govern it. Additionally, Human Resources for Health (HRH) is also considered as one of the building block of health systems. This includes the availability and training of healthcare personnel, as well as their distribution and deployment within the system.
If I helped you, could you please make my answer as best?
in a swot analysis, the prospect of entering new markets and launching new products would be listed under _______.
a. threats b. weaknesses c. opportunities d. strengths
Answers
Opportunities in a SWOT analysis might include the potential for expanding into new markets and introducing new goods.
What are some applications of SWOT analysis?The SWOT analysis measures a company's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. The internal strengths and weaknesses of your business are aspects over which you have some control and where improvements may be made. Examples include your team members, your patents and intellectual property, and where you are.
Which four areas does SWOT analysis cover?Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, and Threat, or SWOT, are its initials. A SWOT analysis helps you pinpoint the advantages and disadvantages (S-W) of your company as well as potential threats and opportunities (O-T). Gaining a more complete understanding of the issue is beneficial for both strategic planning and decision-making.
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you meet a friend of yours for lunch. he is a supplier of coffee machines. while talking business, you mention to him that you've decided to use the principles of supply and demand to determine the market price for the coffee you plan to sell at your kiosk on campus. he suggests that you're making a lot of work for yourself, and you should just set your price based on the prices charged by your competitors. however, you're apprehensive about using that approach. which would be the best argument in favor of your decision to use the principles of supply and demand? select an option from the choices below and click submit. the market price that you determine by using the principles of supply and demand will be accurate and will ensure a high market share. using the principles of supply and demand, data is less expensive than spending time and resources to learn about the prices charged by your competitors. the price your competitors charge is based on the costs that they incur and the market in which they operate, and these may be different from yours.
Answers
The price your competitors charge is based on the costs that they incur and the market in which they operate, and these may be different from yours would be the best argument in favor of your decision to use the principles of supply and demand.
What is the law of supply?
The supply rule is a micro - economic principle that states that if the price of a good or provider rises, suppliers will provides more of those products or services, and vice versa.
What is the demand guiding principles?
Consumers will demand fewer units of a good at a higher cost, according to the demand rule, which is a cornerstone of economics. Demand is driven by the law of diminishing marginal utility which states that consumers use economic commodities to satisfy their most pressing wants first.
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supreme inc. offers a 3-year extended warranty for all its products. on january 1, of the current year the company collects $45,000 relating to extended warranty contracts. what entry should supreme make on december 31, of the current year?
Answers
Journal Entry: Debit $45,000 from cash and credit it to deferred revenue.
The business must report $15,000 in deferred revenue and $15,000 in revenue from an extended warranty. The money that has been paid for the extended warranty contracts but has not yet been earned is shown as deferred revenue in the balance sheet. The money that has been made from the extended warranty contracts is shown in the revenue—extended warranty account.
Calculation:
Deferred revenue = $45,000 - $30,000 = $15,000
Revenue - extended warranty = $30,000
The $30,000 indicates the revenue generated by the extended warranty agreements. This is computed by deducting the amount that has not yet been earned ($15,000) from the total amount collected ($45,000.)
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which of the following illustrates a major problem with using gross domestic product as a measure of national productivity? group of answer choices it ignores resource depletion and pollution. it ignores population growth. it is highly unreliable. it overvalues environmental costs.
Answers
The correct response is a. it ignores resource depletion and pollution.
Pollution is the term for when pollutants are introduced into the natural processes of the environment and cause negative change. Any substance, whether solid, liquid, or gas, or energy, can be considered a kind of pollution (such as radioactivity, heat, sound, or light). The constituents of pollution, known as pollutants, might be either naturally existing contaminants or substances or energy that are not of our own making. Despite the fact that natural disasters can result in environmental contamination, the word pollution often suggests that the toxins are manmade, or that they came from human activity. The two primary types of pollution are point source pollution and nonpoint source pollution. In 2015, pollution was responsible for the deaths of nine million people globally. (one death for every six) In 2019, there was no real evidence of effort being made to reduce pollution, so this situation persisted. 34 of these previous deaths were brought on by air pollution.
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Which of the following illustrates a major problem with using gross domestic product as a measure of national productivity?
a) It ignores resource depletion and pollution. b) It ignores population growth.
c) It is highly unreliable. d) It overvalues environmental costs.