Answer:
Protein K is a protein that can available in the human cell nucleus that binds to pre-messenger RNA as a part of heterogenous ribonucleoprotein. IgG is one of the five isotypes of immunoglobulin or antibodies.it is the most common antibodies in the blood circulation and makes the 75% of total antibody.
When you heat solution, generally protein k activity increase with an increase in the heat but up to an extent or point called optimum temp. The optimal temperature for activity ranges between 50-65°c. When an increase in temperature help with protein unfolding easing the ability for protein k to break down those proteins.
Which is NOT a characteristic of the
climax community?
a) it had a well-drained spatial structure
b) it has a wide variety of species
c) it has an unbalanced ecosystem
d) it has complex food chains
The process of succession is necessary to maintain and establish stable communities. T or F
Answer: True it is necessary
Answer:
True
Explanation:
a strand of mRNA has the bases adenine- cytosine- uracil which amino acid corresponds to these bases?
Answer:
Threonine
Explanation:
Using the amino acid chart, the mRNA strand ACU corresponds to the amino acid Threonine.
Answer:
thr
Explanation:
i did test
molecular genetics experiment: In what way do the percentages of yellow leaves vary between dishes on Day 2? How do you account for this difference? Compare the percentage of yellow seedlings in dish 2 on day 2 with the percentage on day 4. What is the difference? What experimental variable accounts for this difference? How can you account for the difference between the seedlings in dish 1? Is the yellow color genetically or environmentally controlled? How can environmental factors affect inheritance? (Use human height as an example.)
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
There were yellow seedlings in Dish #1 during the light phase and also during the dark in Dish #2. The difference in these results is likely due to the period of exposure to light.
There are more number of yellow seedlings on Day 4. This is probably because of being kept in the dark for a long period of time. Light intensity is the experimental variable that accounts for this difference in appearance.
The yellow color is being environmentally controlled since the parent phenotype was wildtype in this experiment. The environment has an effect on which genes are expressed in the organism, which in turn influences the phenotype observed.
Which statement correctly describes glucose (CGH120.?
It is made of matter and contains twenty-four molecules.
It is an element made of three types of atoms.
It is an atom made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
It is a compound made of twenty-four total atoms of three different elements
Answer:
It is made of matter and contains twenty-four molecules.
The largest taxon and consists of all the other taxis called
Answer:
Domain
Explanation:
Tryptophan is an amino acid necessary for E. coli survival and growth. E. coli contain genes coding for enzymes that synthesize tryptophan. These genes are grouped together on a segment of DNA called the tryptophan (trp) operon. Cells can use these enzymes to synthesize tryptophan when it is not present in the environment. owever, when tryptophan is already present in the environment, cellular resources are shifted away from manufacturing the enzymes for tryptophan synthesis. Tryptophan binds with and activates the trp repressor, which then binds to the trp promoter and blocks RNA polymerase. Blocking RNA polymerase decreases the normal transcription rate of the operon. What type of regulation does the trp operon exhibit?a. positive regulation b. protein modification c. negative regulation d. translational regulation
Answer:
The correct answer is - The tryptophan operon shows C. negative regulation.
Explanation:
Tryptophan is an amino acid, excessively synthesized by the organism, it regulates its transcription through “trp Operon.” In this operon, the corepressor of the tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and gets activated.
This activated repressor now binds to the operator site, and prevents the binding of RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits the protein synthesis.
maggots feed on dead and decaying organisms for energy. what are maggots
Answer:
Decomposers, or as they're alternatively known, detritovores.
Explanation:
Their job is to break down decaying/dead organic matter to recycle it into the soil for plants (mainly). Fungi and bacteria make up the vast majority of decomposers.
10. How is Soil formed? What is Soil Erosion?
Answer:
soil is formed by weathering of rocks
soil erosion is the removal of the top soil by agents of erosion such as water, wind and ice
Soil is formed by various factors:
The Sun heats up rocks during the day so that they expand. At night, these rocks cool down and contract. Since all parts of the rock do not contract and expand at the same rate, this results in crack formation and huge rocks break up into smaller pieces.Water is another factor for soil formation. Water could get into the cracks in the rocks formed due to uneven heating by the Sun. If this water later freezes, it would cause the cracks to widen. Flowing water wears away even hard rock over long periods of time. Fast flowing water often carries big and small rock particles downstream. These rocks rub against each other and the resultant abrasion causes the rocks to wear into smaller and smaller particles. The water takes these particles along with it and deposits it further down its path. Soil is thus formed in places far away from its parent-rock.Wind also erode rocks down. The wind also sand from one place to the other.Living organisms also influence the formation of soil. The lichens grow on the rock surfaces. It releases certain substances that cause the rock surface to powder down and form a thin layer of soil. Other small particles like moss, are able to grow on this surface now and they cause the rock to break up further. The roots of big trees sometimes go into cracks in the rocks and as the roots grow bigger, the crack is forced bigger.Thus, soil is formed like this.Removal of the topsoil is known as the soil erosion.Hope you could get an idea from here.
Doubt clarification - use comment section.
Hurry please!!!
Which statement accurately describes long-term environmental changes?
Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup.
Long-term environmental changes happen suddenly with little warning,
Long-term environmental changes occur in hundreds of years.
Long-term environmental changes immediately affect organisms in the environment
Answer:
A. or #1 -- Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. D Value is determined as a
A. Removing of microorganisms by washing
B. Concentration of disinfectant required to reduce microbial population 10 times
C. Time required to kill 10% of microbial population
D. Time frame in which microbial population of 5,600,000 cells would decrease to 560,000 cells
E. None of the above
2. The betadine or alcohol swab before blood donation is an example of A. Pasteurization
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. Preservation
E. None of the above
Answer:
1. D. Time frame in which microbial population of 5,600,000 cells would decrease to 560,000 cells.
2. Disinfection
Explanation:
Hope it helps .
The basic unit of structure and function of living things is the A nucleus B cell C tissue or D membrane PLZ QUICK worth 20 points
Answer:
B. cell
Explanation:
A cell is the smallest unit of a living thing. A living thing, whether made of one cell (like bacteria) or many cells (like a human), is called an organism. Thus, cells are the basic building blocks of all organisms
Answer:
cell
Explanation:
The allosteric effector molecule 2,3-BPG facilitates transfer of oxygen between maternal and fetal blood in the placenta. Which of the following correctly describes the role of BPG in this process?
a. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is unable to cross the placenta into fetal blood, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
c. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
d. Fetal hemoglobin releases oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds more effectively to fetal hemoglobin causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
Answer:
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
Explanation:
BPG is a chemical compound which is found in red blood cells. It is known for decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen and thus helps in unloading oxygen from hemoglobin.
Owing to the structural difference, fetal hemoglobin binds to BPG with less affinity as compared to maternal hemoglobin thus it shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the left i.e. causes fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state. Due to this, fetal hemoglobin can carry up to 30% more oxygen as compared to maternal hemoglobin. As a result of this, oxygen is readily transferred to fetal blood when maternal blood enters placenta which restricts hypoxia in fetus.
Please describe the regulation of the blood glucose 6 hours after a meal?
Please include all relevant organs, hormones, and actions.
Answer:
Find the description below in the explanation section
Explanation:
The body system regulates the blood sugar level via the hand-in-hand working of insulin and glucagon hormones, both produced by the Pancreas. After a meal, the food undergoes digestion and is broken down into glucose, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Insulin hormone is released by the pancreas (stimulated by a negative feedback) when the sugar level of the blood increases. This secretion of insulin causes cells to absorb glucose as source of energy, while liver and muscle cells store some of the excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN.
However, after about 6 hours of taking the meal, the blood sugar (glucose) level must have decreased. This triggers the secretion of Glucagon hormone by the Pancreas. Glucagon hormone, acts in an opposite manner as Insulin hormone, by causing the stored GLYCOGEN in the liver and muscle cells to be converted back to Glucose in order for cells to make use of it.
This continuous process occurs and it is how the body regulates the blood glucose levels.
Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition
Answer:
seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors
Explanation:
Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.
How are lysosomes pro-nuclear dense bodies?
Answer:i hope this answers ur question
Explanation:
A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation?
A. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3
B. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATAT-3
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
D. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCCAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Answer:
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Explanation:
In the wild type, the DNA sequence encodes the following aminoacidic segment: SRSLGI; while the mutant form has a stop codon in the second codon (TGA). A stop codon is a trinucleotide sequence in the messenger RNA (mRNA) that indicates a stop signal in protein synthesis. There are three types of stop codons: UGA, UAG and UAA, where U represents Uracile in the mRNA instead of Thymine in the DNA sequence.
Representation:
C. WT 5-T AGT CGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = SRSLGI
Mutant 5-T AGT TGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = S-, where - represents a stop codon (TGA) and therefore it is the end of the protein.
Juan conducted an experiment and asked Catherine to replicate it. Juan’s values are 16, 15, 15, 16, and 15. Catherine’s values are 16, 14, 16, 15, and 15.
Answer:
i think inexact
Explanation:
Answer:
c
Explanation:
i took the exam i promise
Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?
a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Answer:
The correct answer would be:
Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Explanation:
The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.
This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.
Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).
This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.
g If a pair of sister chromatids fail to separate during anaphase II (meiosis II), what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)
Answer:
The result will be two gametes with a normal haploid number (n), one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) and one gamete missing one chromosome (n − 1).
Explanation:
Nondisjunction is caused by the failure in the mechanism of separation of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids during meiosis and/or mitosis. The failure in the separation of sister chromatids during meiosis II is referred to as 'secondary nondisjunction' and it produces two daughter cells with abnormal chromosome numbers.
The fusion of one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) with a normal (n) gamete will lead to trisomy (2n + 1), while the fusion of one gamete missing one chromosome (n - 1) with a normal gamete will lead to monosomy (2n-1).
Jack has just returned from the hospital where Jack's father is recovering from a heart attack. The doctors told Jack that his dad's atherosclerosis is very serious. Jack and his wife, Melanie, are worried about Jack's father and also are starting to think about Jack's risk of also having heart disease in his lifetime. He sets up an appointment at his doctor's office and has his blood lipid levels evaluated for the first time. Let's see if you can answer some of the questions that Jack and Melanie have. Which risk factor does Jack have no control over?a. Obesityb. Geneticsc. Stressd. Atherogenic diete. Jack can change all of these risk factors.
The correct answer is B. Genetics
Explanation:
In health, a risk factor is a variable that can make a patient more likely to develop a disease or condition. Additionally, some of these factors can be controlled or changed by the patient, while others cannot be modified. Factors that can be controlled include stress, diet, weight, alcohol intake, and habits. This does not apply to factors such as age or genetics, for example, in the case of genetics, this is determined by the genes of each parent when a human being is formed, and therefore there is not any way to change this; although factors such as diet, stress, or smoking affect the expression of mutations in genes. Thus, the risk factor Jack has no control over is genetics.
Comparison of glycogen synthesis and breakdown in muscle and liver reveals: A. Stimulation of glycogen breakdown in both tissues by epinephrine leads to enhanced glucose uptake by liver cells and enhanced glucose export from muscle cells. B. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues leads to glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle. C. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis in both tissues by epinephrine leads to glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle. D. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues is accompanied by decreased glycogenolysis. E. Epinephrine stimulates glycogen uptake in liver and breakdown in muscle.
Answer:
The correct options are C and D:
C- The inhibition of glycogen synthesis in both tissues by epinephrine leads to glycogenolysis in both the liver and muscle.
D- The stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues is accompanied by a decrease in glycogenolysis.
Explanation:
The presence of epinephrine causes the glycogen reserve that is present in the liver and muscle to enter the glycogenolysis stage, that is, the chemical structures of glycogen are broken and simplified in energy coins (ATP) so that the activity muscle contract against stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system.
The adrenergic nervous system is one that promotes physical activity, physiological stress, flight from danger, and other activities, is also known as the sympathetic system and is where epinephrine or adrenaline predominates as a neurotransmitter.
The liver and muscle are the only possible organs to reserve glycogen in a limited way, once its reserve limits are exceeded it will begin to deposit in the form of adipose tissue, glycogenogenesis or formation of glycogen as reserve is promoted by insulin and the system parasympathetic nerve, visceversa to what we explained above with the sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine, since the latter break the glycogen reserves releasing glucose into the blood for muscle contraction.
Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?
If your observations do not support your hypothesis, what
should you
you do?
Answer:
than admit defeat
Explanation:
Which type of mutation results in a frame shift mutation? Check all that apply? Substitute Insertion Deletion Point mutation
Answer: Insertion, Deletion
Explanation:
The frameshift mutation can be defined as a genetic mutation that is caused by the deletion or insertion of the DNA sequence or base pairs that shifts the sequence to be read. As a result of this the abnormal proteins are produced along with incorrect amino acid sequence that either shorter or longer than the normal protein.
If it is accepted that the information for how a protein is intended to fold lies within its primary sequence, explain why a purified protein denatured in vitro might not be able to renature accurately.
Answer:
Denaturation and renaturation are properties of protein but in some cases denaturation is irreversible and protein is unable to renature.
The primary sequence of a protein determines which portion of protein fold closely together in order to form three-dimensional conformation and the conformations are held by hydrogen bonds.
Denaturation of protein in-vitro is generally obtained by increasing temperature. Heat or high temperature disrupts hydrogen bonds that held between protein folds because high temperature increases the kinetic energy and the bonds are disrupted due to rapid heating. Disruption of hydrogen bonds will change the 3D structure of the protein and denatured proteins lose its function.
Chemicals are also used to disrupt hydrogen bonds such as alcohol.
So, high temperature and chemicals denature protein by affecting the hydrogen bonds holding 3D shape of primary sequence in protein and the change in protein becomes irreversible.
Suppose a plant breeder wants to isolate mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair. However, this breeder does not have the expertise or equipment to study enzymes in DNA repair systems.
Which methods would best allow the breeder to identify tomato plants that are deficient in DNA repair?
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants. Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
D) Measure the germ line spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
The provided question has marked options incorrectely the correct order as follows:
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
D) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
E) Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Answer:
The correct answer is: A), C) and E)
Explanation:
The breeder wants to isolate the mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair, to identify such plants breeder should follow these methods as they will allow best to identifying the defective tomatoes-
Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants. This will allow the breeder to see and analyze the ability of DNA repair in tomatoes
During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear membrane, nucleoli, nucleus dissolve
Answer:
Prophase stage
Hope this helps
The women has had two miscarriages. What is the chance that she could have a normal child? a. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.b. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.c. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers.d. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers
Second class levers are best described as follows:___________.
A) "The muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum, and the effort required to move the load is at a mechanical advantage"
B) "The muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum, but the effort required to move the load is at a mechanical disadvantage"
C) "The muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, with a longer moment arm for the effort than for the load"
D) "The muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, with a longer moment arm for the load than for the effort"
Answer:
A, B, C, D!
Explanation: