Organizations are working to address this issue by increasing access to healthy food options, such as through community gardens and mobile farmers markets. In addition, some organizations are working to improve food quality in schools to ensure that children have access to nutritious meals.
Article 1: "Air Quality in Public Health Communities"Asthma and other respiratory diseases are linked to poor air quality. Lower-income communities, especially those with high percentages of people of color, are more likely to experience poor air quality due to factors such as nearby highways or factories. Local government agencies and organizations are working to improve air quality in these communities by increasing green spaces and investing in cleaner energy sources.
Article 2: "Water in Public Health Communities"In many low-income communities, access to clean drinking water is a major issue. Contaminants such as lead can be found in drinking water due to old pipes or industrial pollution. In addition, low-income communities are often the most vulnerable to the effects of natural disasters such as hurricanes, which can result in water contamination. Organizations are working to increase access to clean water in these communities through initiatives such as providing water filters and repairing water infrastructure.
Article 3: "Food in Public Health Communities"Food deserts, which are areas with limited access to affordable and nutritious food, are a major issue in many low-income communities. People in these areas are more likely to experience health problems such as obesity and diabetes due to a lack of healthy food options. Organizations are working to address this issue by increasing access to healthy food options, such as through community gardens and mobile farmers markets. In addition, some organizations are working to improve food quality in schools to ensure that children have access to nutritious meals.
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Tommy consumed a breakfast consisting of yogurt with blueberries, corn grits, and orange juice. shortly thereafter, tommy experienced an allergic reaction. this reaction was most likely caused by the?
The allergic reaction experienced by Tommy was most likely caused by an allergy to blueberries in his breakfast.
In Tommy's case, he experienced an allergic reaction shortly after consuming his breakfast, which consisted of yogurt with blueberries, corn grits, and orange juice. Among these food items, blueberries are known to be a common allergen.
The proteins and the composition of the blueberries are known to have allergy causing capabilities in them. When Tommy consumed the blueberries, his immune system recognized these components as allergens and triggered an immune response.
It is crucial to identify the specific allergen responsible for the reaction to prevent future exposure and manage potential risks. These diagnostic measures can help confirm the cause of the allergic reaction and identify any underlying allergies or sensitivities to ensure appropriate management and avoidance of the allergen in the future.
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Describe how you would determine whether an Internet site offers
reliable nutrition information.
To determine if an Internet site offers reliable nutrition information, we should evaluate its credibility, authority, accuracy, and sources.
Evaluating the reliability of an Internet site's nutrition information involves considering several factors.
1. Credibility: Assess the reputation and expertise of the website and its authors. Look for sites associated with reputable organizations, government agencies, academic institutions, or professional nutrition associations.
2. Authority: Determine if the site has qualified experts or professionals who contribute to the content. Check for credentials such as registered dietitians, nutritionists, or experts in the field.
3. Accuracy: Verify if the information provided is evidence-based, up-to-date, and supported by scientific research.
4. Sources: Evaluate the quality of the sources cited by the website. Reliable nutrition information should reference primary research studies, reputable institutions, or evidence-based guidelines.
By considering these factors, we can assess the reliability of an Internet site's nutrition information and make informed decisions about its trustworthiness.
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Briefly describe the roles of the
baccalaureate-prepared nurse in professional nursing
practice.
Create a professional development plan for
incorporating the Texas Board of Nursing Differentiated Esse
The baccalaureate-prepared nurse plays a crucial role in professional nursing practice. Here are some key roles and responsibilities; Direct Patient Care, Leadership, Education and Health Promotion, and Advocacy and Policy.
Direct Patient Care; Baccalaureate-prepared nurses provide direct patient care, utilizing their knowledge and skills to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing care. They prioritize patient safety, advocate for patient rights, and promote optimal health outcomes.
Leadership and Management; Baccalaureate-prepared nurses are prepared to take on leadership and management roles in healthcare settings. They collaborate with interdisciplinary teams, delegate tasks, and coordinate care to ensure effective and efficient delivery of healthcare services.
Education and Health Promotion; Baccalaureate-prepared nurses have a role in patient education and health promotion. They assess patients' learning needs, provide health education, and empower individuals and communities to make informed decisions about their health and well-being.
Advocacy and Policy; Baccalaureate-prepared nurses advocate for patients' rights, social justice, and equitable healthcare. They actively participate in healthcare policy development, contribute to shaping healthcare systems, and promote policies that enhance the quality and accessibility of care.
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Case Study Atelectasis MM, age 55, is admitted with acute cholecystitis, elevated WBC, and a fever of 102 F. She had a cholecystectomy and transferred to the med surg unit from ICU on her second post op day. She has a NGT to low wall intermittent suction, IV D5 1/4NS with 40mEq KCL at 125 ml/hr, diet as tolerated; TCDB q2h; incentive spirometer (IS) q2h while awake; dangle in am; ambulate in morning; morphine 10mg IM q4h prn pain, ampicillin (Omnipen) 2g IVPB q6h; chest x-ray in am
Atelectasis Case Study MM, age 55, was admitted with acute cholecystitis, a high WBC, and a fever of 102 F. On her second post-operative day, she was transferred to the med surg unit from the ICU after undergoing a cholecystectomy.
She had a NGT to low wall intermittent suction, IV D5 1/4NS with 40mEq KCL at 125 ml/hr, a diet as tolerated; TCDB q2h; incentive spirometer (IS) q2h while awake; dangle in am; ambulate in the morning; morphine 10mg IM q4h prn pain, ampicillin (Omnipen) 2g IVPB q6h; and a chest x-ray in the morning.
Atelectasis is a lung condition in which the lung tissue collapses due to a blockage in the air passages, preventing oxygen from reaching the lungs. Atelectasis is a common problem in patients recovering from surgery, especially abdominal surgeries like cholecystectomy.
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Identify any gang activities that you have witnessed while traveling through the city or other areas. Identify the gang, their signs and area of activity. Research media reports to determine if law enforcement has been active in those areas you have identified and what has been done to confront the problem, i.e. arrests, more police presence, community activities etc. (provide links and source your information).
Gang activity is a significant problem in many cities and areas, and it has a negative impact on communities, families, and individuals. Gangs engage in a variety of criminal activities such as drug trafficking, theft, assault, and murder. In some cases, gangs use symbols or signs to identify themselves and mark their territory.
Law enforcement agencies use various strategies to confront the problem of gang activity. These strategies may include increased police presence, community activities, arrests, and prosecution of gang members. One of the most effective strategies is community policing, which involves building relationships between law enforcement agencies and community members to prevent crime and improve safety.
Media reports can provide information on gang activity and law enforcement efforts in specific areas. These reports may include information on arrests, police presence, community activities, and other strategies used to confront the problem. However, it is important to consider the source of the information and to verify its accuracy.
In conclusion, gang activity is a significant problem that affects many communities. Law enforcement agencies use various strategies to confront the problem, and community involvement is critical to preventing crime and improving safety. Media reports can provide valuable information on gang activity and law enforcement efforts, but it is important to verify the accuracy of the information and consider the source.
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Describe 2 different ways the treatment plan (e.g., goals, or changes a Counselor would want for the patient) for Anorexia Nervosa vs. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID) would be different. Explain why the 2 diagnoses are treated in 2 separate programs at Children’s Medical Center-Plano.
The treatment plan for Anorexia Nervosa and Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID) differs in terms of goals and therapeutic approaches due to the distinctive characteristics and underlying causes of these two eating disorders.
Anorexia Nervosa and ARFID are separate diagnoses with unique clinical presentations, requiring different treatment approaches. In Anorexia Nervosa, the primary goal is often weight restoration and addressing the psychological factors contributing to the disorder.
Weight restoration involves close medical monitoring, nutritional counseling, and a structured meal plan to facilitate gradual weight gain. Psychological interventions focus on improving body image, self-esteem, and addressing underlying emotional issues such as perfectionism and anxiety.
On the other hand, ARFID is characterized by restrictive eating behaviors unrelated to body image concerns, often resulting from sensory sensitivities, aversions to certain food textures or tastes, or fear of adverse consequences related to eating. The treatment plan for ARFID involves gradually expanding the individual's food repertoire, addressing sensory issues, and reducing anxiety around eating.
It emphasizes exposure therapy, where individuals are gradually introduced to feared or avoided foods, accompanied by a supportive environment and psychoeducation.
The separate treatment programs at Children's Medical Center-Plano for Anorexia Nervosa and ARFID recognize the need for specialized care tailored to the specific requirements of each disorder. These programs offer a multidisciplinary approach involving psychiatrists, psychologists, nutritionists, and other healthcare professionals with expertise in treating eating disorders.
This division allows for a targeted focus on the distinct challenges and treatment goals associated with Anorexia Nervosa and ARFID, ensuring that patients receive the most effective and individualized care.
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A person's body fat distribution influence the risks for obesity True False
Subcutaneous fat deposition increases the risk for central obesity and metabolic syndrome True O False
A person's body fat distribution influences the risks for obesity. This statement is true.Individuals with abdominal obesity are more likely to develop metabolic syndrome, which is a cluster of conditions that raises the risk of heart disease, stroke, and diabetes.
It is also linked to a higher risk of early death in a study. It increases insulin resistance and inflammation, which can lead to type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, and heart disease. People with a high waist-to-hip ratio have a greater risk of developing these issues.
Subcutaneous fat deposition does not increase the risk for central obesity and metabolic syndrome. This statement is false.Visceral adipose tissue (VAT) and subcutaneous adipose tissue (SAT) are two kinds of abdominal fat. VAT, which is located deep in the abdomen and around the organs, is a risk factor for type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and certain cancers. SAT is the fat that is located just beneath the skin. Although having a high amount of SAT isn't healthy, it isn't as risky as having a high amount of VAT. A high level of SAT may indicate that a person is overweight or obese, putting them at risk for health problems associated with obesity.
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14. Emergency treatment for tension pneumothorax should be done is:
A. Thoracocentesis
B. Blocking wound
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Thoracotomy
E. Antibiotics
15. Which of the following statements regarding kidney cancer is uncorrected?
A. The classic clear cell carcinoma accounts for approximately 85% of tumors.
B. CT is the most reliable method for detecting and staging renal cell carcinoma
C. The majority of patients present with the initial triad of hematuria, a palpable mass, and pain.
D. Tumors are radioresistant and unresponsive to traditional forms of chemotherapy
E. The tumor metastasizes commonly to the lungs and adjacent renal hilar lymph nodes.
16. Which examination is not used in diagnosis for urinary stone?
A. Ultrasound
B. KUB
C. CT
D. IVP
E. MRI
17. Of the five cardinal signs for compartment syndrome, the most important is:
A. Pallor
B. Pulselessness
C. Paresthesias
D. Pain
E. Paralysis
18. A 21-years-old patient presents in hospital after injuring her knee in a soccer game. She states that the knee clicks when she walks and has "locked" on several occasions. On examination there is an effusion and the knee is grossly stable. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Bursitis
E. Medial collateral ligament tear
19. Which of the following is the most common malignant lesion of the bone?
A. Chondroblastoma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Osteosarcoma
E. Myeloma
20. Which fracture may easily combine injury to brachial artery??
A. Fracture of surgical neck of humerus
B. Fracture of shaft of humerus
C. Intercondylar fracture of humerus
D. Extension type of supracondylar fracture
E. Flexion type supracondylar fracture
14. The correct answer for emergency treatment for tension pneumothorax is A. Thoracocentesis.
15. The correct answer is
C. The majority of patients present with the initial triad of hematuria, a palpable mass, and pain.
What is Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)?16. The correct answer is E. MRI.
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is not typically used as a primary diagnostic tool for urinary stone evaluation. Ultrasound, KUB (Kidney-Ureter-Bladder) X-ray, and CT (Computed Tomography) are commonly used modalities to diagnose urinary stones. MRI may be used in specific situations or if there are contraindications to other imaging methods.
17. The correct answer is D. Pain. Among the five cardinal signs of compartment syndrome (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, and paralysis), pain is the most important and reliable indicator.
18. The correct answer is B. Meniscal tear. The history of knee clicking, episodes of the knee "locking," and the presence of an effusion suggest a meniscal tear.
19. The correct answer is D. Osteosarcoma.
20. The correct answer is D. Extension type of supracondylar fracture.
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14. The emergency treatment for tension pneumothorax should be done is Thoracostomy.The emergency treatment for tension pneumothorax is thoracostomy or needle thoracocentesis in which a large-bore needle is placed through the second intercostal space into the pleural space to relieve tension.
15. The following statement regarding kidney cancer is incorrect: The majority of patients present with the initial triad of hematuria, a palpable mass, and pain.According to the statement, The majority of patients present with the initial triad of hematuria, a palpable mass, and pain is the uncorrected statement regarding kidney cancer. Hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable abdominal mass are the most frequent symptoms. Hematuria is the most common symptom, occurring in 40% of patients.
16. MRI is not used in diagnosis for urinary stone.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not the best initial study for evaluating urinary calculi because of its limited sensitivity in detecting small calculi compared to other imaging modalities such as CT scanning and ultrasonography.
17. Of the five cardinal signs for compartment syndrome, the most important is Pain. The most important of the five cardinal signs of compartment syndrome is pain. This pain occurs earlier than the other signs, making it the most useful for early diagnosis and intervention.
18. The most likely diagnosis for a 21-years-old patient who presents in the hospital after injuring her knee in a soccer game and has an effusion and the knee is grossly stable is Meniscal tear.The most likely diagnosis in this case is a meniscal tear. Patients may experience locking, popping, or catching sensations. Because of the persistent pain and instability, the patient can seek medical attention.
19. Osteosarcoma is the most common malignant lesion of the bone.The most common primary malignant bone tumor is osteosarcoma, accounting for 35% of cases. The femur is the most common site.
20. Fracture of the shaft of humerus may easily combine injury to the brachial artery. A humeral shaft fracture may injure the radial nerve and the brachial artery. Extension type of supracondylar fracture of humerus is the second most common elbow fracture in children.
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19-27
there are 9 questions please ignore them and leave them to someone else if you think it's too much for you, I don't need an explanation just give me the correct one.
Which of the following is generally an affirmative term that refers to some members of the transgender community?
a. gender-expansiveb. transc. genderqueerd. gender-nonconforminge. all of the above
Question 21 of 27
A Code "E" is called for a patient who elopes while on Elopement Precautions
TrueFalse
Question 22 of 27
The 2021 National Patient Safety Goals address all of the following except:
a. Infectionb. Employee Health c. Alarm Safety d. Patient Identification e. Communication
Question 23 of 27
Why is it important to get the Voyce iPads and telephonic interpreter services in a timely and effective manner?
a. To avoid the completion of reports and get reported for misconductb. To comply with the 10-20 rule, that establishes the 10 minutes for an emergency and 20 minutes for a non-emergency situationc. A more efficient use of the hospital’s financialsd. Help keep healthcare costs low
Question 24 of 27
A staff member assigned to a patient on arm’s length observation must remain within arm’s length of the patient at all times, except for when a patient goes to the bathroom.
TrueFalse
Question 25 of 27
If an incident occurs, the staff should include in the medical record that an "Incident report" was completed.
TrueFalse
Question 26 of 27
A chaperone is required when nursing care is provided as part of everyday personal hygiene.
TrueFalse
Question 27 of 27
The New York State Public Health Law requires hospitals to have a process for the identification, assessment, treatment and referral of confirmed or suspected cases of domestic violence.
TrueFalse
An affirmative term that refers to some members of the transgender community
Here are the correct answers for the questions:
Question 20: e. all of the above
Question 21: True
Question 22: b. Employee Health
Question 23: b. To comply with the 10-20 rule, that establishes the 10 minutes for an emergency and 20 minutes for a non-emergency situation
Question 24: True
Question 25: True
Question 26: False
Question 27: True
Please note that the answers provided are based on general knowledge and may not reflect specific institutional or regional requirements. It's always best to refer to official guidelines or policies for accurate information.
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Mary and Elmer’s fifth child, Melvin, was born 6 weeks prematurely and is 1-month old. Sarah, age 13, Martin, age 12, and Wayne, age 8, attend the Amish elementary school located 1 mile from their home. Lucille, age 4, is staying with Mary’s sister and her family for a week because baby Melvin has been having respiratory problems, and their physician told the family he will need to be hospitalized if he does not get better within 2 days.
Choose two or three areas of prenatal care that you would want to discuss with Mary, and then write brief notes about what you know and/or need to learn about Amish values to discuss perinatal care in a way that is culturally congruent.
Discuss three Amish values, beliefs, or practices to consider when preparing to do prenatal education classes with Amish patients.
During prenatal education classes, it is important to respect and discuss how these values may impact decisions related to childbirth.
Two or three areas of prenatal care that you would want to discuss with Mary are as follows:1. Fetal development and nutrition2. Routine care and screening3. Prenatal classes and parenting education3 Amish values, beliefs, or practices to consider when preparing to do prenatal education classes with Amish patients are as follows:1. Family and community values.
The Amish culture is family-oriented and values strong relationships with neighbors and friends. During pregnancy, an Amish woman may rely heavily on her family and friends for support.2. Natural birthThe Amish culture believes in the natural process of birth. Amish women usually give birth at home without medical intervention unless complications arise.3. Modesty and gender rolesIn Amish culture, modesty and gender roles are highly valued.
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Mr. Garrett is 75 years old and lives alone. He has slowly been losing weight since his wife died a year ago. At 5 feet 8 inches tall, he currently weighs 124 pounds. His previous weight was 150 pounds. In talking with Mr. Garrett, you realize that he doesn't even like to talk about food, let alone eat it. "My wife always did the cooking before, and I ate well. Now I just don't feel like eating." You manage to find out that he skips breakfast, has soup and bread for lunch, and sometimes eats a cold-cut sandwich or a frozen dinner for supper. He seldom sees friends or relatives. Mr. Garrett has also lost several teeth and doesn't eat any raw fruits or vegetables because he finds them hard to chew. He lives on a meager but adequate income. 1. Calculate Mr. Garrett's BMI and judge whether he is at a healthy weight. Indicate what other assessments you might use to back up your judgment. Click here for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Body Mass Index (BMI) calculator. 2. What factors are contributing to Mr. Garrett's poor food intake? What nutrients are probably deficient in his diet? 3. Consider the things Mr. Garrett is going through and what he has gone through, then suggest ways he can improve his diet and his lifestyle. 4. What other aspects of Mr. Garrett's physical and mental health should you consider in helping him to improve his food intake? What suggestions or recommendations would you make to help get him to the point where he is motivated to change his diet and lifestyle?
1. Mr. Garrett's Body Mass Index (BMI) can be calculated as follows:
To calculate BMI, divide the individual's weight (in kilograms) by their height (in meters) squared (kg/m2).
The given height is in feet and inches, so we need to convert it to meters.
1 foot = 0.3048 meters
8 inches = 8/12 feet
= 0.6667 feet
Total height = 5.6667 feet
Total height in meters = 5.6667 x 0.3048
= 1.7272 meters
Weight = 124 pounds
= 56.25 kilograms
BMI = 56.25 / (1.7272)2
= 18.8Mr.
Garrett's BMI is below the normal range of 18.5-24.9, indicating that he is underweight.
Other assessments that can back up this judgment include a physical examination, laboratory tests to measure levels of essential nutrients, and a nutritional assessment.
2. Factors that are contributing to Mr. Garrett's poor food intake include his lack of motivation to eat, his loss of teeth, his limited access to healthy foods, and his limited ability to prepare food.
His diet is probably deficient in protein, fiber, vitamins, and minerals, such as vitamin C, vitamin B12, calcium, and iron.
3. To help Mr. Garrett improve his diet and lifestyle, suggest the following:
Encourage him to seek emotional support from friends or a counselor.
Help him to plan meals that are easy to chew, swallow, and digest.
Suggest soft foods like yogurt, soup, scrambled eggs, and canned fruits.
Teach him how to make simple meals and snacks that he can prepare easily, like oatmeal, smoothies, and sandwiches.
Help him to increase his intake of fruits and vegetables by suggesting soft options like canned fruit, applesauce, and cooked vegetables.
Recommend that he consult with a registered dietitian who can provide personalized nutrition advice and support.
4. Other aspects of Mr. Garrett's physical and mental health that should be considered include his level of physical activity, his sleep habits, his cognitive function, and his medication use.
To help him improve his food intake, it is important to address any underlying medical conditions that may be affecting his appetite and to ensure that his medications are not contributing to his poor food intake.
Suggest that he engage in light physical activity, like walking, to help increase his appetite and overall well-being.
Encourage him to maintain good sleep habits by establishing a regular sleep schedule and avoiding caffeine and alcohol in the evening.
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Which statement regarding medications used to treat Alzheimer's disease is true?
a. Medications can cure Alzheimer's disease completely.
b. Medications can slow down the progression of Alzheimer's disease. c. Medications can reverse the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
d. Medications are ineffective in treating Alzheimer's disease.
Answer:
b. Medications can slow down the progression of Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:
Medications cannot cure Alzheimer's disease, but they can help to slow down the progression of the disease. This means that people who take medications for Alzheimer's disease may experience a slower decline in their cognitive function than those who do not take medications.
The other statements are not true. Medications cannot reverse the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, and they are not ineffective in treating Alzheimer's disease.
So the answer is (b).
Answer:
b. Medications can slow down the progression of Alzheimer's disease.
Explanation:
Unfortunate as it is, medications can only slow down the progression of Alzhemier's disease & cannot fully cure it.
In this disease, tau & amyloid proteins build a mass around brain cells causing them to degenerate & die. There's no known cure for it but medications can help slow down the build up & increase the life expectancy of the affected person.
So, options a, c & d are false as medications cannot reverse or cure the disease but aren't ineffective as well.
__________
Hope this helps!
history of nursing, how nursing evolves with time, how do we
move from women being trained to college education and earning a
degree. 2 pages APA paper with references page and source
cited.
Nursing has evolved from women being trained to college education and earning a degree.
Nursing has undergone significant changes throughout history, transitioning from a primarily female occupation where women were trained on the job to a profession that requires college education and the attainment of a degree.
This evolution can be attributed to several factors, including advancements in medical knowledge, the professionalization of nursing, and the increasing demand for highly skilled healthcare providers.
In the early days of nursing, it was largely viewed as a domestic and nurturing role performed by women within their households or communities. Women would learn the necessary skills through apprenticeships or informal training, often provided by experienced nurses or midwives.
However, as medical knowledge expanded and healthcare became more complex, the need for formal education and standardized training became evident.
The shift towards college education and degree programs in nursing began in the late 19th century with the establishment of nursing schools. These schools provided a structured curriculum that included both theoretical knowledge and practical experience. The first nursing school, the Nightingale School of Nursing, was founded by Florence Nightingale in 1860 and served as a model for future nursing education programs.
Over time, nursing education became more formalized, and the requirements for entry into the profession became more stringent. Nursing programs started to collaborate with universities, leading to the integration of nursing education into higher education institutions.
This allowed nurses to acquire a broader understanding of scientific principles, research methodologies, and specialized areas of practice.
The transition to college education and degree programs in nursing was further driven by the recognition of nursing as a profession. Professional organizations, such as the American Nurses Association (ANA), played a crucial role in advocating for higher educational standards for nurses.
The ANA's efforts contributed to the establishment of baccalaureate programs in nursing and the increased emphasis on evidence-based practice and research in the profession.
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From our class discussions, fetal alcohol syndrome is an example of a prenatal or birth-related cause for ID. True False QUESTION 23 is a biological intervention that involves the removal or destruction of brain tissue, QUESTION 24 Your local newspaper publishes the result of a current scientific study that as exercise decreases, happiness decreases. This is an example of a negative correlation True False
From our class discussions, fetal alcohol syndrome is an example of a prenatal or birth-related cause for ID. True. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is caused when a pregnant woman drinks alcohol and this alcohol crosses the placenta and enters the fetus' bloodstream.
When a developing fetus is exposed to alcohol, the fetal brain is susceptible to damage, which may result in lifelong learning disabilities, cognitive impairment, attention deficits, and behavior problems. FAS is an example of a prenatal cause for intellectual disability. Hence, the statement is true.
Biological intervention is a medical intervention that can be used to treat a range of conditions, including neurological disorders, cancer, and infectious diseases. One type of biological intervention involves the removal or destruction of brain tissue.
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A health care provider places an intestinal decompression tube in a client. after insertion, the nurse immediately takes which action?
After the insertion of an intestinal decompression tube in a client, the nurse immediately takes the given actions.
Verify proper placement: The nurse ensures that the intestinal decompression tube is correctly inserted and positioned in the client's gastrointestinal tract. This involves confirming that the tube is in the appropriate anatomical location, such as the stomach or intestines, based on the specific purpose of the tube placement.
Check for tube function: The nurse verifies that the intestinal decompression tube is functioning properly by checking for proper drainage. This includes ensuring that the tube is not kinked or blocked and that there is an appropriate suction or drainage system attached to facilitate decompression.
Secure the tube: The nurse secures the intestinal decompression tube in place to prevent accidental dislodgement or movement. This may involve using tape or securing devices to keep the tube in position.
Assess for any immediate complications: The nurse closely monitors the client for any signs of immediate complications related to the tube insertion, such as bleeding, discomfort, or signs of infection. Any unexpected or adverse reactions are promptly addressed and reported to the healthcare provider.
Initiate prescribed interventions: Depending on the purpose of the intestinal decompression tube, the nurse may initiate prescribed interventions. This can include adjusting the level of suction, administering medications or fluids through the tube, or implementing measures to manage any associated symptoms or conditions.
Hence, the steps are mentioned above.
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A health information management professional is responsible for assisting decision makers in not only the acquisition planning and management of HIT solutions but also for strategies to manage the different types of data acquired by these technologies. The aim for today's health care organizations is to effectively plan making evidence-based decisions using data acquired using HIT systems. To this end, as an HIM professional, you may be called upon to build business cases for justification of implementing a new HIT system. What are your thoughts on how you may conduct such an analysis?
To conduct an analysis for building a business case for implementing a new HIT system, an HIM professional should focus on assessing the organization's needs, evaluating potential solutions, and quantifying the expected benefits and costs.
As an HIM professional tasked with building a business case for implementing a new Health Information Technology (HIT) system, several steps can be taken to conduct a thorough analysis. The first step is to assess the organization's needs and requirements. This involves understanding the current state of the organization's HIT infrastructure, identifying any existing challenges or gaps, and determining how a new system can address those issues.
The next step is to evaluate potential solutions. This requires researching and analyzing different HIT systems available in the market, considering factors such as functionality, compatibility with existing systems, scalability, and vendor reputation. It is essential to involve key stakeholders, including clinicians, IT staff, and decision-makers, in this evaluation process to gather diverse perspectives and ensure the chosen solution aligns with the organization's goals.
Once potential solutions have been identified, the HIM professional should proceed to quantify the expected benefits and costs. This involves conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the financial implications of implementing the new HIT system. The benefits may include improved patient outcomes, enhanced efficiency, reduced error rates, and streamlined workflows, while costs encompass upfront expenses, ongoing maintenance, training, and potential productivity impacts during the transition.
Furthermore, it is crucial to consider the potential return on investment (ROI) and the long-term sustainability of the proposed solution. This can be achieved by forecasting the financial impact over a specific period, factoring in any projected revenue growth, cost savings, and anticipated improvements in quality of care.
In summary, conducting a comprehensive analysis for building a business case involves assessing the organization's needs, evaluating potential solutions, and quantifying the expected benefits and costs. By following these steps, an HIM professional can provide decision-makers with a well-informed justification for implementing a new HIT system, enabling the organization to make evidence-based decisions and improve healthcare outcomes.
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"Sulfur intake has been associated with lower cardiovascular risk. This is due to sulfur being a precursor to what type of molecule?
Sulfur is a precursor to sulfur-containing amino acids, particularly cysteine and methionine.
These amino acids play a crucial role in the synthesis of proteins and other important molecules in the body. Cysteine, in particular, contains a sulfur atom and is involved in the formation of disulfide bonds, which contribute to the three-dimensional structure and stability of proteins.
In the context of cardiovascular health, sulfur-containing amino acids are of interest because they are involved in the synthesis of glutathione, an important antioxidant molecule. Glutathione helps protect cells from oxidative damage by neutralizing harmful free radicals. Oxidative stress and inflammation are known to play a role in the development of cardiovascular diseases such as atherosclerosis.
Furthermore, sulfur-containing compounds, such as hydrogen sulfide , have gained attention for their potential cardiovascular benefits. H2S is produced in small amounts in the body and has been shown to have vasodilatory, anti-inflammatory, and antiplatelet effects, which can help maintain cardiovascular health.
It is important to note that the association between sulfur intake and lower cardiovascular risk is still an area of ongoing research, and the exact mechanisms by which sulfur exerts its beneficial effects on the cardiovascular system are not fully understood. Nonetheless, sulfur-containing amino acids and their derivatives are considered important molecules in various physiological processes, including cardiovascular health.
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A pot tips over on your mother's arm while she is cooking. She yells for help and tells you that the burn hurts a lot. You see a small
red burn on her arm. After you have ensured the scene is safe and put on your own protective gear, and gotten the first aid kit. What
should you do next?
After ensuring safety, putting on protective gear, and getting the first aid kit, cool the burn with cool water for 10-20 minutes.
After ensuring the scene is safe and donning your own protective gear, the next step in providing first aid for a burn on your mother's arm is to follow these steps:
Cool the burn: Run cool (not cold) water over the burn for about 10 to 20 minutes. This helps to reduce the heat and minimize tissue damage. If running water is not available, you can use a clean, cool compress.Remove jewelry or tight clothing: If there is any jewelry or tight clothing near the burn, gently remove it before swelling occurs. This prevents further complications in case of swelling.Cover the burn: Once the burn has been cooled, cover it with a sterile non-stick dressing or a clean cloth. This helps to protect the burn from infection and further damage.Evaluate the severity: Assess the severity of the burn. If it is a minor burn, it can usually be treated at home. However, if the burn is deep, covers a large area, or is causing severe pain, it may require medical attention. In such cases, it is important to seek professional medical help.Provide pain relief: If your mother is experiencing significant pain, you can offer over-the-counter pain relief medications like acetaminophen or ibuprofen. However, it is important to follow the instructions and consult a healthcare professional if needed.Monitor for complications: Keep an eye on the burn for any signs of infection, such as increasing pain, redness, swelling, pus, or fever. If any of these symptoms occur, seek medical assistance promptly.know more about swelling here:
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What are some current efforts to address and to prevent
stress?
Stress is a prevalent issue among individuals in the world today. Chronic stress can lead to physical and mental problems and can negatively impact one's quality of life. Several current efforts are in place to address and prevent stress.
Encouraging healthy lifestyles: Regular exercise, a balanced diet, and adequate sleep are critical in reducing stress. Individuals who engage in these activities are less likely to experience stress than those who don't. Thus, healthcare professionals are recommending healthy lifestyle choices for stress reduction.Therapy and counseling: In the last decade, therapy and counseling have been adopted as primary methods for stress management. Professionals use several counseling techniques such as cognitive-behavioral therapy to help individuals learn coping mechanisms and other ways to manage stress.
These programs include stress management training for employees, flexible work schedules, and employee wellness programs.
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question: In considering the activities of the nurse manager in
your practice setting, what management activities do they
perform?
The nurse manager is an essential role in any healthcare setting, responsible for ensuring the smooth functioning of the nursing unit, and collaborating with other healthcare professionals to provide high-quality patient care.
Nurse managers undertake a range of management activities to ensure that their unit runs efficiently and that patient care is safe and effective. One of the primary responsibilities of a nurse manager is to oversee staffing and scheduling. This includes ensuring that there are enough nurses available to provide quality patient care, scheduling staff according to their skills and availability, and managing shift changes.
Nurse managers also evaluate the performance of nursing staff, provide feedback, and create development plans to improve their skills and performance. Nurse managers also manage budgets, ordering medical supplies and equipment, and ensuring that the nursing unit has the necessary resources to provide high-quality patient care.
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What are the differences between substance-induced psychotic disorder and a psychotic disorder? How would you tell the difference in an assessment session? Visual hallucinations are generally more common in substance withdrawal and intoxication than in primary psychotic disorders . Stimulant intoxication, in particular, is more commonly associated with tactile hallucinations, where the patient experiences a physical sensation that they interpret as having bugs under the skin. These are often referred to as ‘ice bugs’ or ‘cocaine bugs’. Visual, tactile and auditory hallucinations may also be present during alcohol withdrawal.
Psychotic disorders involve a break with reality, abnormal perceptions, and false beliefs, while substance-induced psychotic disorder is triggered by substance or medication use.
The key distinction is that substance-induced psychotic disorder is linked to substance use, whereas psychotic disorder is not.
Another difference is that individuals with substance-induced psychotic disorder typically experience symptom relief when not under the influence of substances.
In contrast, psychotic disorder symptoms persist regardless of substance use.
When assessing a patient, it is crucial to differentiate between the two disorders as they require different treatment approaches.
The clinician should gather a comprehensive substance use history, including the types and timeline of substances consumed.
Urine tests may be conducted to identify drugs present in the patient's system.
Notably, visual hallucinations are more commonly associated with substance withdrawal and intoxication than with primary psychotic disorders.
Stimulant intoxication, in particular, often leads to tactile hallucinations, where individuals feel bugs crawling under their skin.
These hallucinations may occur during alcohol withdrawal as well.
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Which of the following is an example of a protective factor during prenatal development that is supported by scientific evidence?
A. Taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy to reduce the risk of spina bifida
B. Reducing alcohol intake during pregnancy to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome
C. Playing classical music to a fetus to make them smarter as children
D. Drinking coffee during pregnancy to help the fetus feel more alert
Taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy to reduce the risk of spina bifida is an example of a protective factor during prenatal development that is supported by scientific evidence.
This is option A
What are protective factors?Protective factors are characteristics, variables, or exposures that mitigate or counteract risk, raising the likelihood of positive outcomes and safeguarding individuals against negative ones during prenatal development.
Prenatal development is the period of human development that occurs before birth. It includes the process of fertilization, implantation, embryonic development, and fetal development.
Therefore, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy to reduce the risk of spina bifida is an example of a protective factor during prenatal development that is supported by scientific evidence.
So, the correct answer is A
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Describe breastfeeding from an ecological perspective
- factors affect breastfeeding at the intrapersonal,
interpersonal, organizational/community level
From an ecological perspective, breastfeeding is influenced by intrapersonal factors such as maternal knowledge and beliefs, interpersonal factors including support from family and healthcare professionals, and organizational/community factors like workplace policies and cultural attitudes. Taking all these factors into consideration is crucial in promoting and supporting breastfeeding at individual and societal levels.
Breastfeeding from an ecological perspective
Breastfeeding is a major component of human life that benefits not only the baby but also the mother. As per the ecological perspective, the breastfeeding process is influenced by several factors at different levels.
Let us discuss each of them in detail:
Intrapersonal factors:
This factor deals with the mother's biology and includes her nutritional status, lactation experience, and hormones level, all of which can directly or indirectly affect breastfeeding. Maternal knowledge, beliefs, and attitudes towards breastfeeding.
Interpersonal factors:
The support and influence of family, friends, and healthcare professionals around the mother play a vital role in her decision to breastfeed. The support of others can lead to a higher likelihood of initiation and continuation of breastfeeding.
Organizational/Community level:
This factor encompasses social, economic, and cultural factors that can impact breastfeeding. Factors like maternity leave, support policies in the workplace, community programs, and cultural attitudes can either facilitate or hinder breastfeeding.
Overall, the ecological perspective aims to take into account the multilevel aspects that affect breastfeeding. Understanding these factors can lead to better policy development and implementation strategies to support and encourage breastfeeding.
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Once a month a friend consumes a traditional food containing high saturated fat and salt. The friend now consumes a serving of that traditional food, and strongly resist the urge to dish out more. This is a characteristic of a nutritious diet called:
Oadequacy
calorie control
Omoderation
variety
balance
The characteristic of a nutritious diet that the friend displays is known as moderation. This is because moderation is a key principle of healthy eating, which involves consuming a variety of foods in appropriate amounts and avoiding overindulgence in any one food or food group.
Moderate eating is also associated with improved weight control, heart health, and overall wellbeing. A balanced diet, on the other hand, refers to a diet that contains a variety of foods from all food groups in the right proportions, while adequacy refers to meeting one's nutritional needs by consuming sufficient amounts of essential nutrients. Calorie control is another characteristic of a healthy diet, which involves managing the number of calories consumed to achieve or maintain a healthy weight. Variety is also an important part of a nutritious diet, as it ensures that all necessary nutrients are included in one's diet.
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You observe a wide qrs complex while continuously monitoring a patient in lead ii. which lead placement is referenced to evaluate the location of blockage in the bundle branch system?
If you observe a wide QRS complex while continuously monitoring a patient in Lead II, Lead V1 placement is referenced to evaluate the location of blockage in the bundle branch system.
The location of blockage in the bundle branch system is assessed by evaluating the ECG recording using different leads. The lead placement referenced to evaluate the location of blockage in the bundle branch system when observing a wide QRS complex while continuously monitoring a patient in Lead II is Lead V1.
A wide QRS complex is seen when there is a delay in ventricular depolarization, which can be caused by a blockage in the bundle branch system. The right bundle branch block (RBBB) results in a QRS duration of more than 0.12 s with a widened S wave in Lead I and a widened R wave in V1.
In the case of bundle branch blockage, it is vital to distinguish between a left bundle branch block (LBBB) and a right bundle branch block (RBBB). The RBBB should be discriminated from the LBBB since the clinical implications are different.
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transition LPN/LVN BSN
question 1 what are the characteristic of the leaders whom you
admire in your practice setting
The characteristics of leaders I admire in my practice setting are good communication skills, a positive attitude, adaptability, and an ability to motivate and inspire others.
Leadership qualities and characteristics are essential to the effective and efficient functioning of an organization or workplace. In my practice setting, I admire leaders who possess good communication skills, which enable them to effectively convey information, explain expectations and offer support to the team. A positive attitude is also a vital quality in leaders that I admire.
They are optimistic and upbeat, even during challenging times, and serve as a source of encouragement for others. Another essential attribute of great leaders is adaptability. They can change plans and approaches as required to meet the needs of the team and organization. Additionally, they motivate and inspire their team members and help them achieve their goals. They are dedicated to the success of their team and help each member achieve their full potential.
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Chamberlain Care emphasizes person-centered communication. Provide an example of using person-centered care in communicating to another who disagrees with you.
*i am looking for a different answer please do not repost the same answer*
Person-centered communication focuses on the needs, wants, and preferences of the individual. It emphasizes a collaborative and respectful approach, recognizing the individual's inherent worth and dignity.
When communicating with another who disagrees with you, it is important to use person-centered care to promote understanding and respect.Here is an example of using person-centered care in communicating with another who disagrees with you:John is a resident in a long-term care facility. His care plan states that he prefers to eat his meals in his room, alone. However, one of the staff members, Sarah, believes that it would be better for John to eat in the dining room with the other residents. Sarah approaches John and says, "I understand that you prefer to eat in your room, and I respect that. However, I also want to help you feel connected to the other residents.
Would you be willing to try eating in the dining room for one meal a week? We can start with a small goal and work up from there if you feel comfortable."In this example, Sarah uses person-centered communication to express respect for John's preferences while also acknowledging the importance of social connection. She offers a small, achievable goal and invites John to collaborate in the process, rather than imposing her own beliefs on him. This approach helps to build trust and respect, which can ultimately lead to better outcomes for both John and Sarah.
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Nia just found out she is pregnant, and is very concerned about the health of her baby. She is wondering how she can keep her baby safe during prenatal development. Based on what we learned in the class, what advice can you give Nia? Include a discussion of risk factors and protective factors .
The most important advice for Nia to keep her baby safe during prenatal development is to prioritize her own health and well-being.
During pregnancy, the health and safety of the mother directly impact the development of the baby. By taking care of herself, Nia can significantly reduce the risks and enhance the protective factors for her baby's well-being.
Firstly, Nia should ensure she maintains a balanced and nutritious diet. Consuming a variety of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats provides essential nutrients for the baby's growth and development. Adequate intake of folic acid, iron, calcium, and other vitamins and minerals is crucial for the healthy formation of the baby's organs and tissues.
Secondly, Nia should avoid harmful substances, such as tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drugs. Smoking and alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to serious complications, including premature birth, low birth weight, and developmental issues. Illicit drugs pose similar risks and can have long-lasting effects on the baby's health.
Additionally, Nia should attend regular prenatal check-ups with her healthcare provider. These check-ups help monitor the baby's progress, detect any potential problems early on, and ensure that Nia receives appropriate medical care throughout her pregnancy. It's important for Nia to openly discuss any concerns or questions she may have with her healthcare provider, as they can provide personalized guidance and support.
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Body composition refers to: A. the amount of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates a person consumes in a day. B. how efficiently the body converts glucose into fat. C. how effectively the liver releases cholesterol in the bloodstream. D. the proportion of fat tissue in relation to lean body tissue. E. how quickly food is converted into blood sugar. Nutritionists recommend drinking enough water so that your urine production A. has no traces of protein B. is pale yellow or clear
C. is frequent - at least 6 times per day D. is over 2 liters a day E. is bright yellow Question 6 It is easy to recognize the signs of mild dehydration, including dry mouth and fatigue. True Or False Question 5 In addition to stimulating the release of dopamine and serotonin, exercise reduces anxiety, muscle tension, and blood pressure three measures of stress. True Or False Question 1 Over-exercising can lead to overuse injuries, muscle strain, and joint pain. True Or False
Body composition refers to the relative percentages of bone, fat, water, and muscle in human bodies. In other words, it refers to the distribution of muscle and fat in the body.
Body composition refers to the relative percentages of bone, fat, water, and muscle in human bodies. In other words, it refers to the distribution of muscle and fat in the body. Body composition varies from person to person and may be affected by different factors such as age, sex, genetics, and physical activity levels. A person who has a higher proportion of fat tissue than lean body tissue is more likely to be at risk for obesity-related health problems such as type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and stroke.
It is therefore important to maintain a healthy body composition by engaging in regular physical activity and following a balanced diet. A balanced diet includes an adequate intake of all essential nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals. Drinking enough water is also important for maintaining a healthy body composition.
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Based on your experiences and readings, analyze the roles, empowerment of patients, and values needed to be an effective nurse advocate and policy player.
Discuss the APN role as a change agent.
Provide an example of a time that you have acted as an advocate or a situation that you are familiar with that involved an APN acting as an advocate.
Additionally, address how the APN role is implemented at an organizations, state, and national level.
The text discusses the limited evidence base for the credibility of advocacy, in your opinion does it work?
Why or why not? Support your thoughts with evidence.
Advocacy has been shown to work in numerous studies. Advocacy has also been used effectively in the healthcare field. Advocacy efforts have been used by nursing.
Associations and advanced practice nurses to achieve policy changes, such as increased funding for nursing education and increased autonomy for advanced practice nurses. The following is an analysis of the roles, empowerment of patients, and values required to be an effective nurse advocate and policy player.
As well as the APN role as a change agent and an example of an APN acting as an advocate. Roles, Empowerment of Patients, and Values Required to Be an Effective Nurse Advocate and Policy Player The following are some of the roles, empowerment of patients, and values required to be an effective nurse advocate.
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