1. Round each length to the nearest inch.
a) [tex]1 \frac{1}{4} [/tex] ____"
​b) [tex] \frac{7}{8} [/tex] ____"
c) [tex]1 \frac{1}{2} [/tex] ____"
d) [tex]2\frac{5}{8} [/tex] ___"
e) [tex]1\frac{5}{16} [/tex] ___"
f) [tex]4\frac{11}{16} [/tex] ___"

2. Round each length to the nearest foot.
a) 10" _____'
b) 2'9" ____'
c) 2'6" ____'
d)2'9" ____'
e)1'2" ____'
f)9'3" ____'​

Answers

Answer 1

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1.  1, 1, 2, 3, 1, 5

  2.  1, 3, 3, 3, 1, 9

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Any fraction of an inch that is 1/2" or more will cause the integer value to increase by 1. Otherwise, the integer value is the one you want. Of course ...

  1/2" = 2/4" = 4/8" = 8/16"

  a) 1"

  b) 1"

  c) 2"

  d) 3"

  e) 1"

  f) 5"

__

2. Any inch measure that is 6" or more will cause the integer value to increase by 1. Otherwise, the integer value is the one you want.

  a) 1'

  b) 3'

  c) 3'

  d) 3' . . . same as B

  e) 1'

  f) 9'


Related Questions

On a rectangular hyperbola, if one point is (2, 3) and y varies inversely to x, find y when x is 6.

Answers

Answer:

y = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

y is inversely proportion to x means that ,

y ∝ 1/x or ,

[tex]y\ \alpha\ \frac{1}{x}[/tex]

When we remove the proportionality sign we get,

[tex]y=k(\frac{1}{x})\\y=\frac{k}{x} \\[/tex]

now we know the point is (2 , 3) which means it corresponds to (x , y) which furthermore means y=3 when x=2,

so we insert these values and get the value of k.

[tex]y=\frac{k}{x} \\\\3=\frac{k}{2}\\\\6=k\\[/tex]

now the equation becomes,

[tex]y=\frac{6}{x}[/tex]

now we need to find y when x is 6 so just replace x with 6

[tex]y=\frac{6}{x}\\\\y=\frac{6}{6} \\\\y=1[/tex]

so we get the value of y is 1

What is the midpoint, M, of line segment HG with
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M(-3,-1) since you add the x’s and divide by two before doing the same with the y’s.

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Answers

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

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What is the number of possible permutations of 8 objects taken 4 at a time?

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Answers

Answer:

1,680

Step-by-step explanation:

n!/(n-r)!

in this case n= 8 and r= 4

so 8!/(8-4)! = 1,680

The possible permutation of 8 objects taken at 4 a time will be 1680.

What is permutation?

The linear arrangement of the set of the orders or the linear arrangements of the numbers is called the permutation.

The number of possible permutations of 8 objects taken 4 at a time will be:-

[tex]^8C_4=\dfrac{8!}{(8-4)!}[/tex]

[tex]^8C_4=\dfrac{8!}{(4)!}[/tex]

[tex]^8C_4=\dfrac{8 \times 7\times 6\times 5\times 4\times 3\times 2}{4\times 3\times 2}=1680[/tex]

Therefore the possible permutation of 8 objects taken at 4 a time will be 1680.

To know more about permutations follow

https://brainly.com/question/1216161

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Clare and Han have summer jobs
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Clare's earnings can be seen in the
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Answers

Answer:

(300,15) [tex]\frac{y}{x}[/tex]=15/300=1/20

Step-by-step explanation:

How much money does Clare make after stuffing 1,500 envelopes?

Clare: y=1/10x=1/10(1500)=$150

How much money does Han make after stuffing 1,500 envelopes?

Han: y=1/20x=1/20(1500)=$75

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

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Answers

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

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Answers

Answer:

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Answers

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Answers

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Answers

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

Answer:
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