1. - Sathy was placed en a fluidf restriction of aoonantilay - Upon the parryical assecsment - it ia noted that 5 a y has cracalen we the refili <3 sec, urine outyut is abomifo Elavel zoomg (ivitis(migraines) - She wants to get up and shower, but her SOE and energy lewhls are hion -.1. What is her fluid restriction amounts for e3ch shift: 21−7,7+3, and 3−13 ? 2. how would you manage her no BM in 3 days? 3. what nursing interventions would you provide to assist her comfort level with her respiratory issues? - please provide rationale - 3A - what interventions can be vitized for Sally to bathe? - please give ratienale 4. construct a nurses' note indicating the information provided and the care you provided (in respect to your answers to questions 1 -3, as well)

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Answer 1

1. Fluid restriction amounts for each shift 21−7, 7+3, and 3−13 are:Shift 21−7: The fluid intake allowed during this shift is 500 ml plus the total amount of urine produced during this shift. For example, if Sathy produced 300 ml of urine during this shift, she is allowed to consume 800 ml of fluids during this shift.Shift 7+3: The fluid intake allowed during this shift is 750 ml plus the total amount of urine produced during this shift. For example, if Sathy produced 400 ml of urine during this shift, she is allowed to consume 1150 ml of fluids during this shift.Shift 3−13: The fluid intake allowed during this shift is 250 ml plus the total amount of urine produced during this shift.

For example, if Sathy produced 200 ml of urine during this shift, she is allowed to consume 450 ml of fluids during this shift.2. To manage her no BM in 3 days, the following interventions can be applied:Increase fluid intake: Constipation can be caused by a lack of fluids in the body. Therefore, it is recommended to increase Sathy's fluid intake to help soften her stool and aid in bowel movements.Increase fiber intake: The recommended daily fiber intake is 25-30 grams. Therefore, increasing Sathy's fiber intake can help to improve bowel movements. Encourage physical activity: Physical activity, such as walking, can help to promote bowel movements. Encourage Sathy to engage in light physical activity to help stimulate bowel movements.3. Nursing interventions that can assist Sathy's comfort level with her respiratory issues include:Encourage Sathy to practice deep breathing exercises to improve oxygenation and reduce anxiety. Elevate the head of the bed to promote easier breathing.

Administer prescribed bronchodilators to help open up the airways.4. Nurses' note: Date and time: 02/07/2021, 09:00 Patient's name: Sathy Shift: 21-7Fluid restriction allowed: 500 ml plus the total amount of urine produced (300 ml) during this shift. Total fluid intake allowed: 800 ml.No BM in 3 days, interventions implemented to manage constipation. Increased fluid intake, increased fiber intake, and encouraged physical activity.Nursing interventions implemented to assist the patient's comfort level with respiratory issues. Encouraged deep breathing exercises, elevated the head of the bed, and administered prescribed bronchodilators. Patient required assistance with bathing. Bathed patient using a warm sponge bath, ensuring patient privacy and dignity.

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Related Questions

What sorts of things can cause a population to deviate away from Hardy Weinberg equilibrium? Mark all that applies. Don't just copy exactly what's in the powerpoint. Think hard about each one. Genetic drift Natural Selection Hybridization between species Random mating Mutations No change in allele frequencies from one generation to the next Gene flow

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Several factors can cause a population to deviate away from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The following factors can contribute to deviations from equilibrium:

1. Genetic drift: Genetic drift refers to random fluctuations in allele frequencies due to chance events, particularly in small populations. Genetic drift can lead to the loss or fixation of alleles and can cause deviations from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

2. Natural selection: Natural selection acts on the variation in heritable traits within a population, favoring certain traits that confer a reproductive advantage. If a particular allele provides a selective advantage or disadvantage, it can result in changes in allele frequencies and deviations from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

3. Hybridization between species: Hybridization occurs when individuals from different species mate and produce offspring. This can introduce new gene combinations and alter allele frequencies, leading to deviations from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

4. Mutations: Mutations are the source of genetic variation in populations. New mutations can introduce new alleles, alter existing alleles, or result in the loss of alleles. If mutations occur, they can affect the allele frequencies and deviate the population from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

5. No change in allele frequencies from one generation to the next: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes that there is no change in allele frequencies from one generation to the next. Any changes, such as genetic drift, natural selection, or mutations, can disrupt this equilibrium.

6. Gene flow: Gene flow occurs when individuals migrate between populations and bring their genetic material with them. Gene flow can introduce new alleles into a population or remove existing alleles, leading to deviations from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Therefore, the factors that can cause a population to deviate away from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium include genetic drift, natural selection, hybridization between species, mutations, and gene flow.

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among the microorganisms, various genomes can include group of answer choices chloroplast dna. chromosomes. plasmids. mitochondrial dna. all of the choices are correct.

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Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include all of the choices that are listed in the answer choices. The genomes can include chloroplast DNA, chromosomes, plasmids and mitochondrial DNA.

Chromosomes are the long thread-like structures found in the nucleus of the cells. They are formed of DNA and protein. DNA contains the genetic information that is passed down from generation to generation.What are plasmids?Plasmids are small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules that are often found in bacteria. They are separate from the chromosomal DNA of the bacteria. They can replicate independently of the chromosomal DNA.

Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is the DNA found in mitochondria, which are organelles found in the cells. Mitochondria are often called the "powerhouses" of the cells because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria have their own DNA, which is separate from the nuclear DNA of the cells. The mtDNA is inherited maternally. Chloroplast DNA is the genetic material found in chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are organelles found in plant cells that are responsible for photosynthesis. Like mitochondria, chloroplasts have their own DNA, which is separate from the nuclear DNA of the cells. The chloroplast DNA is inherited maternally.

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the posttraumatic growth inventory-short form (ptgi-sf): a psychometric study of the spanish population during the covid-19 pandemic

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The posttraumatic growth inventory-short form (PTGI-SF) is a tool used to assess the positive psychological changes individuals may experience after going through a traumatic event. This particular study focuses on a psychometric study of the Spanish population during the COVID-19 pandemic.

The purpose of the study was to examine the psychometric properties of the PTGI-SF when applied to the Spanish population during this specific period of time. Psychometric properties refer to the reliability and validity of a measurement tool.

To conduct the study, researchers administered the PTGI-SF questionnaire to a sample of individuals from the Spanish population who had experienced the COVID-19 pandemic. The questionnaire consists of a series of statements related to positive changes that can occur after a traumatic event, such as increased personal strength or a greater appreciation for life.

Participants were asked to rate the extent to which they agreed or disagreed with each statement. The responses were then analyzed to assess the reliability and validity of the PTGI-SF within the Spanish population during the COVID-19 pandemic.

The findings of the study contributes to significant information about the psychometric properties of the PTGI-SF in this specific context. This can assist researchers and clinicians better comprehend and assess posttraumatic growth in individuals who have experienced the COVID-19 pandemic in Spain.

Overall, this study contributes to the existing literature on posttraumatic growth and provides valuable insights into the positive psychological changes that individuals may experience in the face of a traumatic event like the COVID-19 pandemic.

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why do scientists suspect that life first arose near deep-sea volcanic vents or similar environments with abundant chemical energy?

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Scientists suspect that life may have first arisen near deep-sea volcanic vents or similar environments with abundant chemical energy due to several reasons: Abundance of Chemical Energy, Protection from Harsh Conditions, Presence of Minerals and Catalysts, Favourable Geochemical Conditions and Potential for Supporting Diverse Ecosystems.

Abundance of Chemical Energy: Deep-sea volcanic vents release hot, mineral-rich fluids containing a variety of chemical compounds, including hydrogen sulfide, methane, and other reduced compounds. These compounds can serve as potential energy sources for early life forms, supporting the synthesis of organic molecules and providing the necessary energy for metabolic reactions.Protection from Harsh Conditions: Deep-sea volcanic vents provide a relatively stable and protected environment compared to the hostile conditions prevalent on the Earth's surface during the early stages of life. The vents offer a consistent source of heat, protection from harmful ultraviolet radiation, and stability against extreme temperature and pressure fluctuations.Presence of Minerals and Catalysts: Volcanic vents often release minerals and metal catalysts that can facilitate chemical reactions necessary for the formation of complex organic molecules. These minerals and catalysts can act as templates or catalysts for prebiotic reactions, aiding the formation of early biomolecules.Favourable Geochemical Conditions: The mixing of hot hydrothermal fluids from volcanic vents with the cold seawater creates temperature and chemical gradients, which can provide favourable conditions for the formation of complex organic compounds and the concentration of prebiotic molecules.Potential for Supporting Diverse Ecosystems: Deep-sea volcanic vents are known to support diverse ecosystems teeming with unique forms of life, including bacteria, archaea, and other organisms adapted to extreme conditions. These ecosystems demonstrate the potential for life to thrive in such environments.

While the exact origin of life is still a topic of ongoing research and debate, the deep-sea volcanic vent hypothesis provides a plausible explanation for the emergence of life in environments rich in chemical energy and conducive to the formation of complex organic molecules.

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If an individual has kidney disease, they may make a smaller volume of urine than normal. How would this affect their blood pressure? Blood pressure would increase due to an increase in plasma volume Blood pressure would decrease due to vasoconstriction of systemic arteries Blood pressur would not change because the excess fluid would be eliminated by the intestines How do lipid-soluble hormones affect their target cells? Lipid soluble hormones bind to intracellular receptors and regulate gene expression Lipid soluble hormones bind to membrane bound receptors and use 2nd messengers Lipid soluble hormones bind with ribosomes and inhibit translation

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If an individual has kidney disease and produces a smaller volume of urine than normal, blood pressure would increase due to an increase in plasma volume.

Lipid-soluble hormones affect their target cells by binding to intracellular receptors and regulating gene expression.

The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by controlling fluid balance and eliminating waste products through urine production. In kidney disease, the impaired function of the kidneys can lead to decreased urine production, resulting in a reduced ability to remove excess fluid from the body. This leads to an increase in plasma volume, which in turn increases blood volume.

The increased blood volume puts additional strain on the blood vessels and can lead to an elevation in blood pressure. Therefore, individuals with kidney disease and reduced urine output are at a higher risk of developing hypertension (high blood pressure).

Lipid-soluble hormones, such as steroid hormones (e.g., cortisol, estrogen, testosterone) and thyroid hormones, are able to pass through the cell membrane due to their lipid solubility. Once inside the target cell, these hormones bind to specific intracellular receptors located in the cytoplasm or nucleus. The hormone-receptor complex then acts as a transcription factor, binding to specific DNA sequences and regulating gene expression.

This process leads to the production of new proteins or the modulation of existing proteins in the target cell, ultimately resulting in a cellular response to the hormone's signal. The effects of lipid-soluble hormones are generally slower and more long-lasting compared to the actions of water-soluble hormones that utilize second messengers.

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the life cycle of trematodes and cestodes require an intermediate host for its . stage. (choose adult or larval). this differs from nematodes. the intermediate host of the dog tapeworm is the .

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The life cycle of trematodes and cestodes requires an intermediate host for its larval stage. This differs from nematodes, as nematodes can have direct life cycles without an intermediate host.

In the case of the dog tapeworm (Dipylidium caninum), the intermediate host is the flea. The adult tapeworm resides in the small intestine of the definitive host, which in this case is the dog or other canids. The adult tapeworm produces proglottids that contain eggs, which are released through the feces of the definitive host.

The eggs of Dipylidium caninum are ingested by flea larvae, typically within the environment where the dog resides. Inside the flea larvae, the eggs hatch, and the released tapeworm larvae (cysticercoids) develop. When the flea larvae mature into adult fleas, they can then transmit the infective tapeworm larvae to the definitive host (dog) when the dog ingests the flea while grooming itself.

Thus, the intermediate host (flea) plays a crucial role in the life cycle of the dog tapeworm by facilitating the development and transmission of the larval stage of the parasite.

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lace the structures the sperm must pass through in the correct order: sperm cells penatrating secondary oocyte 1 2 3

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The structures that a sperm passes through are va-gina, followed by cervix, followed by the uterus, fallopian tubes and finally the egg.

First is the va-gina. During se-xual intercourse, sperm is ejaculated into the va-gina. The cervix is the second stage is basically is the narrow opening at the lower end of the uterus. Sperm must pass through the cervix to enter the uterus.

The uterus, or womb, is where the fertilized egg implants and develops into a fetus. Sperm swim through the uterus in search of the fallopian tubes. The fallopian tubes are basically considered as the site of fertilization. If sperm encounters a secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube, fertilization can occur. If a sperm successfully penetrates the secondary oocyte, it fertilizes the egg, resulting in the formation of a zygote.

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Melanin: Group of answer choices is advantageous because it provides protection from solar radiation. is a chemical that decreases the possibility of dark pigment. occurs at high rates in individuals with light skin tone. develops more with age.

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Melanin is advantageous because it provides protection from solar radiation.

Melanin is a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. It plays a crucial role in determining the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. One of the primary advantages of melanin is its ability to provide protection from solar radiation.

When the skin is exposed to the sun's ultraviolet (UV) rays, melanocytes produce more melanin, which absorbs and disperses the UV radiation, preventing it from causing damage to the DNA in skin cells. This protective mechanism helps reduce the risk of sunburn, skin damage, and skin cancer. Individuals with darker skin tones generally have more melanin and, therefore, a higher natural protection against UV radiation compared to those with lighter skin tones.

However, it's important to note that everyone, regardless of skin tone, should take precautions such as wearing sunscreen and protective clothing when exposed to the sun for extended periods.

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An infant's immune system can be greatly enhanced by breast milk because antibodies must be absorbed within the small intestine. These intact proteins must be
brought into the small intestine through which mechanism?
O H+ Symport
© Na Symport
O Simple diffusion
© Vesicular transport

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Breast milk enhances an infant's immune system by delivering intact antibodies, which are absorbed in the small intestine. This absorption occurs through the mechanism of H+ symport or Na+ symport, facilitating the transport of proteins across the intestinal membrane into the enterocytes.

The mechanism through which intact proteins are brought into the small intestine for absorption is not simple diffusion or vesicular transport, but rather via the process known as H+ symport or Na+ symport.

In the small intestine, there are specialized cells called enterocytes that line the walls. These enterocytes have microvilli, which are tiny finger-like projections that increase the surface area for absorption.

Within the microvilli, there are transport proteins known as symporters that facilitate the absorption of nutrients, including intact proteins.

H+ symport and Na+ symport are specific types of symporters present in the enterocytes. These symporters work in conjunction with hydrogen ions (H+) or sodium ions (Na+) to transport molecules across the intestinal membrane.

In the case of breast milk antibodies, H+ symport or Na+ symport proteins facilitate the transport of intact antibodies from the lumen of the small intestine into the enterocytes.

Once inside the enterocytes, the intact antibodies are further processed and packaged into vesicles before being transported across the enterocyte and released into the bloodstream.

This allows the infant to benefit from the antibodies present in breast milk, providing passive immunity and enhancing the developing immune system.

In summary, the intact proteins, such as antibodies, present in breast milk are absorbed in the small intestine through the mechanism of H+ symport or Na+ symport, which facilitate their transport across the intestinal membrane and into the enterocytes.

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who is considered the father of genetics for developing the three main fundamental laws of inheritance?

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The father of genetics, credited with developing the three main fundamental laws of inheritance, is Gregor Mendel.

Mendel was an Austrian monk and scientist who conducted groundbreaking experiments with pea plants in the mid-19th century. Through his meticulous breeding experiments and careful observations, Mendel formulated the laws of inheritance that laid the foundation for modern genetics.

Mendel's three main laws of inheritance, known as Mendel's Laws, are:

The Law of Segregation: Mendel observed that traits are determined by discrete units called "alleles" and that during gamete formation, these alleles separate and are randomly passed on to offspring. This law explains the segregation of alleles during inheritance.The Law of Independent Assortment: Mendel discovered that different traits are inherited independently of each other. The inheritance of one trait does not influence the inheritance of another trait. This law explains the independent assortment of alleles during gamete formation.The Law of Dominance: Mendel noticed that some alleles are dominant over others, meaning that when present, they mask the expression of recessive alleles. This law explains the dominance relationships between alleles and the phenotypic expression of traits.

Mendel's laws provided a quantitative understanding of inheritance and paved the way for modern genetics, making him widely regarded as the father of genetics.

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Which of the following statements correctly describe an adaptation that separates amphibians from reptiles? (Choose all that are correct). Select one or more: a. None of these b. Amphibians have well-developed lungs and reptiles do not. c. Amphibians have dry scaly skin and reptiles do not. d. Reptiles require water for their larval stage and amphibians do not. e. Reptiles have a water-tight amniotic egg and amphibians do not. f. Amphibians can use cutaneous respiration and reptiles cannot. g. Reptiles have limbs adapted to terrestrial life and amphibians do not. h. All of these

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The statements that describe an adaptation that separates amphibians from reptiles are: d). Reptiles require water for their larval stage and amphibians do not. e). Reptiles have a water-tight amniotic egg and amphibians do not. f). Amphibians can use cutaneous respiration and reptiles cannot. Options (d,e,f).

d. Reptiles require water for their larval stage and amphibians do not: Reptiles, such as turtles and crocodiles, typically have direct development from egg to juvenile without going through a larval stage. Their eggs are laid on land and are well adapted to survive in dry conditions. In contrast, many amphibians, such as frogs and salamanders, have an aquatic larval stage, commonly known as tadpoles, which live in water and undergo metamorphosis to transform into their adult form. During this larval stage, amphibians require water for survival and growth.

e. Reptiles have a water-tight amniotic egg and amphibians do not:

One of the key adaptations that distinguishes reptiles from amphibians is the presence of a water-tight amniotic egg. Reptiles, including birds, have amniotic eggs that are surrounded by a protective shell and contain specialized membranes to retain water and protect the developing embryo from desiccation. This adaptation allows reptiles to reproduce and lay eggs on land, enabling them to live in diverse habitats. Amphibians, on the other hand, typically lay eggs in water or moist environments without the same level of protection offered by an amniotic egg.

f. Amphibians can use cutaneous respiration and reptiles cannot:

Cutaneous respiration is the process of gas exchange (oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide release) through the skin. Amphibians have highly permeable skin that allows them to exchange gases with their environment, including both water and air. This adaptation enables amphibians to respire through their skin, in addition to their lungs, and is particularly important when they are in aquatic environments or when their lungs are not fully developed. Reptiles, however, have thicker and less permeable skin, which limits their ability to engage in cutaneous respiration. They primarily rely on their lungs for respiration.

Therefore, these three adaptations—reptiles requiring water for their larval stage, reptiles having a water-tight amniotic egg, and amphibians being able to use cutaneous respiration—are key characteristics that separate amphibians from reptiles and contribute to their distinct ecological roles and survival strategies.

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gonadocorticoids are released by which part of the adrenal gland?

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Gonadocorticoids are released by the zona reticularis of the adrenal gland.

The adrenal gland is composed of two main parts: the outer cortex and the inner medulla. The cortex is further divided into three layers: the zona glomerulosa, the zona  fasciculata, and the zona reticularis. Each layer of the cortex produces different types of hormones. The zona reticularis specifically secretes gonadocorticoids, also known as sex hormones. These hormones include androgens (such as dehydroepiandrosterone, or DHEA) and some estrogenic compounds. While the zona reticularis is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, the other layers of the adrenal cortex produce different hormones, such as mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) and glucocorticoids (cortisol).

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Question 6 Which cell types can cause tumours in the central
nervous system? Name three examples and describe their effects on
central nervous system function

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There are several cell types that can cause tumours in the central nervous system (CNS), including astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells. The effects of these tumours on CNS function can vary widely, depending on the location and size of the tumour.

Astrocytomas are the most common type of primary brain tumour. Astrocytes are star-shaped cells that provide structural support to neurons and help maintain the blood-brain barrier. When these cells become cancerous, they can form tumours that interfere with normal brain function.  

The symptoms of ependymomas can include headaches, nausea, vomiting, and changes in vision. In summary, there are several cell types that can cause tumours in the central nervous system (CNS), including astrocytes, are the oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells. The effects of these tumours on CNS function can vary widely, depending on the location and size of the tumour. The three examples discussed above (astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas, and ependymomas) can cause a range of symptoms, including headaches, seizures, cognitive impairment, and hydrocephalus.

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QUESTION 5 Which transport system can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP? Oa. Primary active transport Ob. Secondary active transport Oc. Simple diffusion Od. Facilitated diffusion Oe. Facilitated diffusion via a carrier protein.

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The transport system that can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP is secondary active transport.

The transport system that can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP is secondary active transport.

Primary active transport, such as the sodium-potassium pump, requires the direct expenditure of ATP to move ions against their concentration gradients. Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion, including facilitated diffusion via a carrier protein, do not require ATP but can only move ions along their concentration gradient.

In secondary active transport, the movement of an ion against its concentration gradient is coupled with the movement of another molecule or ion down its concentration gradient. This coupling utilizes the energy stored in the electrochemical gradient of the second molecule to transport the ion against its concentration gradient. As a result, the transport of the ion is indirectly powered by the ATP-driven transport of the second molecule.

Therefore, secondary active transport is the transport system that can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP.

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Match the following:
1. Peyton Rous 2. Robert Weinberg 3. Youyou Tu 4. Barbara Bradfield 5. John Byrd
✓ [Choose] a. First person successfully treated with Herceptin b. Identified the first human oncogene c. Supported the theory that cancer was caused by viruses d. Discovered a targeted therapy for CLL e. Won Nobel Prize in 2015 for discovery of Artemisinin

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Peyton Rous supported the viral theory of cancer, Robert Weinberg identified the first human oncogene, Youyou Tu won the Nobel Prize for discovering artemisinin, Barbara Bradfield was the first person successfully treated with Herceptin, and John Byrd discovered a targeted therapy for CLL. Each individual's contribution has significantly advanced our understanding and treatment of cancer and malaria.

1.Peyton Rous: c. Supported the theory that cancer was caused by viruses. Peyton Rous is known for his work in the early 1900s, which demonstrated that a virus could cause cancer in chickens. His discovery laid the foundation for understanding the viral origins of some types of cancers.

2.Robert Weinberg: b. Identified the first human oncogene. Robert Weinberg is a renowned cancer biologist who, along with his colleagues, discovered the first human oncogene called Ras in the 1980s. This groundbreaking finding provided crucial insights into the genetic basis of cancer and paved the way for further research in oncology.

3.Youyou Tu: e. Won Nobel Prize in 2015 for the discovery of Artemisinin. Youyou Tu is a Chinese pharmaceutical chemist who received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 2015 for her discovery of artemisinin, a highly effective antimalarial drug derived from the traditional Chinese medicine plant, Artemisia annua.

4. Barbara Bradfield: a. First person successfully treated with Herceptin. Barbara Bradfield was a patient who became the first person successfully treated with Herceptin (trastuzumab), a targeted therapy for breast cancer. Her treatment with Herceptin demonstrated the drug's effectiveness in targeting HER2-positive breast cancer.

5. John Byrd: d. Discovered a targeted therapy for CLL. John Byrd is a hematologist and oncologist known for his work in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). He played a pivotal role in the development of ibrutinib, a targeted therapy for CLL, which revolutionized the treatment landscape for this type of leukemia.

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Plasma glucose is maintained during exercise through 4
processes. List them.

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Enlisted are the 4 processes that maintain plasma glucose during exercise:

1. Gluconeogenesis: During exercise, when the plasma glucose level is low, the liver converts non-carbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol, and lactate into glucose via the process called gluconeogenesis. It is the reverse process of glycolysis.

2. Glycogenolysis: Glycogenolysis is the process of breaking down glycogen stored in muscles and liver to release glucose into the bloodstream.

3. Decreased insulin secretion: During exercise, insulin secretion is reduced, which causes a decrease in glucose uptake by muscle and an increase in glucose production by the liver.

4. Increased glucose uptake by muscle: During exercise, muscle contractions stimulate the glucose uptake by muscle cells, which uses plasma glucose as a source of energy.

Thus, these four processes work together to maintain plasma glucose levels during exercise.

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Usually in cells, atp is hydrolyzed into adp, or ____________ , releasing a ____________ molecule and energy.

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In cells, ATP is typically hydrolyzed into ADP, or adenosine diphosphate, releasing a phosphate molecule and energy.

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the primary energy currency in cells. It stores and releases energy during various cellular processes. When ATP is hydrolyzed, it undergoes a reaction where a water molecule is used to break the bond between the second and third phosphate groups. This hydrolysis reaction results in the formation of ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and an inorganic phosphate molecule (Pi). The released phosphate molecule can be used in other metabolic reactions or to phosphorylate other molecules, while the energy released during this process is used to drive cellular activities.

The hydrolysis of ATP into ADP and Pi is an exergonic reaction, meaning it releases energy. This energy is utilized by the cell to perform various functions such as muscle contraction, active transport of ions across cell membranes, synthesis of macromolecules, and other energy-requiring processes. The energy released from ATP hydrolysis is harnessed by coupling it with endergonic reactions that require energy. This coupling allows the transfer of energy from ATP to the target molecules, enabling them to perform their specific cellular tasks. Overall, the hydrolysis of ATP into ADP and Pi is a crucial process for cellular energy metabolism and maintaining the energy balance within the cell.

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You make a standard mono-hybrid cross (true breeding parents - F1 -> F2) with the alleles of the gene showing incomplete dominance and independent assortment. How many phenotype classes do you get in the F2? a) 3 b) 1 c) 5 d) 2

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The answer is a) 3. The F2 generation in a standard mono-hybrid cross with alleles showing incomplete dominance and independent assortment will have three phenotype classes.

In a standard mono-hybrid cross with alleles showing incomplete dominance and independent assortment, the F2 generation will exhibit three distinct phenotype classes. Incomplete dominance refers to a situation where the heterozygous phenotype is a blend or intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes.

Independent assortment means that the alleles of different genes segregate independently during gamete formation. When true-breeding parents with different alleles are crossed (F1 generation), all the offspring in the F1 generation will have a heterozygous genotype.

In the F2 generation, these heterozygous individuals will produce three different phenotype classes: one displaying the dominant allele, one displaying the recessive allele, and one exhibiting the intermediate phenotype resulting from incomplete dominance.

The presence of incomplete dominance ensures that the intermediate phenotype is distinct from both homozygous phenotypes,

Therefore, The F2 generation in a standard mono-hybrid cross with alleles showing incomplete dominance will have 3 phenotype classes.

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How does the hormone estrogen have both classical and
non-genomic effects?

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The hormone estrogen has both classical and non-genomic effects. The classical genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to its receptor within the nucleus of the target cell, resulting in the regulation of gene expression. The non-genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to membrane-bound estrogen receptors, resulting in the activation of various signaling pathways.

Estrogen is a hormone that has both classical and non-genomic effects. The hormone estrogen is involved in various physiological processes, including the development of secondary sexual characteristics, the menstrual cycle, and pregnancy. It also plays a critical role in the regulation of gene expression in target cells, leading to the activation or repression of specific genes. The two primary mechanisms by which estrogen mediates its effects are through the classical genomic pathway and the non-genomic pathway.Classical genomic effects occur when estrogen binds to estrogen receptors located within the nucleus of the target cell. This results in the formation of an estrogen-receptor complex that binds to specific sites on the DNA and regulates gene expression. This process takes several hours to occur.Non-genomic effects occur when estrogen binds to membrane-bound estrogen receptors, resulting in the activation of various signaling pathways.

These pathways can activate ion channels, such as calcium channels, or signaling proteins, such as protein kinase A or C. This process occurs within minutes of estrogen binding to the receptor.Estrogen also has other non-genomic effects that are unrelated to estrogen receptor signaling, such as its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties. These effects are thought to occur through the regulation of various signaling pathways, including the MAPK/ERK and PI3K/Akt pathways. In summary, estrogen has both classical and non-genomic effects. The classical genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to its receptor within the nucleus of the target cell, resulting in the regulation of gene expression. The non-genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to membrane-bound estrogen receptors, resulting in the activation of various signaling pathways.

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**ANSWER BOTH PARTS FOR THIS QUESTION** A chronic alcoholic presents to the ER complaining of extreme abdominal pain and swelling, yellowing of skin, and worsening confusion. 1. Explain these three cl

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Three clinical symptoms that a chronic alcoholic presents to the ER complaining of extreme abdominal pain and swelling, yellowing of skin, and worsening confusion chronic alcoholic presents to the ER with extreme abdominal pain and swelling, yellowing of skin, and worsening confusion.

These three clinical symptoms are the indication of alcoholic liver disease (ALD). ALD is a term used to describe a range of liver problems that are caused by alcohol misuse. ALD is a serious and potentially fatal condition. Extreme abdominal pain and swelling This is a symptom of cirrhosis, which is the last stage of ALD. Cirrhosis is a condition that develops over time and is characterized by scarring of the liver.

This scarring disrupts the normal functioning of the liver, which can lead to a buildup of fluid in the abdomen and cause abdominal swelling and pain.  Yellowing of skin This is a symptom of jaundice, which is caused by an accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a waste product produced by the liver when it breaks down old red blood cells. When the liver is damaged, it cannot process bilirubin properly, which leads to a buildup in the bloodstream and causes the skin and whites of the eyes to turn yellow.

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Explain how temperature, pH, moisture inorganic nutrients, and
electron acceptors can be controlled in an in situ bioremediation
system.

Answers

In situ bioremediation is the use of naturally occurring microorganisms to eliminate environmental pollutants without removing the soil or groundwater. It is a safe, cost-effective, and sustainable technology used to remediate polluted sites.

The bioremediation process is influenced by a variety of factors such as temperature, pH, moisture, inorganic nutrients, and electron acceptors. In order to maximize bioremediation, these factors must be carefully controlled.Temperature: The activity of microorganisms is influenced by temperature. Higher temperatures may increase microbial activity, but may also result in the death of some microbes. Conversely, low temperatures may decrease microbial activity. The ideal temperature range for most bioremediation processes is between 20-30°C.PH: The pH of the contaminated site is another important factor that affects microbial activity.

Most microorganisms prefer a pH range of 6-8. Maintaining this range is essential to maximize bioremediation efficiency.Moisture: Moisture plays a crucial role in bioremediation. It is required for microbial metabolism and for the transport of nutrients to the microorganisms. Inadequate moisture can cause the bioremediation process to slow down or even stop. It is essential to maintain optimal moisture levels in the contaminated site.Inorganic Nutrients: Microorganisms require nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur to function properly. The amount of nutrients required varies with the type of contaminant present.  

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If a student inhales as deeply as possible and then blows the aire out until he cannot exhale anymorethe amount of air he expels is his?

Answers

The amount of air a student exhales after inhaling as deeply as possible is called their vital capacity. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air a person can exhale after taking the deepest breath possible.

Vital capacity refers to the maximum amount of air a person can forcefully exhale after taking a deep breath. It is a measure of lung function and is used to assess respiratory health and pulmonary capacity. Vital capacity is influenced by factors such as age, sex, height, weight, and overall lung health.

Here are some key points about vital capacity:

Measurement: Vital capacity is typically measured using a spirometer, which is a device that measures the volume of air exchanged during breathing. The person being tested takes a deep breath and then exhales as forcefully and completely as possible into the spirometer.

Components: Vital capacity is made up of three primary lung volumes: inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), tidal volume (TV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV). It can be calculated as the sum of these volumes:

Vital Capacity = IRV + TV + ERV

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation.

Tidal Volume (TV): The amount of air inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing at rest.

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV): The maximum amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation.

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Below are several descriptions of processes that occur in the human body. For each one identify the stimulus and the response and state whether the process is positive or negative feedback. 6. When a person has not taken in sufficient water they become dehydrated. This may cause a loss of blood pressure, which will trigger the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the hypothalamus and pituitary glands. This hormone signals the kidncy to allow reabsorption of water by the blood vessels to bring the blood pressure back to normal conditions.

Answers

In the described scenario, the stimulus is the loss of blood pressure due to dehydration. The response is the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the hypothalamus and pituitary glands.

This process represents negative feedback. Negative feedback mechanisms work to reverse or counteract a change in the body's internal environment. In this case, the decrease in blood pressure due to dehydration triggers the release of ADH. ADH, in turn, signals the kidneys to reabsorb water back into the bloodstream, which helps increase blood volume and restore blood pressure to normal levels. Once the blood pressure returns to the desired range, the release of ADH is inhibited, and the process is halted.

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What are some reasons for having multiple levels ( local, neural
and hormonal) of Homeostatic regulation?

Answers

Homeostasis is the process by which the body maintains a stable internal environment. It does this by regulating various physiological processes such as temperature, blood pressure, and pH.

There are several reasons why the body has multiple levels of homeostatic regulation, including neural and hormonal regulation

Local regulation:Local regulation is the first level of homeostatic regulation. It involves the immediate response of the tissues or organs to changes in the environment. For example, when the body is exposed to a cold environment, the blood vessels in the skin constrict to conserve heat. This response is immediate and does not involve the brain or hormones

Neural regulation:Neural regulation is the second level of homeostatic regulation. It involves the central nervous system (CNS), which consists of the brain and spinal cord. The CNS is responsible for interpreting information from the environment and initiating the appropriate response. For example, when the body is exposed to a cold environment, the CNS signals the blood vessels in the skin to constrict, and also triggers shivering to generate heat.Hormonal regulation:

Hormonal regulation is the third level of homeostatic regulation. It involves the endocrine system, which is made up of glands that produce and secrete hormones. Hormones are chemical messengers that travel through the bloodstream and affect the activity of target cells. For example, when the body is exposed to stress, the endocrine system releases cortisol, which prepares the body for the "fight or flight" response. Cortisol increases blood sugar levels, heart rate, and blood pressure to provide the body with energy to deal with the stress.

Thus, multiple levels of homeostatic regulation are important for maintaining a stable internal environment. Local regulation is the quickest response, neural regulation is the intermediate response, and hormonal regulation is the slowest response.

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In order to stay organized and fit within the tiny confines of a cell, dna is packaged into?

Answers

In order to stay organized and fit within the tiny confines of a cell, DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is packaged into structures called chromosomes. Chromosomes are thread-like structures made up of DNA and proteins. They are found inside the nucleus of a cell.

The packaging of DNA into chromosomes helps to protect the DNA from damage and allows for efficient storage and transmission of genetic information. It also plays a crucial role in regulating gene expression. The process of packaging DNA into chromosomes involves several steps. First, DNA molecules wrap around proteins called histones to form nucleosomes.

Nucleosomes are the basic building blocks of chromatin, which is the complex of DNA and proteins. Multiple nucleosomes are then further compacted and folded, forming higher-order structures. During cell division, chromosomes condense even further and become visible under a microscope. This condensed form allows for easier separation and distribution of DNA during cell division.

Overall, the packaging of DNA into chromosomes is essential for the proper functioning of cells. It ensures that DNA is protected, organized, and able to be replicated and transmitted accurately during cell division.

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Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is secreted by the epithelial cells of the prostate gland. The prostate gland generally increases in size and produces more PSA with increasing age, so it is normal to have lower levels in young men and higher levels in older men. A doctor considers levels of 4.0 ng/mL and lower as normal for a young man. Therefore, the doctor has to design a suitable molecular diagnostic test to get the actual level of PSA from the man.
Show details of steps on how the PSA test is conducted.

Answers

The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is performed to evaluate the level of PSA in the blood. This test is generally done to diagnose or screen for prostate cancer. The PSA test is a blood test.

Here are the details of the steps on how the PSA test is conducted;

Step 1: Blood Sample CollectionThe healthcare professional will collect a blood sample from the patient. This is done by inserting a needle into a vein in the patient's arm. Then, the blood is collected in a test tube.

Step 2: CentrifugationAfter collecting the blood sample, it is put into a machine called a centrifuge. This device spins the sample at high speed to separate the blood components.

Step 3: PSA TestNext, the laboratory technician will conduct the PSA test. The test measures the level of PSA in the patient's blood. The result is typically given in nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).

Step 4: Result Interpretation  The doctor will interpret the PSA test result to determine whether the PSA level is normal or high. The normal level of PSA in a young man is 4.0 ng/mL or lower. The doctor may advise the patient to go for further tests, such as a biopsy, if the PSA level is high. A biopsy involves taking a tissue sample from the prostate gland and examining it under a microscope to determine whether there are cancerous cells present.

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In this phylogenetic tree, which of the following statements are true? (This is a multiple response question; choose all that apply.) a) This tree was generated using molecular data rather than phenotypic characters. b) Taxa P is more closely related to taxa S than it is to taxa U. c) There is uncertainty in the relative timing of divergence (a polytomy) of taxa P,Q and R. d) Taxa R is more closely related to taxa S than to taxa T. e) There are no extinct taxa shown or implied on the tree.

Answers

Our task is to identify which of the following statements are true. The options are:a) This tree was generated using molecular data rather than phenotypic characters.b) Taxa P is more closely related to taxa S than it is to taxa U.

Option (a), (b), and (c) are true, and options (d) and (e) are false.

There is uncertainty in the relative timing of divergence (a polytomy) of taxa P,Q and R.d) Taxa R is more closely related to taxa S than to taxa T.e) There are no extinct taxa shown or implied on the tree.Now, let's see which options are true.a) This tree was generated using molecular data rather than phenotypic characters.Molecular data means the study of genes and proteins. Phenotypic characters mean the study of physical appearance. The phylogenetic tree is made by studying the molecular data rather than physical appearance. Hence, the statement is true. Option (a) is correct.b) Taxa P is more closely related to taxa S than it is to taxa U.To find out which species are closely related, we should look for the nearest branch.

Here, P and U share a common branch. However, the nearest branch to P is S. Therefore, the statement is true. Option (b) is correct.c) There is uncertainty in the relative timing of divergence (a polytomy) of taxa P, Q, and R.A polytomy is a node that implies an ancestral relationship among more than two lineages. Here, the polytomy between P, Q, and R indicates an uncertainty in the timing of divergence. Therefore, the statement is true. Option (c) is correct.d) Taxa R is more closely related to taxa S than to taxa T.Here, the nearest branch to R is T, not S. Therefore, the statement is false. Option (d) is incorrect.e) There are no extinct taxa shown or implied on the tree.No species is marked as extinct, nor any fossil is shown on the phylogenetic tree. Hence, the statement is true. Option (e) is correct. Therefore, options (a), (b), and (c) are true, and options (d) and (e) are false.

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Question 4 Describe the signs and symptoms of nephrotic syndrome (4 marks) and nephritic syndrome (4 marks). Explain the pathophysiology of antiglomerular basement membrane disease and describe the histopathological features seen on renal biopsy (12 marks).
Question 5 A generic inflammatory pathway consists of inducers, sensors, mediators and effectors. Giving specific details and named examples discuss the stages of inflammation outlined above.
Question 6 Which cell types can cause tumours in the central nervous system? Name three examples and describe their effects on central nervous system function

Answers

1) Nephrotic syndrome: Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia. Nephritic syndrome: Hematuria, hypertension, oliguria, proteinuria.

2) Inflammatory pathway stages: Inducers, sensors, mediators, effectors. Example: Endotoxins induce Toll-like receptors, leading to cytokine release and immune cell activation.

3) Cell types causing CNS tumors: Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells. Examples: Astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma. Effects: Tissue compression and neurological dysfunction.

1) Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to excessive loss of protein in the urine (proteinuria). This results in low levels of albumin in the blood (hypoalbuminemia), leading to edema and fluid retention. Additionally, there may be elevated levels of lipids in the blood (hyperlipidemia).

Nephritic syndrome is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. It is typically associated with hematuria (blood in urine), hypertension (high blood pressure), reduced urine output (oliguria), and variable levels of proteinuria.

2) Inducers: Pathogens, tissue damage, or immune response triggers.

Example: Bacterial infection releases endotoxins.

Sensors: Cells and receptors that recognize the inducers.

Example: Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).

Mediators: Signaling molecules that amplify and propagate the inflammatory response.

Example: Cytokines (such as interleukins) and chemokines attract immune cells to the site of inflammation.

Effectors: Immune cells and molecules that carry out the inflammatory response.

Example: Neutrophils and macrophages phagocytose pathogens, and mast cells release histamine to increase blood vessel permeability.

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7. Match the key responses with the descriptive statements that follow. 1. aftaches the lens to the ciliary body 2. fluid filling the anterior segment of the eye 3. the blind spot 4. contains muscle that controls the size of the pupil 5. drains the aqueous humor from the eye 6. layer containing the rods and cones: 7. substance occupving the posterior segment of the eyeball 8. forms most of the pigmented vascular tunic 9. tiny pit in the macula lutea; contains only cones 10. important light-bending structure of the eve; shape can be modified 11. anterior transparent part of the fibrous tunic 12. composed of tough. white, opaque, fibrous connective tissue

Answers

The  attaches the lens to the ciliary body - zonule, fluid filling the anterior segment of the eye - aqueous humor and the blind spot - optic disc.

Here are the descriptive statements that follow with the key responses:

1. attaches the lens to the ciliary body - zonule

2. fluid filling the anterior segment of the eye - aqueous humor

3. the blind spot - optic disc

4. contains muscle that controls the size of the pupil - iris

5. drains the aqueous humor from the eye - canal of Schlemm

6. layer containing the rods and cones: retina

7. substance occupying the posterior segment of the eyeball - vitreous humor

8. forms most of the pigmented vascular tunic - choroid

9. tiny pit in the macula lutea; contains only cones - fovea centralis

10. important light-bending structure of the eve; shape can be modified - lens

11. anterior transparent part of the fibrous tunic - cornea

12. composed of tough, white, opaque, fibrous connective tissue - sclera

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the small intestine is designed to absorb most of our nutrients and secrete enzymes. which epithelium would be best for this function?

Answers

The epithelium that would be best suited for the function of absorption of most nutrients and the secretion of enzymes is the simple columnar epithelium. This is because the columnar epithelial cells are tall and narrow, resembling columns.

Their nuclei are elongated and are located near the base of the cell. The columnar cells can have microvilli that extend from their apical surface, which helps to increase their surface area, making them highly efficient at absorbing nutrients. Furthermore, these cells possess enzymes that assist in the breakdown of food and the digestion of nutrients. Columnar cells in the small intestine also secrete mucus to protect the epithelium from acidic and enzymatic damage.

Furthermore, the columnar cells' tight junctions are well-developed, which reduces the chances of unwanted materials entering the bloodstream. The microvilli aid in the absorption of nutrients from the digested food. They increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption, allowing more nutrients to enter the bloodstream through the epithelium.

In conclusion, the simple columnar epithelium is best suited for the small intestine's function of absorbing nutrients and secreting enzymes due to its tall and narrow shape, microvilli on the apical surface, and tight junctions. The combination of these features allows the small intestine to efficiently extract nutrients from the digested food and transfer them to the bloodstream while preventing unwanted materials from entering the bloodstream.

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