A clinical laboratory scientist is referred to as a medical technologist.
A clinical laboratory scientist, also known as a medical technologist, is a highly skilled professional who performs complex laboratory tests and analyzes the results to assist in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases. They work in clinical laboratories and play a critical role in providing accurate and reliable laboratory test results.
Medical technologists are responsible for various tasks, including sample collection, preparation, and analysis using sophisticated laboratory equipment and techniques. They have in-depth knowledge of the principles and procedures involved in different laboratory tests, such as hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. They interpret the test results, troubleshoot any technical issues, and ensure the quality and accuracy of the data generated.
In contrast, a clinical laboratory technician (CLT) is another position in the laboratory field, but they typically have less training and responsibility compared to medical technologists. CLTs perform routine laboratory tests and procedures under the supervision of medical technologists or laboratory managers.
To summarize, a clinical laboratory scientist is referred to as a medical technologist. They are highly skilled professionals who perform complex laboratory tests, analyze results, and contribute to the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
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When you examine the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label, you can use the % Daily Value to determine whether or not that food is a good source of nutrients. If a food provides at least 10% of the Daily Value for a nutrient, it is a good source of that nutrient. If it provides at least 20% of the Daily Value for a nutrient, it is a high (or rich) source of that nutrient. c. Which type of milk is a good source of vitamin A? HINT: The Daily Value for vitamin A is 900 micrograms RAE. Whole milk 2% milk Skim milk All of these d. Which type of milk is a good source of vitamin D? HINT: The Daily Value for vitamin D is 20 micrograms. Whole milk 2% milk Skim milk All of these e. Which type of milk is a good source of calcium? HINT: The Daily Value for calcium is 1300 milligrams.
All types of milk (whole milk, 2% milk, skim milk) are good sources of vitamin A, vitamin D, and calcium.
To determine which type of milk is a good source of vitamin A, vitamin D, and calcium, we need to compare the % Daily Value provided by each type of milk for these nutrients.
According to the given information, if a food provides at least 10% of the Daily Value for a nutrient, it is considered a good source of that nutrient.
a. Good source of vitamin A: The Daily Value for vitamin A is 900 micrograms RAE. By checking the Nutrition Facts panel on the milk labels, if any type of milk provides at least 10% (90 micrograms RAE) of the Daily Value for vitamin A, it can be considered a good source. Therefore, all types of milk (whole milk, 2% milk, skim milk) are good sources of vitamin A.
b. Good source of vitamin D: The Daily Value for vitamin D is 20 micrograms. If any type of milk provides at least 10% (2 micrograms) of the Daily Value for vitamin D, it can be considered a good source. Thus, all types of milk (whole milk, 2% milk, skim milk) are good sources of vitamin D.
c. Good source of calcium: The Daily Value for calcium is 1300 milligrams. If any type of milk provides at least 10% (130 milligrams) of the Daily Value for calcium, it can be considered a good source. Therefore, all types of milk (whole milk, 2% milk, skim milk) are good sources of calcium.
In conclusion, all types of milk (whole milk, 2% milk, skim milk) can be considered good sources of vitamin A, vitamin D, and calcium as they provide at least 10% of the Daily Value for these nutrients.
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case study on a nurse in an extended care facility. when the nurse enters the patient room and find the patient unconscious and not breathing. the patient meal tray is in front of her and the nurse noticed part of an orange on it
The nurse should immediately call for help and start CPR the nurse should first check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation.
If the patient is not breathing and does not have a pulse, the nurse should immediately start CPR.
The nurse should also call for help and have someone else call 911. The nurse should continue CPR until the patient starts breathing on their own or until help arrives.
In this case, the fact that the patient's meal tray is in front of them and that the nurse noticed part of an orange on it suggests that the patient may have choked on the orange.
This is a serious medical emergency and it is important for the nurse to act quickly. By following the steps outlined above, the nurse can help to save the patient's life.
Here are some additional things that the nurse can do after the patient is stabilized:
Assess the patient for any other injuries.Administer oxygen as needed.Monitor the patient's vital signs.Keep the patient warm and comfortable.Provide emotional support to the patient and their family.The nurse should also document the incident in the patient's medical record. This will help to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate care and that any potential problems are identified and addressed.
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1. the nurse should question his calculations if they result in which of the following dosage?
a) 3 tablets
b) 5ml
c) 4 tablets
d) 0.5 tablets
2. order erythromycin 0.5g PO q12h. supply erythromycin 250mg/mL . how many mL will be administered in one day?
3. your client is scheduled for surgery and is ordered midazolam (a sedative) 4mg IM 30 minutes pre- operatively. on hand you have midazolam 5mg/mL. how many mL should you administer?
4. order amoxicilin 400mg PO q6h. supply amoxicilin 250mg/5mL. how many ml should be administered?
5. order dexamethasone 750mcg PO BID. supply dexamethasone 0.5mg tablets. how many tablets should be administered?
6. order cephalexin 500mg PO QID for 10 days, the supply does is 250mg/5ml . how many mililiters should be dispensesd to last for the duration of the prescription?
7. order tobramycin sulfate 75mg IM q8h, supply tobramycin sulfate 80 mg/2ml vial. how many Ml will you administered
8. a client recovering from a total hip replacement is recieving the blood thinner enoxaparin 40mg subcutaneously BID. on hand you have enoxaparin 300mg/ml vials. how many mLs will you administer?
9. order acetominophen 240mg PO q4h pm. supply acetominophen elixir 160mg/5mL how many should be administered?
If the nurse's calculations result in a dosage of 0.5 tablets, they should question their calculations.2. Order erythromycin 0.5g PO q12h. Supply erythromycin 250mg/mL.
The medication should be administered twice a day, with 12 hours in between.0.5 g = 500 mg = 500,000 mcg500,000/250 = 2000 mL/Day3. Your client is scheduled for surgery and is ordered midazolam (a sedative) 4mg IM 30 minutes pre-operatively. On hand, you have midazolam 5mg/mL.
The prescribed dose of midazolam is 4 mg.
The available dose of midazolam is 5 mg/mL, which is used to prepare the medication.4/5 = 0.8 mL (The nurse should administer 0.8 mL)
4. Order amoxicillin 400mg PO q6h. Supply amoxicillin 250mg/5mL. How many mL should be administered?400 mg is the prescribed dosage, and 250 mg/5 mL is the available dosage.400/250 = 1.6 mL (The nurse should administer 1.6 mL)
These calculations are critical in ensuring that the correct dosage is administered to the patient. It's crucial for nurses to be familiar with these calculations because a single miscalculation can result in an underdose or overdose of the medication, which can lead to serious harm to the patient. Before administering any medication, the nurse should double-check their calculations and ensure that the medication's prescription, preparation, administration, and documentation are correct.
Additionally, they should follow the six rights of medication administration (right medication, right patient, right dosage, right route, right time, and right documentation) to ensure that they are providing the correct medication in the correct amount at the right time. Finally, they should report any medication errors to the appropriate healthcare professionals immediately.
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Specify the sequence correctly: (a) Grain growth, recrystallizations, stress relief,
(b) Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallization, (c) Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallization, (d) Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth
The correct sequence is (d) Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth.
Stress relief involves reducing the internal stresses of a metal without altering its chemical composition by heating and holding it at a suitable temperature for a time. Recrystallization is a process in which a deformed material's crystal structure changes and is replaced by a new set of strain-free grains during heating. Grain growth is a process that involves increasing grain size by heat treatment after recrystallization or in the presence of very high stresses.
Grain growth after recrystallization is frequently used to improve mechanical properties like toughness and ductility. Stress relief is frequently utilized before the final processing step because it lowers residual stresses that could lead to warping or distortion during final processing. Recrystallization enhances ductility and strength by changing the grain structure. So therefore the correct sequence is (d) Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth.
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What does transcultural ethics and transcultural caring in today’s multicultural environment mean to you?
How did you, as a nurse, deal with the situation to promote transcultural caring ethics? Support your suggestions with clear rationale and application from chapter readings.
Transcultural ethics and transcultural caring are important concepts in the modern nursing practice. Transcultural ethics refers to the ethical principles that healthcare providers must apply when delivering care to patients from diverse cultures.
On the other hand, transcultural caring refers to the sensitivity and responsiveness that healthcare providers must demonstrate when caring for patients from diverse cultures in a respectful manner.
As a nurse, promoting transcultural ethics and caring is an essential part of the nursing practice. One of the ways that I dealt with situations that required transcultural care was by first acknowledging that patients from different cultures have different beliefs and values that impact how they respond to healthcare services. I always ensured that I provided care to patients with respect and sensitivity to their cultural beliefs and values.
In promoting transcultural care, one of the strategies I employed was to educate myself on the cultural beliefs and values of my patients. This meant that I would ask questions to my patients about their cultural background, beliefs, and practices to help me understand their perspective on healthcare and medical treatments.
Another strategy I employed was to involve families and interpreters in the care process to help me communicate better with patients who did not speak English. I also ensured that I explained medical terms in a clear and understandable manner to patients to avoid confusion and misunderstandings.
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What are the benefits of sharing patient health information? what
current applications are available to share patient
information?
It enhances care coordination and continuity by allowing different healthcare providers to have access to a patient's complete medical history,Various applications are available to facilitate the sharing of patient information like Electronic Health Records (EHRs)
Sharing patient health information offers several benefits in healthcare. It enhances care coordination and continuity by allowing different healthcare providers to have access to a patient's complete medical history, including diagnoses, medications, allergies, and treatment plans. This facilitates informed decision-making, reduces medical errors, and improves patient outcomes. Sharing information also promotes efficient healthcare delivery, as healthcare professionals can collaborate effectively, avoid unnecessary duplication of tests or procedures, and streamline care transitions. Moreover, it empowers patients by involving them in their own care and enabling them to access and manage their health information.
Various applications are available to facilitate the sharing of patient information. Electronic Health Records (EHRs) are comprehensive digital records that store and exchange patient health information across different healthcare settings. They provide a centralized repository of patient data accessible to authorized healthcare providers. Health Information Exchanges (HIEs) are platforms that enable the secure sharing of patient information among healthcare organizations, promoting interoperability. Additionally, secure messaging systems and telehealth technologies allow real-time communication between healthcare professionals, facilitating the exchange of patient information while ensuring data privacy and security. These applications play a vital role in enabling efficient and secure sharing of patient health information, ultimately improving patient care and outcomes
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Describe a vaccination. What are the component(s) found in a vaccine that makes them effective? What happens in the body when a vaccine is administered? Finally, list and compare and contrast 3 different types (NOT the specific vaccine target, i.e. flu, rabies, tetanus) of vaccines available (How they are created & how they differ from each other).
A vaccination is a preventative measure taken to protect an individual against infectious diseases. It is made up of components that stimulate an individual's immune system to fight off a specific pathogen.
The main components found in a vaccine that make them effective are antigens. Antigens are pieces of a pathogen that are recognized by the immune system. When a vaccine is administered, these antigens are presented to the immune system, which then produces an immune response. This immune response creates memory cells that remember the pathogen so that if it is encountered in the future, the body can quickly mount a defense.
When a vaccine is administered, the antigens in the vaccine trigger an immune response in the body. The immune system then produces antibodies that recognize and neutralize the pathogen. The body also produces memory cells that can recognize the pathogen in the future and mount a defense quickly.
There are three main types of vaccines: live attenuated vaccines, inactivated vaccines, and subunit, recombinant, or conjugate vaccines.
Live attenuated vaccines contain a weakened form of the pathogen that can still replicate but is less virulent. Inactivated vaccines contain dead or inactivated pathogens that cannot replicate. Subunit, recombinant, or conjugate vaccines contain only a part of the pathogen, such as a protein or sugar, that is recognized by the immune system.
Live attenuated vaccines provide strong and long-lasting immunity, but they can sometimes cause adverse reactions in individuals with weakened immune systems. Inactivated vaccines are safer, but they may require booster shots to maintain immunity. Subunit, recombinant, or conjugate vaccines are the safest, but they may not provide as strong or long-lasting immunity as the other types.
In summary, a vaccine is a preventative measure taken to protect an individual against infectious diseases. The main components found in a vaccine that make them effective are antigens. When a vaccine is administered, the antigens trigger an immune response that creates memory cells to fight off the pathogen in the future. There are three main types of vaccines: live attenuated vaccines, inactivated vaccines, and subunit, recombinant, or conjugate vaccines. They differ in how they are created and how effective they are at providing immunity.
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PLEASE EXPLAIN IN DETAIL:
1. List and discuss the three main types of skin cancers.
Include the cause, prevention, diagnosis, treatment, expected
outcome of each.
The three main types of skin cancer are basal cell carcinoma (BCC), squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), and melanoma.
Here's an explanation of the three main types of skin cancers:
Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC): It is usually caused by long-term sun exposure. Prevention involves protecting the skin from the sun. Diagnosis is made through a skin biopsy. Treatment options include surgical removal, cryotherapy, and topical medications. The expected outcome is generally good with a low risk of metastasis.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC): It is primarily caused by sun exposure, but other factors like radiation and chemicals can also contribute. Prevention includes sun protection measures. Diagnosis is made through a skin biopsy. Treatment options include surgical excision, radiation therapy, and topical medications. The expected outcome is generally favorable, but metastasis is possible in advanced cases.
Melanoma: It is primarily caused by intense sun exposure, but genetic factors can also play a role. Prevention involves sun protection and avoiding tanning beds. Diagnosis is made through a skin biopsy. Treatment options include surgical excision, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and immunotherapy. The expected outcome depends on the stage of melanoma, with early detection leading to a higher chance of cure. Metastasis is possible and can be life-threatening.
It's important to note that early detection and prompt treatment significantly improve the outcomes for all types of skin cancer. Regular skin examinations and seeking medical attention for any suspicious skin changes are crucial for early detection and treatment.
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) a 43-year-old man was transferring a load of firewood from his front driveway to his backyard woodpile at 10 a.m. when he experienced a heaviness in his chest and dyspnea. he stopped working and rested, and the pain subsided. at noon, the pain returned. at 1:30 p.m., his wife took him to the emergency department. around 2 p.m., the emergency department physician diagnoses an anterior myocardial infarction (mi). the nurse should anticipate which immediate order by the physician?
The nurse should anticipate an immediate order for the administration of aspirin in the suspected case of MI as the initial management of MI is done by using aspirin.
In cases of suspected myocardial infarction (MI), prompt medical intervention is crucial to minimize damage to the heart muscle. The patient's symptoms, including chest heaviness and dyspnea, are indicative of a potential anterior MI. An anterior MI refers to a blockage of the coronary artery that supplies blood to the front part of the heart. Immediate medical attention is necessary to restore blood flow and prevent further complications.
Aspirin is commonly used in the early management of an MI. It is a potent antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clot formation. When administered during an MI, aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can contribute to the blockage of blood vessels. By reducing the formation of blood clots, aspirin helps to maintain blood flow to the heart, limiting the extent of damage caused by the MI.
The nurse should anticipate that the emergency department physician will order the immediate administration of aspirin upon the diagnosis of an anterior MI. This order aims to provide rapid relief and prevent further clotting, thus improving the patient's outcomes. Aspirin is typically administered orally or, in more critical cases, through an IV route to achieve a faster onset of action.
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Discussion post
Audience Groups:
Layperson
Administrator
Practitioner
Researcher
Instructions:
Select several examples of healthcare documents that you've received, such as a leaflet on a prescription drug, a list of approved providers from your insurance policy, or perhaps a story in your local newspaper. Into which audience group do you fall. How well do these documents work for you as the target audience?
As a layperson, these healthcare documents often work well for me as the target audience. They are accessible, user-friendly, and provide the necessary information in a clear and concise manner.
The healthcare documents that I have received, such as leaflets on prescription drugs or information from my insurance policy, are typically designed with the layperson in mind. They aim to provide clear and understandable information about healthcare topics. These documents use plain language, avoid complex medical jargon, and include visual aids or illustrations to enhance understanding. They provide essential details about the medication, its uses, potential side effects, and dosage instructions, allowing me to make informed decisions about my health. Similarly, the list of approved providers from my insurance policy helps me navigate the network and find appropriate healthcare services. These documents effectively communicate relevant information, answer common questions, and address potential concerns, making them valuable resources for me as a layperson.
In summary, as a layperson, I find that these healthcare documents work well for me as the target audience. They are accessible, user-friendly, and provide the necessary information in a clear and concise manner, enabling me to make informed decisions and navigate the healthcare system effectively.
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Patient X has become overweight and recently developed high blood pressure and a lump on their upper back. You are an endocrinologist, and you first determine that X has high cortisol levels in the blood. Your next step is to determine whether the problem lies at the level of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, or adrenal gland. What is the predicted level (high, normal, low) for CRH, ACTH, and cortisol if the problem is: 1. a) due to a problem with secretion of CRH by the hypothalamus? 2. b) due to a problem with secretion of ACTH by the anterior pituitary gland? 3. c) due to a problem with secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland? 4. a. Possible cause #1 for high secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland despite normal CRH: b. Experimental evidence that would support this cause: 2 pts 5. a. Possible cause #2 for high secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland despite normal CRH: b. Experimental evidence that would support this cause: 2 pts
Possible level for CRH, ACTH and cortisol with problems in secretionIf the problem lies at the level of the hypothalamus due to secretion of CRH, the predicted level of CRH is low, predicted level of ACTH is low and predicted level of cortisol is low or normal.
If the problem lies at the level of the anterior pituitary gland due to secretion of ACTH, the predicted level of CRH is high, predicted level of ACTH is low and predicted level of cortisol is low or normal.If the problem lies at the level of the adrenal gland due to secretion of cortisol, the predicted level of CRH is high, predicted level of ACTH is high and predicted level of cortisol is high.Possible cause for high secretion of cortisol by adrenal gland1.
Possible cause for high secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland despite normal CRH is due to a tumor in the adrenal gland.2. Experimental evidence that would support this cause is that cortisol levels remain high even after injecting dexamethasone.
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NO HANDWRITTEN/COPY AND PASTE ANSWERS. IF YOU DO NOT KNOW, DO NOT ANSWER. DO NOT ANSWER ONLY 1 QUESTION
2.) What organization is responsible for maintaining a code of ethics for healthcare professionals? How is the code used? Please explain.
The code of ethics for healthcare professionals, maintained by relevant organizations, provides a set of principles and guidelines that shape professional conduct and decision-making in the field of healthcare.
The organization is responsible for maintaining a code of ethics for healthcare professionals and is typically the respective professional association or governing body specific to each country.
For example, in the United States, the American Medical Association (AMA) establishes and upholds the Code of Medical Ethics, while the American Nurses Association (ANA) oversees the Code of Ethics for Nurses.
These codes serve as guiding principles for healthcare professionals in their practice.
The code of ethics outlines the moral and professional responsibilities of healthcare practitioners, providing a framework for ethical decision-making.
It sets standards for professional behavior, patient interactions, confidentiality, informed consent, and conflicts of interest, among other critical aspects. The code promotes the values of integrity, compassion, respect, and professionalism within the healthcare field.
Healthcare professionals use the code of ethics as a reference and guide to ensure their actions align with ethical principles and obligations. It assists them in navigating complex situations, making difficult choices, and upholding patient welfare.
The code also serves as a means of self-regulation and professional accountability. Violations of the code can result in disciplinary action, reinforcing the importance of adhering to ethical standards.
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The cytokine storm seen in patients with severe COVID-19 is an example of a microbe causing disease in which way? Multiple Choice Secretion of exotoxins Causing direct damage through exoenzymes Epigenetic changes. Causing an overreaction of the host immune system
The cytokine storm observed in severe COVID-19 patients is an example of a microbe causing disease by causing an overreaction of the host immune system. This immune system overactivation leads to an excessive release of pro-inflammatory cytokines, contributing to the severity of the disease.
The cytokine storm observed in severe COVID-19 cases is characterized by an excessive and dysregulated immune response triggered by the SARS-CoV-2 virus. This immune system overactivation leads to the release of a large number of pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin-6 (IL-6), tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), and interleukin-1 beta (IL-1β).
This excessive cytokine release results in a cascade of immune reactions and widespread inflammation throughout the body, causing damage to various organs and tissues. The cytokine storm contributes to the severity of the disease and can lead to complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and organ failure.
Therefore, the cytokine storm seen in severe COVID-19 is an example of a microbe causing disease by causing an overreaction of the host immune system. It highlights the complex interplay between the virus and the immune response, leading to significant pathological consequences.
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A 10 year-old boy has fever, painful swallowing and enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. Throat specimen on Gram-stained shows gram-positive coccl arranged in chains. On blood agar numerous colonies surrounded by dear zone. If you found the catalase test to be negative, which one of the following organisms would you MOST probably have isolated? a.Streptococcus pneumoniae b.Streptococcus pyogenes c.Corynebacterium diphtherine d.Staphylococcus aureus
The correct answer is Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pyogenes is a gram-positive bacterium that appears in chains and causes a number of human diseases. It is the bacteria that is most commonly associated with the symptoms described here.
The catalase test will be negative for Streptococcus pyogenes, which is a characteristic of this bacterium. There are other bacteria that are also gram-positive, but their morphology and disease-causing capacity is different from Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause similar symptoms as those described here, but its colonies will appear different on blood agar. Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Staphylococcus aureus are both gram-positive cocci, but they are not arranged in chains.
Moreover, Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria, a disease with a different clinical presentation, while Staphylococcus aureus is known to cause a variety of skin infections, pneumonia, and even sepsis. Thus, Streptococcus pyogenes is the most probable bacterium responsible for this infection.
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How do most countries with similar levels of per capita income
differ from and resemble the United States with respect to cost,
quality, and access to health care?
Most countries with similar levels of per capita income differ from the United States with respect to cost, quality, and access to health care. In the United States, health care is much more costly than in other countries. This is partly due to the high prices charged by physicians and hospitals and the high cost of prescription medications.
Although the United States has a good reputation for medical quality, it is not the best in terms of access.
Most of the health care facilities and physicians are concentrated in cities, so people living in rural areas have limited access to health care services. In contrast, many countries with similar per capita income levels have universal health care systems. This means that everyone, regardless of their income or health status, has access to health care services. While the quality of care may vary from country to country, the cost is usually much lower than in the United States.
In many countries, the government controls the cost of medical services, which keeps them affordable for everyone. The United States has a unique health care system compared to most other countries, as it is primarily driven by the private sector.
This means that insurance companies, hospitals, and medical professionals play a significant role in deciding who gets access to health care and how much they pay for it. In countries with universal health care, the government is responsible for ensuring that everyone has access to health care services.
In conclusion, most countries with similar levels of per capita income differ from and resemble the United States with respect to cost, quality, and access to health care. The United States has a reputation for providing high-quality medical care but it is not accessible to everyone, mainly due to its high cost. In contrast, many countries have universal health care systems that provide access to health care services to all their citizens.
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What do you think would be the most important nursing
communication strategy to use when communicating in a change
process?
Active listening would be the most important nursing communication strategy to use when communicating in a change process.
Active listening is crucial in a change process as it promotes effective communication and understanding among team members.
It involves fully focusing on the speaker, understanding their perspective, and providing appropriate verbal and non-verbal cues to show engagement and empathy.
Engagement: Active listening involves engaging fully with the speaker, maintaining eye contact, and showing interest in their message. This demonstrates respect and helps build rapport.
Empathy: By actively listening, nurses can understand and acknowledge the emotions and concerns of others during a change process. This fosters trust and creates a supportive environment.
Clarification: Active listening also involves seeking clarification when necessary. Nurses can ask open-ended questions or paraphrase the speaker's message to ensure accurate understanding.
Non-verbal cues: Nurses can use non-verbal cues such as nodding, appropriate facial expressions, and body language to indicate attentiveness and understanding.
Feedback: Active listening includes providing feedback to the speaker to ensure that their message has been accurately received and understood. Nurses can summarize or reflect on the speaker's message to demonstrate comprehension.
By employing active listening, nurses can enhance communication, promote effective teamwork, and facilitate a smooth transition during a change process.
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A 3rd-year medical student at the Washington University Medical Center in St. Louis, MO is participating in a demonstration of X Ray equipment dispersed granulomas in the left lobe of his chest. If a follow-up PPD test (TB skin test) comes back negative, the most likely cause of the granulor Answers A-E A Chlamydia psittaci B Cryptococcus neoformans C Histoplasma capsulatum D Yersinia pestis E Franciselta tularensis
If a 3rd-year medical student participating in a demonstration of X-ray equipment develops dispersed granulomas in the left lobe of his chest, and a follow-up PPD test (TB skin test) comes back negative, the most likely cause of the granulomas is Cryptococcus neoformans (Answer B).
This fungus is known to cause pulmonary infections that can present as granulomas in the lungs.
In this scenario, the presence of dispersed granulomas in the left lobe of the chest indicates an infection or inflammatory process. However, since the follow-up PPD test comes back negative, it suggests that the granulomas are not caused by tuberculosis (TB). Among the given options, Cryptococcus neoformans (Answer B) is the most likely cause.
Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus commonly found in the environment, particularly in bird droppings. Inhalation of its spores can lead to pulmonary infections. In immunocompromised individuals or those with underlying lung diseases, such as the medical student in this case, Cryptococcus neoformans can cause pulmonary granulomas.
The other options listed are associated with different infections:
Chlamydia psittaci (Answer A) is associated with psittacosis, a respiratory infection primarily transmitted by infected birds.
Histoplasma capsulatum (Answer C) is responsible for histoplasmosis, a fungal infection commonly acquired by inhalation of fungal spores found in soil contaminated with bird or bat droppings.
Yersinia pestis (Answer D) causes the plague, typically characterized by lymphadenopathy and systemic symptoms.
Francisella tularensis (Answer E) is the causative agent of tularemia, which presents with various manifestations depending on the route of infection.
Considering the presentation of dispersed granulomas in the chest and the negative PPD test, Cryptococcus neoformans (Answer B) aligns most closely with the described scenario. However, it's important to note that a comprehensive evaluation and further diagnostic tests would be necessary to confirm the precise cause of the granulomas
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Which of the following is NOT correct about de novo synthesis of purine biosynthesis? Conversion of IMP to AMP and GMP are ATP dependent reaction. Purine ring is built onto the ribose-5-phosphate by glutamine, glycine, tetrahydrofolate and glutamine. PRPP is synthesized from ribose-5-phosphate by ribose phosphate Precursors for AMP or GMP is IMP.
The statement "Purine ring is built onto the ribose-5-phosphate by glutamine, glycine, tetrahydrofolate, and glutamine" is incorrect in relation to the de novo synthesis of purine biosynthesis.
In the de novo synthesis of purine biosynthesis, the purine ring is indeed built onto the ribose-5-phosphate molecule. However, the correct components involved in this process are glutamine, glycine, tetrahydrofolate, and aspartate, not glutamine twice.
The pathway begins with ribose-5-phosphate and utilizes various enzymes and intermediates to synthesize inosine monophosphate (IMP). From IMP, the synthesis branches off to form either adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or guanosine monophosphate (GMP).
Conversion of IMP to AMP and GMP requires the utilization of ATP, making the statement "Conversion of IMP to AMP and GMP are ATP-dependent reactions" correct. Additionally, the precursor for both AMP and GMP is indeed IMP.
Overall, the incorrect statement in the given options is the repetition of "glutamine" as one of the components involved in building the purine ring.
The correct components are glycine, tetrahydrofolate, and aspartate, along with ribose-5-phosphate, in the de novo synthesis of purine biosynthesis.
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Apply 3 problem solving techniques to develop creative and
innovative solutions to the problem of; nurses are tired and
overworked during the pandemic.
250-300 words
These are just a few examples of the many creative and innovative solutions that could be developed to address the problem of nurse fatigue. By using problem solving techniques like brainstorming, mind mapping, and lateral thinking,
Brainstorming: Brainstorming is a great way to generate a lot of ideas quickly. To brainstorm, gather a group of people together and ask them to come up with as many ideas as possible to solve the problem of nurses being tired and overworked.
No idea is too crazy, and no idea should be judged. Once everyone has had a chance to share their ideas, you can start to evaluate them and see which ones are the most feasible.
Mind mapping: Mind mapping is a great way to visualize a problem and its potential solutions. To create a mind map, start by writing the problem in the center of a piece of paper. Then, draw branches off of the center and write down possible solutions to the problem.
You can also draw arrows between the branches to show how the solutions are related. Mind mapping can help you to see the problem from different perspectives and to come up with creative solutions.
Lateral thinking: Lateral thinking is a way of thinking that involves looking at problems from a new and different perspective. To use lateral thinking, try to come up with solutions to the problem that are completely different from the traditional solutions.
For example, instead of trying to find ways to reduce the number of hours that nurses work, you could try to find ways to make the work that nurses do less tiring.
By using these three problem solving techniques, you can come up with creative and innovative solutions to the problem of nurses being tired and overworked during the pandemic.
These solutions can help to improve the lives of nurses and to ensure that they are able to provide the best possible care to their patients.
Here are some specific examples of creative and innovative solutions that could be developed using these techniques:
Brainstorming: One idea that could come out of a brainstorming session is to create a system of rotating shifts that would allow nurses to have more regular hours and to get more rest.
Mind mapping: A mind map could show that one of the main causes of nurse fatigue is the stress of dealing with a high volume of patients. This could lead to the development of new strategies for managing patient flow and for providing emotional support to nurses.
Lateral thinking: A lateral thinking approach could lead to the development of new technologies that could automate some of the tasks that nurses currently do, freeing them up to spend more time with patients and less time on paperwork.
These are just a few examples of the many creative and innovative solutions that could be developed to address the problem of nurse fatigue. By using problem solving techniques like brainstorming, mind mapping, and lateral thinking,
we can come up with new and better ways to support our nurses and to ensure that they are able to provide the best possible care to their patients.
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Question 104 Parts of the body most affected by mycloma include ail of the following. The part that is NOT affected by Mycloma is: Kidncy Vertebrae Liver- Bones of the pelvis Behavioral changes associated with a drug abuse problem in adolescents include all of the following EXCEPT: Unexplained blackouts Changes in eating patterns Changes in sleeping patterns Preoccupation with Body image All of the above Question 101 During cardiac auscultation, a soft $1 with a holosystolic apical murmur that radiates to the left axilla suggests: Aortic stenosis Aortic regurgitation Mitral valve stenosis Mitral valve regurgitation The following element is most offen associated with insulin resistance? tow triglyceride levels Small donse tDL particles High tolal cholesterol High HDL levels
The liver is not affected by multiple myeloma, while the kidneys, bones (including vertebrae and pelvis), and cardiac structures like the mitral valve can be affected. Insulin resistance is often associated with high triglyceride levels.
The part of the body that is NOT affected by multiple myeloma is the liver. Multiple myeloma primarily affects the bone marrow and bones, leading to the formation of abnormal plasma cells that crowd out healthy blood cells.
This can result in bone pain, fractures, anemia, and other complications. The kidneys are also commonly affected by myeloma, as the abnormal proteins produced by the cancer cells can damage the kidneys and impair their function.
Additionally, the vertebrae (spine) and bones of the pelvis can be affected, leading to bone pain, spinal cord compression, and related symptoms.
Behavioral changes associated with drug abuse problems in adolescents can include unexplained blackouts, changes in eating patterns, changes in sleeping patterns, and preoccupation with body image.
These changes may indicate a substance abuse problem and can be warning signs for parents, guardians, or healthcare professionals to be aware of.
During cardiac auscultation, a soft S1 with a holosystolic apical murmur that radiates to the left axilla suggests mitral valve regurgitation.
Mitral valve regurgitation is a condition where the mitral valve fails to close properly, allowing blood to flow back into the left atrium during systole. This results in a holosystolic (heard throughout systole) murmur at the apex of the heart that may radiate to the left axilla.
Insulin resistance is most often associated with high triglyceride levels. Insulin resistance is a condition in which the body's cells become less responsive to the effects of insulin, leading to elevated blood sugar levels.
It is commonly seen in conditions such as obesity and type 2 diabetes. In insulin-resistant individuals, there is often an association with elevated triglyceride levels, which are a type of fat found in the blood.
This dyslipidemia pattern can contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease.
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(point of view from taking a ethics in healthcare class)
What has been the impact of these seven weeks of close study and reflection on my ethical reasoning? Can I see any progression or change in my positions? Has the input from my classmates or teachers caused me to rethink my positions or practices? What will be my "take-away" from this course?
Ethics in healthcare is an essential course that provides students with an in-depth understanding of the ethical implications that surround the healthcare sector.
This course explores different ethical theories and principles, and their application in healthcare settings to help students understand the moral implications of healthcare policies and practices. Over the past seven weeks of studying ethics in healthcare, I have been exposed to various ethical dilemmas and have critically analyzed their implications on the healthcare industry. Through close study and reflection on ethical issues, I have developed a more nuanced understanding of ethical reasoning.
Through this, I can see the progress in my reasoning and how I have been able to integrate the principles in ethical decision making. I have also gained new knowledge that has helped me to reconsider my positions or practices. The input from my classmates and teachers has been crucial in helping me gain insights and different perspectives on ethical issues. The different discussions have exposed me to various views on ethical issues, and it has forced me to think critically and reconsider some of my beliefs. This class has helped me become more empathetic to others' perspectives, and I have learned to value the opinions of others.
Finally, my take-away from this course is that ethical considerations are essential in healthcare practice. The course has reinforced the need for ethical practice in the healthcare sector, and I am committed to practicing ethical behavior in my healthcare career.
In conclusion, studying ethics in healthcare has been an eye-opening experience for me. The course has given me the tools and knowledge to critically analyze ethical issues in healthcare. Through close study and reflection, I have gained new perspectives and understandings of ethical issues.
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Male patient, 46 years old, "fall down caused right calf pain and bleeding for 1 hour he was admitted to the emergency department . Physical examination: skin laceration on the right calf, about 2.5cm long and 3mm wide. with neat edges, no obvious contusion, deep subcutaneous fat layer, visible blood clots, no pulsatile bleeding. You are the patient's doctor, and the wound has been disinfected. And you already have draped, and done area anesthesia. Please complete the suture of the wound. (Requirement: Complete twostitches simple interrupted suture within 10 minutes, one stitch is knotted with an instrument another one is knotted with single hand)
Complete two stitches simple interrupted suture, knot one with an instrument and the other with single hand within 10 minutes.
In the given case, the patient is a 46-year-old male who has been admitted to the emergency department. The physical examination showed a skin laceration on the right calf about 2.5cm long and 3mm wide. The wound has been disinfected, and area anesthesia has been done. As a doctor, you need to complete the suture of the wound. The requirement is to complete two stitches simple interrupted suture within 10 minutes, one stitch is knotted with an instrument, and another one is knotted with a single hand.
Firstly, you need to hold the needle holder in your right hand and the needle in your left hand. Then pierce the skin of the wound and pass the needle through the tissue, and bring it back out through the tissue. Bring the thread under the needle holder, hold the thread with your left hand, and tie a knot. Then repeat the same process to complete the second stitch. Knot this stitch with your left hand. Lastly, cut the thread and remove the needle.
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Question 15 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question A 30-year-old male experienced a crushing injury when his arm was trapped between the back of a truck and a loading dock. Upon your arrival, the man's arm has been freed Your assessment reveals that his arm is obviously deformed and swollen and is cold and pale. Further assessment reveals an absent radial pulse. You should be MOST concerned that this patient has: Select one: a internal hemorrhage. b. compartment syndrome ca severe closed fracture Od damage to the radial nerve.
In this scenario, the patient's arm is deformed, swollen, cold, and pale, and there is an absent radial pulse. These signs and symptoms are concerning for a serious injury and compromised blood flow to the arm. Given the mechanism of injury and the presentation, the most concerning condition for the patient is compartment syndrome (option B).
Compartment syndrome occurs when there is increased pressure within a closed anatomical compartment, leading to compromised blood supply and potential tissue damage. In this case, the crushing injury and the subsequent swelling and deformity suggest the possibility of compartment syndrome.
Compartment syndrome can lead to ischemia, tissue necrosis, and permanent functional impairment if not promptly addressed. The absence of a radial pulse further supports this concern, indicating compromised arterial blood flow to the arm.
While internal hemorrhage and severe closed fracture are also serious conditions that may be present in this patient, compartment syndrome poses an immediate threat due to the potential for irreversible damage to nerves, blood vessels, and muscles. Prompt medical intervention, such as fasciotomy, is necessary to relieve the pressure and restore blood flow to prevent further complications and potential loss of limb function.
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Learning Objective 2: Describe influences that affect culturally respectful health care. Learning Objective 5: Practice cultural competence when assessing and providing nursing care for patients from diverse cultural groups). 1. You are a nurse caring for a 53-year-old married Muslim woman who is 2 days postoperative for extensive abdominal surgery. She has complicated dressing changes three times daily, which require at least two staff to complete. Her husband is by her bedside, when he is not at work, and is very caring and attentive. The work schedule for tomorrow indicates that the LPN and nursing assistant on your team will be male. What are your actions to ensure culturally competent care? a. What patient information is pertinent to foster culturally competent care? b. What questions should you ask yourself when caring for this patient? c. What steps would you take to provide culturally competent care? Learning Objective 6. Discuss factors in the health care system and in nursing that facilitate or impede culturally competent nursing care. 2. You are a nurse caring for a 79-year-old man, a retired railroad worker who was admitted with dizziness and a history of falling. During your shift, your nursing assistant reports (with frustration) that the patient refuses to use his urinal while in bed and insists on standing bedside or walking to the bathroom to eliminate. The assistant requests a physician's order for urinal use in bed only. What are your appropriate actions in this scenario? a. What questions should you ask yourself in this situation? b. What teaching (and to whom) could be involved in resolving the situation? c. What factors could be inhibiting cultural sensitivity?
a. The patient's cultural background is important to foster culturally competent care.
b. The nurse should ask questions that will help determine the patient's cultural values and practices.
c. Steps taken should include effective communication, provision of individualized care, and respecting the patient's cultural background.
To ensure culturally competent care, the nurse should consider the following:Patient information that is pertinent to foster culturally competent careThe patient's cultural background is important to foster culturally competent care. It is important to note that cultural beliefs, values, and practices may influence a patient's response to healthcare and the treatments they receive. Therefore, the nurse should gather information about the patient's beliefs and cultural practices, including their religion, language, and dietary restrictions. The nurse should also identify the patient's preferred language and mode of communication.Questions to ask yourself when caring for the patientThe nurse should ask questions that will help determine the patient's cultural values and practices. These include the following: What are the patient's beliefs about health and illness? What is the patient's preferred mode of communication? How does the patient prefer to be addressed? What are the patient's dietary restrictions? What are the patient's religious beliefs and practices?Steps to take to provide culturally competent careSteps taken should include effective communication, provision of individualized care, and respecting the patient's cultural background. The nurse should provide information in the patient's preferred language, use appropriate body language, and avoid cultural stereotypes. The nurse should also respect the patient's privacy, provide culturally appropriate food, and allow family members to be involved in the care. In addition, the nurse should work collaboratively with interpreters and other healthcare providers to provide culturally sensitive care.
In conclusion, the nurse should consider the patient's cultural background and practices when providing healthcare. Effective communication, provision of individualized care, and respecting the patient's cultural background are essential to ensure culturally competent care.
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1. Explain how impulsivity can play a role in either restrictive or compulsive eating habits.
1b. The function of food in the daily life of adolescents and young adults can be significantly affected by various psycho-social factors. If you were to discuss an educational program to prevent unhealthy eating patterns, what would you emphasize?
1c. Can a healthy person who exercises every day and eats according to the "food pyramid" develop insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome?
1d. How do you feel when a doctor discusses their willingness to help a cancer patient but reveals their personal disdain for an obese person that needs a foot amputation from having unchecked Type II diabetes?
Impulsivity can play a role in either restrictive or compulsive eating habits in the following ways:
1. Compulsive eating: Individuals who are impulsive and emotional can use food as a coping mechanism to handle negative feelings. This leads to an addiction-like cycle in which they turn to food to get comfort, which reinforces the habit of compulsive eating. Restrictive eating: Impulsivity can also result in an obsession with "perfect" eating, resulting in restrictive eating behaviors. An individual may adopt strict diets or avoid food entirely in order to maintain control over their bodies and their relationship with food.
1b. If I were to discuss an educational program to prevent unhealthy eating patterns, I would emphasize the following: The importance of consuming a balanced and nutritious diet every day in order to maintain healthy body weight and support overall wellness. Eating habits should be mindful and conscious, with a focus on the quality of food rather than on restrictive diets and food fads.
1c. Yes, a healthy person who exercises every day and eats according to the "food pyramid" can develop insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome due to the following reasons: Genetics can play a role in insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome, making some people more susceptible to these conditions.
1d. It is important for doctors to remain unbiased when discussing treatment options with their patients, regardless of the patient's weight or health condition. If a doctor reveals their personal feelings about a patient's weight or lifestyle choices, it can make the patient feel uncomfortable, judged, and unsupported. Doctors should always maintain professionalism, compassion, and respect when communicating with their patients about their health concerns.
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Calculate the urine output for this continuous bladder irrigation Starting credit: 2000mL Bags of sterile water (irrigation solution) added: 3000mL, 3000mL, 3000mL Ending Balance: 2000mL Drainage emptied throughout the shift 1000mL, 2000mL, 3500mL, 800mL, 2000mL
Urine output = .........................mL
the urine output is 1000mL.
The urine output is the amount of urine produced in a given time.
The urine output for this continuous bladder irrigation is 1000mL.CalculationThe beginning balance is 2000mL.
Adding bags of sterile water (irrigation solution) gives:3000mL + 3000mL + 3000mL = 9000mL
The total volume available is the beginning balance plus the additional volume, which is: 2000mL + 9000mL = 11,000mL
Drainage emptied throughout the shift is:1000mL + 2000mL + 3500mL + 800mL + 2000mL = 9,300mL
Subtracting the ending balance from the total volume available gives: 11,000mL - 2000mL = 9000mL.
The urine output is the total volume available minus the total drainage, which is: 9000mL - 8300mL = 1000mL.
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When taking care of patients, why do you think it is important to utilize the appropriate resources?
How do you think evidence from nursing journals affects patient care?
What role does using the right evidence play in being a professional nurse?
What role does understanding plagiarism and academic integrity play in being a professional nurse?
Utilizing appropriate resources in patient care ensures accurate information, evidence-based practice, improved outcomes. Understanding plagiarism maintains professional integrity and ethical contributions to nursing knowledge.
Utilizing appropriate resources in patient care is crucial for accurate and evidence-based practice, leading to improved patient outcomes. By accessing reliable and up-to-date information, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions and provide the best possible care. Evidence from nursing journals plays a vital role in patient care as it offers insights into research, best practices, and interventions specific to nursing. Incorporating this evidence enhances clinical decision-making and promotes high-quality care. Understanding plagiarism and academic integrity is essential for maintaining professional integrity and ethical contributions to nursing knowledge, ensuring responsible and trustworthy engagement in the field.
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Using approximately 250-300 words and APA 7th Edition citations and references as appropriate, give examples of three major zoonotic diseases and compare their modes of transmission. Using your own ideas, explain how transmission of these zoonotic diseases might be prevented.
Zoonotic diseases are infections that can be transmitted between animals and humans. This response provides examples of three major zoonotic diseases, namely Rabies, Lyme disease, and Avian Influenza, and compares their modes of transmission. It then discusses potential strategies for preventing the transmission of these diseases.
Rabies is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, commonly dogs, bats, raccoons, or foxes. The virus is present in the saliva of infected animals and can enter the human body through broken skin or mucous membranes.
Lyme disease is transmitted by the bite of infected black-legged ticks, commonly known as deer ticks. Ticks acquire the bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi) by feeding on infected animals, such as mice or deer. Humans can get infected when bitten by an infected tick.
Avian Influenza, also known as bird flu, is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected birds or their droppings. In rare cases, the virus can be transmitted from birds to humans, causing severe respiratory illness. Human-to-human transmission is limited but can occur under certain circumstances.
Preventing the transmission of zoonotic diseases involves a multi-faceted approach:
Education and awareness: Promoting public education about the risks and preventive measures associated with zoonotic diseases, such as avoiding contact with wild or stray animals, practicing safe handling of pets, and proper tick avoidance techniques.
Vector control: Implementing measures to control disease-carrying vectors, such as ticks and mosquitoes, through the use of insecticides, habitat modification, and personal protective measures like wearing protective clothing and using insect repellents.
Vaccination: Vaccinating animals against zoonotic diseases, particularly pets and livestock, can help prevent their transmission to humans. Vaccination programs for animals, such as dogs and cats, can significantly reduce the risk of diseases like rabies.
Hygiene practices: Promoting good hygiene practices, including regular handwashing, proper food handling, and safe disposal of animal waste, can minimize the risk of infection.
Surveillance and early detection: Establishing surveillance systems to detect zoonotic diseases in animals and humans, enabling prompt identification, isolation, and treatment of infected individuals.
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Match each explanation to an associated abbreviation. ARDS a. difficult breathing with strenuous exercise COPD b. adenocarcinomas and squamous cell carcinomas CPAP are examples RSV c. examples are forced expiratory volume in 1 second VATS d. related to absence of surfactant, a substance that helps expansion of lungs in infants e. this virus causes bronchiolitis and bronchopneumonia f. tachypnea, dyspnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, and hypoxemia in an aduit g. chronic bronchitis and emphysema are examples h. this device helps relieve obstructive sleep apnea i. procedure to visually examine the chest using small incisions and video equipment j. device to deliver aerosolized medication
ARDS (g) refers to acute respiratory distress syndrome, characterized by difficulty breathing with strenuous exercise. COPD (g) stands for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. CPAP (h) is a device used to relieve obstructive sleep apnea. RSV (e) is a virus that causes bronchiolitis and bronchopneumonia. VATS (i) is a procedure to visually examine the chest using small incisions and video equipment.
ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) is a condition associated with difficult breathing during strenuous exercise, leading to symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, and hypoxemia in adults.
COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) is a chronic lung condition that encompasses chronic bronchitis and emphysema. It is characterized by airflow limitation, persistent cough, sputum production, and shortness of breath.
CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) is a device used to treat obstructive sleep apnea. It delivers a continuous flow of air pressure to keep the airways open during sleep, preventing interruptions in breathing.
RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus) is a common virus that primarily affects infants and young children, causing bronchiolitis and bronchopneumonia. It can lead to respiratory distress and difficulty breathing.
VATS (Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery) is a minimally invasive procedure used to examine and operate on the chest. It involves making small incisions and using a video camera and specialized instruments to visualize and access the chest cavity
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Question 3 (Module 11) 9 marks a. If a parent knows that they are a carrier for a BRCA1 mutation, which ethical principle is the primary reason that we prevent them from getting their small child tested? Why? b. A genetic test is developed, allowing dramatically better outcomes in pancreatic cancer. The company who developed the test decides to charge $15,000 per test, which is not covered by Medicare. Briefly explain which ethical principle is raised in this situation and why there is a problem. c. Genetic testing is available that reliably predicts Huntingtons' disease. No treatment or prevention is available for those that test positive. Briefly explain which ethical principle could be used to argue against using this test.
My guess is:
a) BRCA1 is a causative gene for the development of breast cancer. Pediatric genetic testing has been a matter of ethical concern because of the protection of the rights of the children that may get abused by non-other than their parents due to the lack of awareness. Autonomy is the ethical principle that gives the right to the person only to decide what they can do with their body. Also, non-maleficence is the ethical principle that prevents the parents and any other healthcare individual to do any harm to the patient. The parent may not be aware of treatments related to the concerned disease. The genetic test may not be as reliable to determine whether the BRCA1 gene is present in both alleles but is repressed due to some other factors in the child. Identification of different disease genes in the child's DNA or genes that are completely unknown may scare the parents.
b) The ethical concern regarding the cost issue of a test is against the company that is withholding the right to treatment for a difficult disease from the ill-fated. In this way, only the rich will survive while the poor perish. Thus, it can be debated that healthcare should be available to all. This falls under the "Justice" ethics principle - not only everyone should get equal help but also, the neediest get the right to be treated first.
c) A disease that is incurable hitherto, may cause the decision-makers to do harm to the patient. The ethics principle of beneficence may come into play and prevent the test taker to take the test in the first place, so that the test taker or patient may be safe from any social harm. It is done in the best interest of the patient.
a. The primary ethical principle which prevents parents from getting their small child tested if they know that they are carriers for BRCA1 mutation is non-maleficence.
b. The ethical principle that is raised in this situation is justice. Justice is a principle that refers to the fair distribution of resources and benefits among society.
c. The ethical principle that could be used to argue against using genetic testing for Huntington's disease is non-maleficence.
a. The primary ethical principle which prevents parents from getting their small child tested if they know that they are carriers for BRCA1 mutation is non-maleficence. This principle of non-maleficence is based on the belief that it is better to avoid doing harm to others. Genetic testing may carry some psychological and social risks for a child. If the results of the test indicate the possibility of developing cancer, the parent may be anxious and afraid of their child developing cancer, which may affect the child's life.
b. The ethical principle that is raised in this situation is justice. Justice is a principle that refers to the fair distribution of resources and benefits among society. In this case, the company who developed the test decides to charge $15,000 per test, which is not covered by Medicare, thus, it creates a problem of unequal access to healthcare for people from different financial backgrounds. The cost of testing makes it difficult for people with low-income levels to benefit from the test, and only wealthy people can afford the treatment.
c. The ethical principle that could be used to argue against using genetic testing for Huntington's disease is non-maleficence. The reason behind this is that Huntington's disease is incurable, and the genetic testing for it does not provide any benefit to the patient. It may have negative consequences on the patient's psychological and social well-being. The knowledge of the test results may create unnecessary stress and fear, which may worsen the patient's quality of life.
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