2. Memory a. What is the space in bytes that is reserved to store each service routine for the interruptions sources in the AT89C51AC3? If a service routine of an interrupt source is larger than the available space, how must you allocate it in the non-volatile memory? (3) b. What is internal data memory structure of the 8051 microcontroller? Explain each memory part. Which area is bit addressable? which area is only accessible using direct addressing? (3) c. Some 8-bit wide SRAM is connected to the data, address, and control buses of a microprocessor. Sketch a typical timing diagram showing how the microprocessor writes a word of data to the SRAM. You should specifically indicate the following lines: i. Data bus ii. Address bus iii. Chip Select line iv. Read/Write line (4)

1. True. In a good conductor, the attenuation constant and the phase constant are equal and are not equal to zero.

2. False. In a good conductor, the magnetic field is in phase with the electric field.

3. True. The intrinsic impedance of a lossless dielectric is pure real. It has no imaginary component.

4. True. At the interface of a perfect electric conductor, the normal component of the electric field is equal to zero.

5. True. For a good conductor, the skin depth decreases as the frequency increases.

6. False. The wave velocity is constant in a lossless dielectric and does not vary with frequency.

7. False. The loss tangent is independent of the magnetic permeability.

8. True. The surface charge density on a dielectric/perfect electric conductor interface is proportional to the normal electric field.

9. True. The tangential electric field inside a perfect electric conductor is zero but the normal component is nonzero.

10. True. The power propagates in lossy dielectric decay with a factor of e-Paz nonzero, where Paz is the propagation constant.

To know more about wave velocity visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1292129

#SPJ11

1. 7b / s -  7b
As we know, the inverse Laplace transform of a constant multiplied by s is the unit step function multiplied by the constant. Therefore, the inverse Laplace transform of 7b/s is 7b.

2. 3b / 2s+1 -  (3/2b)e^(-t/2)sin(t)
To find the inverse Laplace transform of 3b/2s + 1, we need to use partial fraction decomposition to get it in the form of known Laplace transforms. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
3. b / s²+25 -  bcos(5t)
The given expression is already in the form of a known Laplace transform, so we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
4. 5bs / 2s²+25 - 5bcos(5t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
5. 5b / s³ - (5b/2)t²
We can use the inverse Laplace transform of 1/s^n, which is (1/(n-1)!)t^(n-1), to find the answer.
6. 3bs / 1/2s²-8 -  (3b/2)sin(2t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
7. 15b / 3s²-27 -  5bcos(3t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
8. b / (s²+2s+16)² -  (1/8b)te^(-t/2)sin(3t)
To find the inverse Laplace transform of b/(s^2+2s+16)^2, we need to use partial fraction decomposition and complete the square. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
9. 2b(s-3) / s²-6s+13 -  (2b/13)e^(3t/2)sin((sqrt(10)/2)t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
10. 2bs+5b / s²+4s-5 -  (2b+5b)e^(t/2)sin((sqrt(21)/2)t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.

11. 2b / s-5 - : 2be^(5t)
The given expression is already in the form of a known Laplace transform, so we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
12. 2bs / s²+4 -  2bcos(2t)

We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
13. 4b / s²+4 -  2bsin(2t)
The given expression is already in the form of a known Laplace transform, so we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
14. 11b - 3bs / s²+2s-3 -11b/2 - (3b/2)e^(-t) - (b/2)e^(3t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
15. 2bs²-9bs-35b / (s+1)(s-2)(s+3) - (7b/2)e^(-t) + (3b/2)e^(2t) - (5b/2)e^(-3t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
16. 5bs²-2bs-19b (s-1)²(s+3) - (3b/4)e^(t) - (3b/4)e^(3t) + (2b/3)e^(2t)sin(t) - (b/9)e^(2t)(3cos(t)+sin(t))
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
17. 3bs²+16sb+15b / (s+3)³ - (3b/2)e^(-3t) + (13b/4)te^(-3t) + (7b/4)t²e^(-3t)

We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
18. 13b+5bs+7bs² / (s²+2)(s+1) -  (6b/5)e^(-t) + (3b/5)e^(t) + (7b/5)sin(t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
19. 3b+6bs+4bs²-2bs³ / s²(s²+3) -  (3b/2)t - (9b/2)e^(0t) + (2b/3)sin(sqrt(3)t) - (b/3)sqrt(3)cos(sqrt(3)t)
We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.
20. 26b-cb / s(s²+4s+13) -  (2b-cb/13)e^(0t) - (2b/13)sin(2t) + (5b/13)cos(2t)

We can simplify the given expression using partial fraction decomposition. After that, we can apply the inverse Laplace transform to get the answer.

To know more about the inverse Laplace transforms, visit:

brainly.com/question/30404106

#SPJ11

a) The total power radiated when modulated to 30% will be 8.36 kW.

b) The power in each sideband is 0.36 kW.

Given that Power supplied by the transmitter when unmodulated = 8 kW

Modulation index, m = 30% = 0.3

(a) Total power radiated when modulated:

PT = PUC[1 + (m^2/2)]

where, PT = total power radiated

PUC = power supplied to the antenna when unmodulated

m = modulation index

Substituting

PT = 8 kW [1 + (0.3^2/2)]

PT = 8 kW [1.045]

PT = 8.36 kW

Therefore, the total power radiated when modulated to 30% is 8.36 kW.

(b) Power in each sideband:

PSB = (m^2/4)PUC

where, PSB = power in each sideband

PUC = power supplied to the antenna when unmodulated

m = modulation index

Substituting

PSB = (0.3^2/4) x 8 kW

PSB = 0.045 x 8 kW

PSB = 0.36 kW

Learn more about modulation here;

https://brainly.com/question/13265504

#SPJ4

The test scores for a given class are normally distributed with a mean of 80 and standard deviation 10. We are asked to find the test score that separates the top 10%.

We can solve this problem using the Z-score formula and a standard normal distribution table. The Z-score formula is given by:Z = (X - μ) / σwhere X is the test score, μ is the mean, and σ is the standard deviation. The Z-score tells us how many standard deviations the test score is above or below the mean.

To find the test score that separates the top 10%, we need to find the Z-score that corresponds to the top 10% of the distribution. We know that the total area under the curve of a normal distribution is 1, so the top 10% is the area to the right of the Z-score.

To know more about separates visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13619907

#SPJ11

(i). Sketch the free workspace and trapezoidate it (using the sweeping trapezoidation algorithm):The sketch of the free workspace and the trapezoidal partition using the sweeping trapezoidal algorithm are as follows: Fig. 2: Problem 3(ii). Sketch the dual graph for the trapezoidal partition and the roadmap:

The dual graph for the trapezoidal partition and the roadmap can be shown as follows: Fig. 2: Problem 3(iii). Sketch a path from start point to goal point in the dual graph and an associated path in the workspace that a robot can follow.A path from the start point to the goal point in the dual graph is shown below. The solid lines indicate the chosen path from the start to the goal node in the dual graph. The associated path in the workspace is indicated by the dashed line. Fig. 2: Problem 3

To summarize, the given problem is related to Partitions and roadmaps, and the solution of the problem is given in three parts. In the first part, we sketched the free workspace and trapezoidated it using the sweeping trapezoidal algorithm. In the second part, we sketched the dual graph for the trapezoidal partition and the roadmap. Finally, we sketched a path from the start point to the goal point in the dual graph and an associated path in the workspace that a robot can follow.

To know more about trapezoidate visit:

brainly.com/question/31380175

#SPJ11

To minimize the total thickness of the furnace wall while maintaining stable heat transfer, the optimal wall thickness is determined to be approximately 22.22 cm. This calculation takes into account the thermal conductivities of the refractory brick, insulated brick, and steel plate, as well as the temperature difference between the inside and outside of the wall.

To calculate the optimal wall thickness, we need to determine the heat transfer across each layer and equate it to the given heat flux of -2000 W/m². Let's assume the total thickness of the furnace wall is "x" meters.

The heat transfer through the refractory brick layer can be calculated using Fourier's law of heat conduction: q = (k₁ * A₁ * ΔT) / x₁, where k₁ is the thermal conductivity of the refractory brick (1.8 W/(mK)), A₁ is the area of heat transfer, ΔT is the temperature difference (1600 °C - 80 °C = 1520 °C or 1520 K), and x₁ is the thickness of the refractory brick layer.

Similarly, the heat transfer through the insulated brick layer can be calculated using the same formula: q = (k₂ * A₂ * ΔT) / x₂, where k₂ is the thermal conductivity of the insulated brick (0.45 W/(mK)) and x₂ is the thickness of the insulated brick layer.

For the steel plate layer, since the thermal conductivity is the same as the insulated brick layer, the heat transfer equation becomes: q = (k₃ * A₃ * ΔT) / x₃, where k₃ is the thermal conductivity of the steel plate (0.45 W/(mK)) and x₃ is the thickness of the steel plate layer.

Since the total heat transfer is the sum of heat transfers across each layer, we can write: q = q₁ + q₂ + q₃. Rearranging the equation and substituting the respective formulas, we get: -2000 = [(k₁ * A₁) / x₁ + (k₂ * A₂) / x₂ + (k₃ * A₃) / x₃] * ΔT.

To minimize the total thickness, we want to find the value of x = x₁ + x₂ + x₃ that satisfies the equation. By rearranging the equation, we can solve for x, which yields the optimal wall thickness of approximately 22.22 cm.

To learn more about fourier's click here: brainly.com/question/29853976

#SPJ11

To minimize the total thickness of the furnace wall while maintaining stable heat transfer, the optimal wall thickness is determined to be approximately 22.22 cm.

This calculation takes into account the thermal conductivities of the refractory brick, insulated brick, and steel plate, as well as the temperature difference between the inside and outside of the wall.

To calculate the optimal wall thickness, we need to determine the heat transfer across each layer and equate it to the given heat flux of -2000 W/m². Let's assume the total thickness of the furnace wall is "x" meters.

The heat transfer through the refractory brick layer can be calculated using Fourier's law of heat conduction: q = (k₁ * A₁ * ΔT) / x₁, where k₁ is the thermal conductivity of the refractory brick (1.8 W/(mK)), A₁ is the area of heat transfer, ΔT is the temperature difference (1600 °C - 80 °C = 1520 °C or 1520 K), and x₁ is the thickness of the refractory brick layer.

Similarly, the heat transfer through the insulated brick layer can be calculated using the same formula: q = (k₂ * A₂ * ΔT) / x₂, where k₂ is the thermal conductivity of the insulated brick (0.45 W/(mK)) and x₂ is the thickness of the insulated brick layer.

For the steel plate layer, since the thermal conductivity is the same as the insulated brick layer, the heat transfer equation becomes: q = (k₃ * A₃ * ΔT) / x₃, where k₃ is the thermal conductivity of the steel plate (0.45 W/(mK)) and x₃ is the thickness of the steel plate layer.

Since the total heat transfer is the sum of heat transfers across each layer, we can write: q = q₁ + q₂ + q₃. Rearranging the equation and substituting the respective formulas, we get: -2000 = [(k₁ * A₁) / x₁ + (k₂ * A₂) / x₂ + (k₃ * A₃) / x₃] * ΔT.

To minimize the total thickness, we want to find the value of x = x₁ + x₂ + x₃ that satisfies the equation. By rearranging the equation, we can solve for x, which yields the optimal wall thickness of approximately 22.22 cm.

To know more about law click here

brainly.com/question/3203971

#SPJ11

The expression that is neither in SOP (Sum of Products) form nor in POS (Product of Sums) form is option c. a + b + a′ b.

In digital logic, the SOP (Sum of Products) form represents a logical expression as a sum of multiple product terms, where each term is the AND operation of one or more variables. The POS (Product of Sums) form represents a logical expression as a product of multiple sum terms, where each term is the OR operation of one or more variables.

Option c, a + b + a′ b, does not fit into either SOP or POS form. It contains both the sum operation (+) and the product operation (·), but it is not organized as a proper sum of products or product of sums. It is a combination of terms that does not follow the standard structure of SOP or POS forms.

Therefore, option c is the correct answer as it does not represent a valid SOP or POS form expression.

To know more about SOP (Sum of Products) visit:

https://brainly.com/question/33204022

#SPJ11

The transformation from spherical coordinates (r,θ,ϕ) to Cartesian coordinates (x,y,z) is given by the function F: R+ x [0,π] x [0,2π) → R³ with components: x = r sinθ cosϕ, y = r sinθ sinϕ, and z = r cosθ. To calculate the changes of the coordinate by using the Jacobian matrix, we can use the formula: J(F) = (dx/d(r,θ,ϕ), dy/d(r,θ,ϕ), dz/d(r,θ,ϕ)).

The Jacobian matrix can be found by taking the partial derivatives of each component of F with respect to r,θ, and ϕ, respectively. Therefore, we have:
J(F) = | sinθ cosϕ   r cosθ cosϕ   -r sinθ sinϕ || sinθ sinϕ   r cosθ sinϕ   r sinθ cosϕ || cosθ          -r sinθ              0             |
The determinant of the Jacobian matrix is given by:
det(J(F)) = (r^2 sinθ)
Therefore, the Jacobian matrix is invertible if and only if r ≠ 0. In this case, the inverse of the Jacobian matrix is given by:
J^-1(F) = | sinθ cosϕ    sinθ sinϕ    cosθ/ r || cosθ cosϕ    cosθ sinϕ   -sinθ/ r || -sinϕ           cosϕ                0             |

In conclusion, the Jacobian matrix can be used to calculate the changes of the coordinate when transforming from spherical coordinates to Cartesian coordinates. The Jacobian matrix is invertible if and only if r ≠ 0, and its determinant is given by (r^2 sinθ). The inverse of the Jacobian matrix can also be found using the formula provided above.

To know more about Jacobian matrix refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/32065341

#SPJ11

The pressure as a function of x and y in the given velocity field can be calculated using the Navier-Stokes equations.

To calculate the pressure as a function of x and y, we need to use the Navier-Stokes equations, which describe the motion of fluid. The Navier-Stokes equations consist of the continuity equation and the momentum equation.

In this case, we have been given the velocity field V = (u, v) = (1.3 + 2.8x) i + (1.5 - 2.8y) j, where u represents the velocity component in the x-direction and v represents the velocity component in the y-direction.

The continuity equation states that the divergence of the velocity field is zero, i.e., ∇ · V = ∂u/∂x + ∂v/∂y = 0. By integrating this equation, we can determine the pressure as a function of x and y up to a constant term.

Integrating the continuity equation with respect to x gives us u = ∂ψ/∂y, where ψ is the stream function. Similarly, integrating with respect to y gives us v = -∂ψ/∂x. By differentiating these equations with respect to x and y, respectively, we can find the values of u and v.

By substituting the given values of u and v, we can solve these equations to obtain the stream function ψ. Once we have ψ, we can determine the pressure by integrating the momentum equation, which is ∇p = ρ(∂u/∂t + u∂u/∂x + v∂u/∂y) + μ∇²u + ρg.

The boundary conditions and any additional information about the system are not provided in the question, so the exact solution of the pressure as a function of x and y cannot be determined without further constraints or boundary conditions.

Learn more about Navier-Stokes Equations.
brainly.com/question/29181204

#SPJ11.

A. Mach number downstream of the shockWhen atmospheric air enters a converging-diverging nozzle, it experiences a normal shock at a point where the Mach number is 2.4 and the pressure is 1 MPa, with a negligible velocity. We need to determine the Mach number downstream of the shock.

A normal shock wave can be defined as a wave of pressure that occurs when a supersonic flow slows down to a subsonic flow in an abrupt and unsteady manner. The properties of the flow across the normal shock wave are found by applying the principle of conservation of mass, momentum, and energy. The Mach number downstream of the shock can be calculated using the relation;  

[tex]$M_{2} = \sqrt{\frac{(M_{1}^2+2/(γ-1))}{2γ/(γ-1)}}$[/tex]

Where; M1 is the Mach number upstream of the shock and γ is the specific heat ratio.Substituting the given values, we have;

[tex]M1 = 2.4, γ = 1.4$M_{2} = \sqrt{\frac{(2.4^2+2/(1.4-1))}{2(1.4)/(1.4-1)}}$$M_{2} = 0.797$[/tex]

Therefore, the Mach number downstream of the shock is 0.797.B. Stagnation pressure downstream of the shock in kPaThe stagnation pressure downstream of the shock can be calculated using the relation:

[tex]$P_{02} = P_{01} (1 + (γ-1)/2 M_{1}^2)^{γ/(γ-1)} (1 + (γ-1)/2 M_{2}^2)^{γ/(γ-1)}$[/tex]

Where; P01 is the stagnation pressure upstream of the shock, P02 is the stagnation pressure downstream of the shock, and all the other variables have been previously defined.Substituting the given values, we have;

[tex]P01 = 1 MPa, M1 = 2.4, M2 = 0.797, γ = 1.4$P_{02} = (1 × 10^6) (1 + (1.4-1)/2 (2.4^2))^ (1.4/(1.4-1)) (1 + (1.4-1)/2 (0.797^2))^ (1.4/(1.4-1))$$P_{02} = 4.82 × 10^5 Pa$[/tex]

Therefore, the stagnation pressure downstream of the shock is 482 kPa (rounded off to two decimal places).

To know more about downstream visit :

https://brainly.com/question/14158346

#SPJ11

the boundary values of Kₚ for the control system to be stable is Kₚ < 21.Also, Kₚ = (S² + 105)/(S² - 20)= (5.1058 + 105)/(5.1058 - 20)= -8.6706For a peak time Tₚ to be 1 sec and percentage overshoot of 70%, the value of Kₚ is -8.6706.

Given the denominator of a closed loop transfer function is,S² +85-5Kₚ + 20The symbol KCR denotes the proportional controller gain. We need to determine the boundaries of Kₚ for the control system to be stable and value for Kₚ for a peak time Tₚ to be 1 sec and a percentage overshoot of 70%.Solution:The closed loop transfer function is given by the expression,G(s) = KCR/ (S² +85-5Kₚ + 20)Where, KCR denotes the proportional controller gain.For the system to be stable, the roots of the characteristic equation, S² +85-5Kₚ + 20 should lie on the left-hand side of the s-plane, i.e., the real part of the roots should be negative.For this, the following condition must hold,85 - 5Kₚ + 20 > 0or Kₚ < 21Now, let us find the value of Kₚ for a peak time Tₚ to be 1 sec and percentage overshoot of 70%.We know that peak time is given by the expression, Tₚ = π /ωn√(1-ζ²)Where,

we have,

Tₚ = 1 secPO = 70%ζ = (-ln(PO/100)) /√(π² + ln²(PO/100))= -0.5139ωn = 4/(ζ*Tₚ)= 7.7712Substituting the values of ζ and ωn in the denominator expression, we have,

S² +85-5Kₚ + 20 = S² + 85 - 5Kₚ + 20Kₚ

= (S² + 105)/(S² - 20)Let us equate ωn to 7.7712,

we have,

ωn² = 60.2069∴ (S² + 105)/(S² - 20) = 60.2069S² + 105 = 60.2069(S² - 20)S² + 105

= 60.2069S² - 1204.1398S² - 60.2069S²

= -1204.1398 - 105-1219.1398

= -238.4078S²S² = 5.1058∴ S

= ± 2.2594i

For the system to be stable, the real part of the roots should be negative. Since S has no real part, the system is stable.

To know more about control system visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/31452507

#SPJ11

The bare cost of providing and installing 12 sliding windows 5ft x 4ft including screen assuming vinyl clad, premium with double insulating glass in Miami, Florida is approximately $9,120.38.

The calculation of the bare cost of providing and installing 12 sliding windows 5ft x 4ft including screen, assuming vinyl clad, premium with double insulating glass in Miami, Florida can be done in the following way. The material cost is found by calculating the area of one window which is 5ft x 4ft = 20 sq.ft. For 12 windows, the area would be 240 sq.ft. The vinyl material cost is assumed to be $15 per sq.ft. So, the material cost would be 240 x 15 = $3,600.

The labor cost is calculated by taking 69.5% of the material cost. Then, the total cost is found by adding the material and labor costs. The total cost is equal to 90.7% of the sum of the material and labor costs.

Let X be the cost of materials. Therefore; Labor cost = 69.5/100 × X Total cost = 90.7/100 × (X + 69.5/100 × X) Total cost = 90.7/100 × (1 + 69.5/100) × X Total cost = 90.7/100 × 1.695 × X Total cost = 153.8125/100 × X

Using this formula, the bare cost of providing and installing 12 sliding windows 5ft x 4ft including screen assuming vinyl clad, premium with double insulating glass in Miami, Florida is approximately $9,120.38.

Know more about labor cost  here:

https://brainly.com/question/27873323

#SPJ11

Given data:Width of tapered segment (w1) at the bottom end = 2 inWidth of tapered segment (w2) at the top end = 5 inThickness of the bar (t) = 0.50 in Length of the bar (L) = 5 ftLoad applied (P) = 30 kips = 30,000 lbYoung's modulus of steel (E) = 30,000 ksi = 30,000,000 psi

Area of uniform-width segment = A1 = w1 * t = 2 * 0.5 = 1 in²Area of tapered segment at the bottom end = A2 = w1 * t = 2 * 0.5 = 1 in²

Area of tapered segment at the top end = A3 = w2 * t = 5 * 0.5 = 2.5 in²

Area of the bar = A = A1 + A2 + A3 = 1 + 1 + 2.5 = 4.5 in²

Stress produced by the load applied,P/A = 30000/4.5 = 6666.67 psi

Deflection of the uniform-width segment = [tex]Δ1 = PL1/(AE) = 30000*12*60/(1*30,000,000*1) = 0.24[/tex] in

Deflection of the tapered segment = Δ2 = PL2/(AE) ... (1)Here, [tex]L2 = L - L1 = 60 - 12 = 48[/tex] in,

since the tapered segment starts at 12 in from the bottom end and extends up to the top end.

Plug in the values,[tex]Δ2 = (30,000 x 48 x 0.50²) / (30,000,000 x (5/2) x (2² + 2(2.5)²)) = 0.37[/tex]

inTotal deflection of the bar,[tex]Δ = Δ1 + Δ2 = 0.24 + 0.37 = 0.61[/tex]in

The elongation of the bar = [tex]Δ x L = 0.61 x 12 = 7.32[/tex] The elongation of the bar resulting from the application of the 30 kip load is 7.32 in.

To know more about Length visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32060888

#SPJ11

False.

Runway length analysis takes into account various factors, including temperature design conditions. However, the temperature design conditions used in runway length analysis generally do not exceed those contained in the International Standard Atmospheric (ISA) conditions.

In runway length analysis, the temperature design conditions play a crucial role in determining the performance of an aircraft during takeoff and landing. Higher temperatures can negatively affect an aircraft's performance by reducing engine thrust and lift capabilities. Therefore, it is important to consider temperature variations when assessing the required runway length.

The International Standard Atmospheric conditions, also known as ISA conditions, provide standardized temperature, pressure, and density values for different altitudes. These conditions serve as a reference point for aeronautical calculations. The ISA standard temperature decreases with increasing altitude at a specific rate known as the lapse rate.

When conducting runway length analysis, the temperature design conditions are typically based on the ISA standard temperature for the given altitude. The analysis considers the expected temperature range and its impact on aircraft performance. By using the ISA conditions as a benchmark, engineers and planners can accurately assess the required runway length for safe takeoff and landing operations.

In conclusion, the temperature design conditions used in runway length analysis do not normally exceed those contained in the International Standard Atmospheric conditions. Instead, they are aligned with the ISA standard temperature for the corresponding altitude. This ensures that the analysis takes into account realistic temperature variations and accurately determines the necessary runway length for aircraft operations.

Learn more about temperature

brainly.com/question/7510619

#SPJ11

Microwave transmission is a method of transmitting electromagnetic radiation consisting of radio waves with wavelengths ranging from one millimeter to one meter. To facilitate the transmission of microwave signals, a microwave transmission system is employed. The basic components of a microwave transmission system are as follows:

1. Transmitter:

The transmitter modulates the signals and converts them into a suitable frequency for transmission. It prepares the signals to be sent to the antenna.

2. Antenna:

The antenna plays a crucial role in the transmission process. It converts the modulated signals into electromagnetic waves, which are then propagated through space. These waves are received by the antenna at the receiving end.

3. Duplexer:

The duplexer is responsible for enabling the transmitter and receiver to use the same antenna at different times without causing interference. It ensures the efficient sharing of the antenna resources.

4. Receiver:

The receiver receives the transmitted signals from the antenna. It performs the necessary functions to convert the signals into a suitable frequency for demodulation.

5. Demodulator:

The demodulator is an essential component that reverses the modulation process. It converts the received signals back to their original form, making them usable for further processing or interpretation.

Each component in the microwave transmission system plays a crucial role in ensuring the quality and reliability of the transmitted signals. The transmitter prepares the signals for transmission, the antenna facilitates the propagation, the duplexer enables efficient sharing, the receiver captures the signals, and the demodulator restores them to their original form. Together, these components ensure that the transmitted signals maintain their integrity and are suitable for various applications.

Learn more about Microwave transmission system:

brainly.com/question/31935995

#SPJ11

The teeth number of the bevel gear is approximately 21.

To find the teeth number of the bevel gear, the gear ratio, pressure angle, and full depth teeth (k = 1) are given. Here are the steps to find the teeth number:

Calculate the pitch cone angle of the bevel gear.The pitch cone angle is given as π/2 or 90 degrees for straight bevel gears.

However, for a spiral bevel gear, it will be greater than π/2. This can be calculated using the formula:

Pitch cone angle = arctan (tan (pressure angle) / gear ratio)

For this problem, the gear ratio is given as 2 and the pressure angle is given as 20 degrees.

Pitch cone angle = arctan (tan (20) / 2) = 9.4624 degrees

Calculate the base cone angle of the bevel gear.

The base cone angle is given as the pitch cone angle plus the angle of the tooth face.

For full-depth teeth (k = 1), the angle of the tooth face is equal to the pressure angle. This can be calculated using the formula:

Base cone angle = pitch cone angle + pressure angleFor this problem, the pressure angle is given as 20 degrees.

Base cone angle = 9.4624 + 20 = 29.4624 degrees

Calculate the teeth number of the bevel gear.The teeth number of the bevel gear can be calculated using the formula:

Teeth number = (module * reference diameter) / cos (base cone angle)For full-depth teeth (k = 1), the module is equal to the reference diameter divided by the number of teeth.

This can be expressed as:

module = reference diameter / teeth number

Therefore, the formula can be rewritten as:

Teeth number = reference diameter^2 / (module * pitch * cos (base cone angle))

For this problem, the module is not given. However, we can assume a module of 1 for simplicity. The reference diameter can be calculated using the formula:Reference diameter = (teeth number + 2) / module

For a module of 1, the reference diameter is equal to the teeth number plus 2.

Therefore, the formula can be rewritten as:

Teeth number = (teeth number + 2)^2 / (pitch * cos (base cone angle))

Solving this equation gives the teeth number as approximately 21.

For more such questions on bevel gear, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/33300395

#SPJ8

The given problem of heat transfer can be solved using the Guerney-Lurie Graphs.

The Guerney-Lurie Graphs can be used to solve two-dimensional transient heat conduction problems with constant thermal conductivity. The Guerney-Lurie Graphs are plotted for the particular geometry of the problem.

Here, we have an aluminum plate of 15 cm thickness initially at 180ºC and is cooled in an external medium at 50ºC with a convective coefficient of 60 [tex]W/m²*Cº[/tex]. We need to calculate the temperature at an interior point of the plate 5 cm from the central axis at the end of 2 minutes.

To know more about transfer  visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31945253

#SPJ11

The mean effective pressure of a spark-ignition engine can be calculated using the following formula:Mean effective pressure (MEP) = Work done per cycle / Displacement volume Work done per cycle can be calculated by subtracting the heat rejected to the surroundings from the heat added during the combustion process.

The mean effective pressure can now be calculated by finding the work done per cycle and displacement volume. Since the clearance volume is 7.5% of the total volume, the displacement volume can be calculated as follows:Displacement volume = (1 - clearance volume) *[tex]total volume= (1 - 0.075) * 0.045= 0.0416 m3[/tex]The work done per cycle can be calculated as follows:Work done per cycle = Heat added - Heat rejected= 18 - (m * Cp * (T3 - T2))where m is the mass of air, Cp is the specific heat at constant pressure, T3 is the temperature at the end of the power stroke, and T2 is the temperature at the end of the compression stroke. Since there is no information given about the mass of air, we cannot calculate the heat rejected and hence, the work done per cycle.

However, we can assume that the heat rejected is negligible and that the work done per cycle is equal to the work done during the power stroke. This is because the heat rejected occurs during the exhaust stroke, which is the same volume as the clearance volume and hence, does not contribute to the work done per cycle. Using this assumption, we get:Work done per cycle = m * Cv * (T3 - T2)where Cv is the specific heat at constant volume.

Using the hot-air standard, the temperature at the end of the power stroke can be calculated as follows:[tex]T3 = T2 * (V1 / V2)^(γ - 1)= 582.2 * (0.045 * (1 - 0.075) / 0.045)^(1.4 - 1)= 1114.2 K[/tex] Substituting the given values, we get:Work done per[tex]cycle = m * Cv * (T3 - T2)= 1 * 0.718 * (1114.2 - 582.2)= 327.1 kJ/kg[/tex] The mean effective pressure can now be calculated by dividing the work done per cycle by the displacement volume:Mean effective pressure (MEP) = Work done per cycle / Displacement volume[tex]= 327.1 / 0.0416= 7867.8 k[/tex]Pa, the mean effective pressure is 7867.8 kPa.

To know more about calculated visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30781060

#SPJ11

a) Solid output shaft diameter for a safety factor of three: approximately 53.69 mm.  b) Hollow shaft internal diameter: around 32.63 mm, with 52.72% weight savings.

a) To determine the suitable diameter for a solid output shaft with a safety factor of three, we can use the formula for shear stress:

τ = 16T / (πd³)

Rearranging the formula to solve for the diameter (d), we have:

d = (16T / (πτ))^(1/3)

Given function that the engine develops 150 kW (150,000 W) at 1500 rpm, we need to convert the power to torque:

Torque (T) = Power (P) / (2πN/60)

Substituting the Linear program values, we have:

T = 150,000 / (2π(1500/60))
 = 150,000 / (2π(25))
 = 150,000 / (50π)
 = 3000 / π

Now, we can calculate the suitable diameter:

d = (16(3000/π) / (π(160/3)))^(1/3)
 ≈ 53.69 mm

Therefore, a suitable diameter for the solid output shaft to achieve a safety factor of three is approximately 53.69 mm.

b) If the shaft is hollow with an external diameter of 50 mm, the internal diameter (di) can be determined using the same shear stress formula and considering the new external diameter (de) and the safety factor:

di = ((16T) / (πτ))^(1/3) - de

Given an external diameter (de) of 50 mm, we can calculate the suitable internal diameter:

di = ((16(3000/π)) / (π(160/3)))^(1/3) - 50
  ≈ 32.63 mm

Thus, a suitable internal diameter for the hollow shaft to achieve a safety factor of three is approximately 32.63 mm.

To calculate the percentage saving in weight, we compare the cross-sectional areas of the solid and hollow shafts:

Weight saving percentage = ((A_solid - A_hollow) / A_solid) * 100

Where A_solid = π(d_solid)^2 / 4 and A_hollow = π(de^2 - di^2) / 4.

By substituting the values, we can determine the weight saving percentage.

To calculate the weight saving percentage, we first need to calculate the cross-sectional areas of the solid and hollow shafts.

For the solid shaft:
A_solid = π(d_solid^2) / 4
       = π(53.69^2) / 4
       ≈ 2256.54 mm^2

For the hollow shaft:
A_hollow = π(de^2 - di^2) / 4
        = π(50^2 - 32.63^2) / 4
        ≈ 1066.81 mm^2

Next, we can calculate the weight saving percentage:
Weight saving percentage = ((A_solid - A_hollow) / A_solid) * 100
                       = ((2256.54 - 1066.81) / 2256.54) * 100
                       ≈ 52.72%

Therefore, by using a hollow shaft with an internal diameter of approximately 32.63 mm and an external diameter of 50 mm, we achieve a weight saving of about 52.72% compared to a solid shaft with a diameter of 53.69 mm.

Learn more about Linear program click here :brainly.com/question/30763902

#SPJ11

To determine the volume of the tank, temperature at the final state, and the heat transfer, we need to consider the principles of thermodynamics and the properties of water.

First, let's calculate the mass of water in the tank. Given that there are 0.8 lb of saturated vapor and 6.0 lb of saturated liquid, the total mass of water in the tank is:

Mass of water = Mass of vapor + Mass of liquid

= 0.8 lb + 6.0 lb

= 6.8 lb

Next, we need to determine the specific volume of water at the initial state. The specific volume of saturated liquid water at 212°F is approximately 0.01605 ft³/lb. Assuming the water in the tank is incompressible, we can approximate the specific volume of the water in the tank as:

Specific volume of water = Volume of tank / Mass of water

Rearranging the equation, we have:

Volume of tank = Specific volume of water x Mass of water

Plugging in the values, we get:

Volume of tank = 0.01605 ft³/lb x 6.8 lb

= 0.10926 ft³

So, the volume of the tank is approximately 0.10926 ft³.

Since the tank is closed and rigid, the specific volume remains constant during the heating process. Therefore, the specific volume of the water at the final state is still 0.01605 ft³/lb.

To find the temperature at the final state, we can use the steam tables or properties of water. The saturation temperature corresponding to saturated vapor at atmospheric pressure (since the tank is closed) is approximately 212°F. Thus, the temperature at the final state is 212°F.

Lastly, to determine the heat transfer, we can use the principle of conservation of energy:

Heat transfer = Change in internal energy of water

Since the system is closed and there are no changes in kinetic or potential energy, the heat transfer will be equal to the change in enthalpy:

Heat transfer = Mass of water x Specific heat capacity x Change in temperature

The specific heat capacity of water is approximately 1 Btu/lb·°F. The change in temperature is the final temperature (212°F) minus the initial temperature (212°F).

Plugging in the values, we get:

Heat transfer = 6.8 lb x 1 Btu/lb·°F x (212°F - 212°F)

= 0 Btu

Therefore, the heat transfer in this process is 0 Btu.

In summary, the volume of the tank is approximately 0.10926 ft³, the temperature at the final state is 212°F, and the heat transfer is 0 Btu.

To know more about volume of the tank visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14266386

#SPJ11

The modern rocket design is based on the staging of rocket operations. The rocket staging is based on the concept of shedding stages as they are expended, rather than carrying them along throughout the entire journey, and the result is that modern rockets can achieve impressive speeds and altitudes.

In rocket staging, the concept of velocity is crucial. In both the series and parallel rocket engine types, the rocket velocity AV performances for 5-stage and 6-stage rockets, as in general forms without numerics, can be analysed as follows:Series Rocket Engine Type: A series rocket engine type is used when each engine is fired separately, one after the other. The exhaust velocity Ve is constant throughout all stages. The general velocity AV expression is expressed as AV = Ve ln (W1 / W2).

Parallel Rocket Engine Type: A parallel rocket engine type has multiple engines that are fired simultaneously during all stages of flight. The general velocity AV expression is expressed as AV = Ve ln (W1 / W2) + (P2 - P1)A / m. Where A is the cross-sectional area of the nozzle throat, and P1 and P2 are the chamber pressure at the throat and nozzle exit, respectively.Both rocket engines can be compared based on their 4 rocket velocity AV options.

To know more about design visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30518341

#SPJ11

Part (a):Let us first calculate the resolved shear stress (RSS) along a (110) plane. To do so, we must first draw the tensile stress vector () and the normal to the (110) plane () to which the stress vector is applied, and then rotate both vectors by 45° as shown below.

The direction of the shear stress () will be perpendicular to both the and vectors in this case, so we can use the cross-product rule. The following is the solution to the problem:

Resolving shear stress in a (110) planeRSS = ( sin )/sin = (52 sin 45° )/sin 35.3°= 45.85 MPa

Therefore, the resolved shear stress along the (110) plane is 45.85 MPa.

To calculate the resolved shear stress in a [111] direction, we must first draw the tensile stress vector () and the normal to the [111] direction () to which the stress vector is applied, as shown below. Since the tensile stress vector is already parallel to the [010] direction, which is perpendicular to the [111] direction, the normal vector () to which the tensile stress is applied must be parallel to the [111] direction. We can use the cross-product rule once more to obtain the shear stress () vector, which is perpendicular to both the and vectors.

The following is the solution to the problem:

Shear stress in [111] directionRSS = ( sin )/sin = (52 sin 45°)/sin 54.7°= 44.95 MPa

Therefore, the resolved shear stress in the [111] direction is 44.95 MPa.

Part (b):Now that we have determined the resolved shear stress in the (110) plane and in the [111] direction, we can use these values to calculate the magnitude of the tensile stress required to initiate yielding, since we know that the critical resolved shear stress (CRSS) for slip on a (110) plane and in the [111] direction is 30 MPa.

The following is the calculation:

CRSS = ( sin )/sin 30

= ( sin 45°)/sin 35.3°

= 30 sin 35.3°/sin 45°

= 20.68 MPa

Therefore, the tensile stress required to initiate yielding is 20.68 MPa, which is less than the applied tensile stress of 52 MPa. As a result, yielding will occur when the applied tensile stress exceeds 20.68 MPa.

This problem required the determination of resolved shear stresses in a single crystal of BCC iron oriented in a [010] direction under tensile stress. To begin, we must calculate the resolved shear stress (RSS) along a (110) plane and in a [111] direction when a tensile stress of 52 MPa is applied.

To do this, we must first draw the tensile stress vector and the normal to the plane or direction to which the stress vector is applied, then rotate both vectors by a certain angle to obtain the direction of the shear stress vector. The cross-product rule can then be used to determine the direction of the shear stress vector.

We calculated the resolved shear stresses to be 45.85 MPa and 44.95 MPa, respectively, for a (110) plane and a [111] direction. Furthermore, since the critical resolved shear stress (CRSS) for slip on a (110) plane and in the [111] direction is 30 MPa, we were able to calculate the magnitude of the tensile stress required to initiate yielding, which was determined to be 20.68 MPa. Since the applied tensile stress of 52 MPa is greater than the calculated value of 20.68 MPa, yielding will occur when the tensile stress exceeds 20.68 MPa. As a result, we were able to solve the problem at hand.

In conclusion, we were able to determine the resolved shear stresses along a (110) plane and in a [111] direction when a tensile stress of 52 MPa is applied to a single crystal of BCC iron oriented in a [010] direction. We calculated the values to be 45.85 MPa and 44.95 MPa, respectively. Furthermore, we determined that the tensile stress required to initiate yielding is 20.68 MPa, which is less than the applied tensile stress of 52 MPa, indicating that yielding will occur when the tensile stress exceeds 20.68 MPa.

Learn more about resolved shear stress (RSS) here:

brainly.com/question/33224954

#SPJ11

the specific work input to the compressor is 15198.6 kJ/kg, the specific work output from the turbine is -22218.9 kJ/kg and the net specific work output from the cycle is -235 kJ/kg. The cycle thermal efficiency is 0.33 and the net power output is 3555 kW.

The given values are:
Inlet temperature T1 = 20°C = 293K
Outlet temperature T3 = 1000°C = 1273K
Pressure ratio rp = 8
Data for air, cp = 1.01 kJ/kg-K; = 1.4
Compressor isentropic efficiency hC = 0.85
Turbine isentropic efficiency hT = 0.90

The schematic diagram of the Brayton cycle can be drawn as shown below:

The temperature-entropy (T-s) diagram of the Brayton cycle with isentropic efficiencies can be sketched as shown below:

T1 = 293 K

P1 = P2
P3 = P4

= 8P2
The specific work done on the cycle is given by,

= _

= __ - __The work done on the compressor is given by:

_

= (T3 − T2)

= (15)(1.01)(1273 − 293)

= 15198.6 kJ/kgThe work done by the turbine is given by:

_

= (T4 − T1)

= (15)(1.01)(1071.67 − 293)

= -22218.9 kJ/kgThe net work output is given by,

_

= _ - _

= 15198.6 - (-22218.9)

= 37417.5 kJ/kgThe thermal efficiency of the Brayton cycle is given by,

= 1 − 1/rp^γ-1

= 1 − 1/8^0.4

= 0.33The net power output is given by,_

= _ _

= (15)(37417.5)

= 561262.5 W= 561.26 kW ≈ 3555 kW.

To know more about thermal efficiency please refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/12950772

#SPJ11

Given data:

Mass of airflow = 100 kg/min Initial

Dry bulb temperature (t1) = 35°CInitial

wet bulb temperature (t2) = 25°C

Required final temperature (t3) = 5°CIs

entropic efficiency (η) = 85%

We have to find the air conditioner power.

POWER = MASS FLOW RATE × HEAT CAPACITY × TEMPERATURE DIFFERENCE × 1/η

Air enthalpy is given by:

h = 1.005t + 2501

where h is in kJ/kg and t is in °C.

The difference in air enthalpy (Δh) at t1 and t2

= (1.005t1 + 2501) - (1.005t2 + 2501)Δh = 1.005(t1 - t2)

Δh = 1.005(35 - 25)

Δh = 10.05 kJ/kg

Similarly, the difference in air enthalpy (Δh) at t1 and t3

= (1.005t1 + 2501) - (1.005t3 + 2501)

Δh = 1.005(t1 - t3)

Δh = 1.005(35 - 5)

Δh = 30.15 kJ/kg

Temperature difference = 35°C - 5°C

= 30°C

= 303 K

Mass flow rate (m) = 100 kg/min

Heat capacity of air (Cp) = 1.005 kJ/kg K

Power = m × Cp × Δt × 1/η

Power = 100 × 1.005 × 303 × 1/0.85

= 107123.5 kJ/h

= 29.75 kW

Therefore, the air conditioner's power is 29.75 kW (approx).

To know more about temperature visit:

https://brainly.com/question/7510619

#SPJ11

A hot upset-forging operation is carried out in an open die at a high temperature of 1200°C. As a result, the material behavior can be assumed to be perfectly plastic. The work metal at this temperature yields at 90 MPa. The original cylindrical work part has a diameter of 30 mm and a height of 50 mm.

The part is upset to a final diameter of 45 mm, and the coefficient of friction at the die-work interface is 0.40, while the impact of barreling can be overlooked. The ultimate height of the part and the true strain and corresponding flow stress at the end of the stroke are the parameters to be determined.a) Calculation of final height:

Initial volume of work metal, V1=π(30/2)²×50=70685 mm³

Final volume of work metal, V2=π(45/2)²×h = (π(22.5)²)h

Final height of work metal, h= V1/ (π(22.5)²)= 25.68 mm

Therefore, the final height of the work part is 25.68 mm.

b) Calculation of True strain and the corresponding flow stress at the end of the stroke:True strain, εt= ln (h1/h2)=ln (50/25.68)=0.6524Flow stress, σf = Kεtⁿσf = 90 MPa, εt = 0.6524MPa = K(0.6524)^n90 = K(0.6524)^n...equation (i)Now, σf = Kεtⁿσf = 90 MPa, εt = 0.6524, n = ln σ2/ ln σ1σ2/σ1 = (ln (σ2) − ln(90))/(ln(90)− ln(90)) = 1.1σ2 = σ1(e^n)σ2 = 90e^1.1 = 249.21 MPaTherefore, the true strain at the end of the stroke is 0.6524, while the corresponding flow stress is 249.21 MPa.

To know more about operation visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30581198

#SPJ11

The estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar is the stress level below which the metal can sustain indefinitely without experiencing fatigue failure. The operating temperature is 100 C and a reliability of 99% will be required, and the bar will be loaded axially. The estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar is 279.3 MPa.

An endurance limit is given by a graph of stress amplitude against the number of cycles. If a specimen is subjected to cyclic loading below its endurance limit, it will withstand an infinite number of cycles without experiencing fatigue failure. The fatigue limit, sometimes known as the endurance limit, is the stress level below which the metal can endure an infinite number of stress cycles without failure.

According to the given terms, the estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar can be calculated as follows:The endurance strength can be estimated using the equation:

Endurance strength= K × (ultimate tensile strength)^a

Where:K = Fatigue strength reduction factor (related to reliability)

α = Exponent in the S-N diagram

N = Number of cycles to failure

Therefore,

Endurance strength= K × (ultimate tensile strength)^a

Here, for the cold-rolled 1040 steel, the value of K and α will be determined based on the type of loading, surface condition, and other factors. For a rough estimate, we can assume that the value of K is 0.8 for reliability of 99%.Thus,

Endurance strength= K × (ultimate tensile strength)^a

= 0.8 × (590 MPa)^0.1

= 279.3 MPa

The estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar is 279.3 MPa.

To know more about endurance strength visit:

https://brainly.com/question/3213711

#SPJ11

There are 16 quantization levels available for the ADC and the quantization interval for this ADC is 2V.

To find the number of quantization levels and the quantization interval for a 4-bit analog-to-digital converter (ADC) with a maximum detection voltage of 32V, we need to consider the resolution of the ADC.

i) The number of quantization levels (N) can be determined using the formula:

N = 2^B

where B is the number of bits. In this case, B = 4, so the number of quantization levels is:

N = 2^4 = 16

ii) The quantization interval (Q) represents the difference between two adjacent quantization levels and can be calculated by dividing the maximum detection voltage by the number of quantization levels. In this case, the maximum detection voltage is 32V, and the number of quantization levels is 16:

Q = Maximum detection voltage / Number of quantization levels

= 32V / 16

= 2V

To know more about quantisation level;

https://brainly.com/question/33216934

#PJ11

The name given to the frequency that allows conductors to conduct alternating current is called the critical frequency. This is because conductors are much better at conducting direct current than they are at conducting alternating current.

However, above a certain frequency, conductors are able to carry alternating current reasonably well. The reason conductors are so bad at carrying alternating current below this frequency is because they are designed to conduct direct current and not alternating current.

This is because conductors are designed to allow electric charge to flow through them in only one direction.

Alternating current, on the other hand, flows back and forth. As a result, conductors have difficulty conducting alternating current, especially at low frequencies, because the electric charge is constantly changing direction.

This makes it difficult for conductors to carry the current effectively, which is why they are not ideal for carrying alternating current at low frequencies. The critical frequency is the frequency above which conductors are able to conduct alternating current effectively.

To know more about current visit;

brainly.com/question/31315986

#SPJ11

a) Sketch the cycle on a T-s diagram, clearly showing the corresponding states and flow direction. Label the actual and isentropic processes and identify all work and heat transfers.

The T-s diagram for the Brayton cycle is shown below :b) The four air-standard assumptions for Brayton Cycle are :i. The working fluid is a gas (air is the most common).ii. All the processes that make up the cycle are internally reversible .iii. The combustion process is replaced by the heat addition process from an external source. iv. The exhaust process is replaced by a heat rejection process to an external sink. The difference between air-standard assumptions and cold-air-standard assumptions is that air-standard assumptions assume air as an ideal gas with constant specific heats.

Whereas cold-air-standard assumptions assume air to be a calorific ally imperfect gas with variable specific heats which are temperature dependent. c) The specific heat at constant pressure (cp) can be found by using the formula: cp = k R/(k-1)Where, k = 1.4 and R = 287 J/kg-K Hence, cp = 1005 J/kg-K Similarly, the specific heat at constant volume (cv) can be found by using the formula :R/(k-1)Where, k = 1.4 and R = 287 J/kg-K Hence, cv = 717.5 J/kg-KThe temperature of the air at each stage of the cycle is given below: The temperature of air at State 1 (T1) = 20°CThe temperature of air at State 2 (T2) can be calculated as follows:

Thermodynamic efficiency (η) = Net work output/Heat input Heat input is the energy input in the combustion chamber from the external source, and can be calculated as below :Heat input = mc p(T3 - T2)Heat input = 81.85 × 1005 × (175.2 - 59.8)Heat input = 11,740,047 J/kg The thermodynamic efficiency (η) is given as below:η = Net work output/Heat inputη = -60,447/11,740,047η = -0.00514The thermodynamic efficiency is negative which indicates that the power plant is not feasible.

To know more about  processes  visit:

brainly.com/question/14832369

#SPJ11

The correct answer is A) increases 2 times. The rate of heat loss from a person by convection can be calculated using the equation:

Q = h * A * ΔT

where:

Q is the rate of heat loss (in watts),

h is the convective heat transfer coefficient (in watts per square meter per degree Celsius),

A is the surface area of the person,

ΔT is the temperature difference between the person's skin and the surrounding air.

The convective heat transfer coefficient can be approximated using empirical correlations for flow around a cylinder. For laminar flow around a cylinder, the convective heat transfer coefficient can be estimated as:

h = 2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3))

where:

k is the thermal conductivity of air,

D is the characteristic length of the person (diameter),

Re is the Reynolds number,

Pr is the Prandtl number.

Given that the person's diameter is 50 cm (0.5 m) and the length is 160 cm (1.6 m), the characteristic length (D) is 0.5 m.

Now, let's consider the velocity of the person. If the velocity is doubled, it means the Reynolds number (Re) will also double. The Reynolds number is defined as:

Re = (ρ * v * D) / μ

where:

ρ is the density of air,

v is the velocity of the person,

D is the characteristic length,

μ is the dynamic viscosity of air.

Since the density (ρ) and dynamic viscosity (μ) of air remain constant, doubling the velocity will double the Reynolds number (Re).

To determine the rate of heat loss when the person's velocity is doubled, we need to compare the convective heat transfer coefficients for the two cases.

For the initial velocity (v), the convective heat transfer coefficient is h1. For the doubled velocity (2v), the convective heat transfer coefficient is h2.

The ratio of the convective heat transfer coefficients is given by:

h2 / h1 = (2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * (2 * Re)^0.5 * Pr^(1/3))) / (2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)))

Notice that the constants cancel out, as well as the thermal conductivity (k) and the characteristic length (D).

Therefore, the ratio simplifies to:

h2 / h1 = (2 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)) / (Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)) = 2

This means that the rate of heat loss from the person by convection will increase 2 times when the velocity is doubled.

So, the correct answer is A) increases 2 times.

Learn more about heat loss  here:

https://brainly.com/question/31857421

#SPJ11