The world distribution of income has changed drastically in the past century. In the early 20th century, the world was a highly unequal place, with the richest 20% of people accounting for more than 80% of global income. In the mid-20th century, however, this began to shift.
The rise of the welfare state and the spread of social democracy led to increased equality within countries, while globalization and the growth of developing economies began to reduce inequality between countries.The “reclining S” curve, as illustrated by Branko Milanovic, demonstrates the changes in global income distribution over the last few decades.
The graph is shaped like an “S” lying on its back, with the left-hand side representing the poorest people in the world, the middle representing the middle class, and the right-hand side representing the wealthiest people. The curve shows that while the middle class has grown significantly, the biggest gains have been made by the top 1% of earners.The “elephant curve” version of the “reclining S” curve, introduced by Milanovic in 2016, emphasizes the divide between the very rich and everyone else.
The curve shows that while the global middle class has made significant gains, those in the top 1% of the income distribution have seen their incomes rise even more rapidly. As a result, there is a dip in the curve for the upper-middle class, which includes many people in developed countries.Bourguignon’s decomposition of inequality into between- and within-economy inequality offers a complementary perspective.
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Problem 12-12 Johnson's Inc. made $250,000 in 2015 in consulting business in Tennessee. The company had other taxable income of $1,000,000 in year 2015 . The federal income tax for the consulting work done in Tennessee is $85,500 True/False Problem 12-13 A piece of property bought by XYZ Corporation a few years ago was sold for $5M. The cost basis for this property was $2.75M. The company had a taxable income of $12.15 million in the year the property was sold. The capital gain tax on this property is $337,500. True/False
Problem 12-12: Johnson's Inc. made $250,000 in 2015 in consulting business in Tennessee. The company had other taxable income of $1,000,000 in year 2015. The federal income tax for the consulting work done in Tennessee is $85,500.
True. Problem 12-13: A piece of property bought by XYZ Corporation a few years ago was sold for $5M. The cost basis for this property was $2.75M. The company had a taxable income of $12.15 million in the year the property was sold.
The capital gain tax on this property is $337,500. True. Capital gains tax refers to a tax levied on capital gains that are realized from the sale of an asset.
If you sell a stock, real estate, or another kind of investment, you may owe taxes on the profits. In Problem 12-13, XYZ Corporation sold a piece of property that it had bought for $2.75 million for $5 million.
Therefore, the corporation realized a gain of $2.25 million. The capital gain tax on this property is calculated by multiplying the gain by the applicable tax rate.
The tax rate for capital gains depends on the taxpayer's income level. Therefore, if the company had a taxable income of $12.15 million in the year the property was sold, it's likely that it was in the highest tax bracket, which is 20 percent for long-term capital gains.
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If a shift in aggregate demand only affects real gross domestic
product (GDP), then the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve
is:
1. verticle
2. upward slopping
3. horizonatl
4. downward slopping
When a shift in aggregate demand only affects real gross domestic product (GDP), the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve is upward sloping.
This is because in the short run, the price level can be altered to accommodate changes in demand, but not changes in production capacity.The SRAS curve is defined as a graph that depicts the relationship between the quantity of output firms are willing to produce and the price level in the short run, holding all else constant.
In the short run, SRAS slopes upward because an increase in price level leads to an increase in output, while a decrease in price level leads to a decrease in output.In the short run, if the aggregate demand increases, the output and price level will increase in the economy.
An increase in aggregate demand causes the price level to increase, which increases the profit margins for firms, making it profitable for them to increase production. Firms, in turn, increase output by utilizing more resources, such as labor, to meet the new demand.
However, in the long run, SRAS becomes perfectly inelastic. This means that an increase in aggregate demand will only lead to an increase in the price level, with no change in
output. In the long run, the price level and output are determined by supply-side factors such as labor force, technology, and capital.
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When we look at EBITDA we are looking at a number after we have subtracted Depreciation Select one: A. TRUE B. FALSE C. than Company A that still are invested in Company B
When we look at EBITDA, we are looking at a number after we have subtracted Depreciation. The given statement is true.
What is EBITDA?EBITDA stands for Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation, and Amortization. It is a financial metric used to assess a company's operating performance.
EBITDA is a popular financial metric because it is believed to provide a better understanding of a company's financial health than traditional earnings metrics that are more heavily influenced by accounting and tax policies.
It is calculated by adding back interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization to a company's earnings.
Hence, its true.
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Anyone who owns bonds is subject to interest rate risk because interest rates are always changing in financial markets. The prices of bonds fluctuate with changes in interest rates, giving rise to interest rate risk. A number of relations exist between bond prices and changes in interest rates. These relations are often called the bond theorems. All of the following theorems correctly explain the relationship between interest rates and bond prices except:
Group of answer choices
The lower the coupon of a bond, the greater its interest rate risk.
The longer the maturity of a bond, the greater its interest rate risk.
If the bond yield is greater than the coupon rate, the bond sells at a premium.
When bond yields rise, bond prices fall.
Theorems correctly explain the relationship between interest rates and bond prices except "If the bond yield is greater than the coupon rate, the bond sells at a premium.
"The relationship between interest rates and bond prices is an inverse one. When interest rates rise, bond prices fall, and when interest rates fall, bond prices rise. These movements happen because higher interest rates make the bond less attractive to investors who can get higher returns on their investment elsewhere.
Similarly, if the interest rates are expected to fall, people will buy more bonds that offer a fixed rate, driving up the bond prices and lowering yields. Following are the bond theorems that explain this relationship correctly.The lower the coupon of a bond, the greater its interest rate risk.
This theorem states that the interest rate risk of a bond is inversely proportional to its coupon rate. The lower the coupon rate of the bond, the more susceptible it is to fluctuations in interest rates. Conversely, the higher the coupon rate of a bond, the lower its interest rate risk.
The longer the maturity of a bond, the greater its interest rate risk. The interest rate risk of a bond is also affected by its maturity date. Bonds that have a long maturity period, such as 30 years, are at higher risk than those that have a short maturity period, such as 5 years.When bond yields rise, bond prices fall. When the bond yields increase, the bond prices decrease. This relationship is explained by the inverse relationship between bond prices and yields. When yields go up, bond prices go down because new bonds issued by the government or corporations offer a higher yield rate and are therefore more attractive to investors.
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which of the following documents does a domestic limited partnership require to be allowed to operate in another state?
To operate a domestic limited partnership in another state, the partnership typically requires a document called a Certificate of Authority.
A domestic limited partnership is a business structure that consists of one or more general partners who manage the business and are personally liable for its debts, and one or more limited partners who invest capital but have limited liability. When a domestic limited partnership wants to expand its operations into another state, it must comply with the laws and regulations of that state.
Obtaining a Certificate of Authority is a common requirement for foreign entities, including domestic limited partnerships, to conduct business in another state. The specific name and process for obtaining this document may vary from state to state, as it can be referred to as a Certificate of Authority, Certificate of Registration, Foreign Qualification, or a similar term.
The Certificate of Authority typically requires the domestic limited partnership to file an application or form with the Secretary of State or the relevant state agency responsible for business registrations. The application usually includes information such as the partnership's legal name, principal place of business, registered agent, purpose of the business, and details about the general and limited partners.
By granting the Certificate of Authority, the state acknowledges that the domestic limited partnership has met the necessary requirements to operate in that state. It allows the partnership to legally conduct business activities, enter into contracts, hire employees, open bank accounts, and comply with tax obligations within the jurisdiction.
So, a domestic limited partnership requires a Certificate of Authority (or similar document) to be allowed to operate in another state.
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Payments of Y are made at the beginning of each year for 20 years. They earn interest at the end of each year at an reinvested at an annual effective rate of 6%. At the end of the 20 years, the accumulated value of the original payme the first deposit into the 6% account. a. 29.65 b. The answer does not appear here. c. 370.67 d. 42.82 e. 53.70
To calculate the accumulated value of the payments made at the beginning of each year for 20 years.
we can use the formula for the future value of an annuity:
Future Value = Payment × [(1 + interest rate)^number of periods - 1] / interest rate
Given:
Payment (Y) = $1 (assumed)
Number of periods = 20 years
Interest rate = 6% = 0.06 (annual effective rate)
Plugging in the values into the formula:
Future Value = $1 × [(1 + 0.06)^20 - 1] / 0.06
Future Value = $1 × [(1.06^20 - 1) / 0.06]
Future Value ≈ $1 × [34.559 - 1] / 0.06
Future Value ≈ $1 × 33.559 / 0.06
Future Value ≈ $559.32
Therefore, the accumulated value of the original payments at the end of the 20 years is approximately $559.32. None of the given options (a. 29.65, b. The answer does not appear here, c. 370.67, d. 42.82, e. 53.70) matches the calculated value.
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The following document includes pictures regarding the international strategies employed by some multinationals: Walmart in China, 15 flavors of Kit Kat in Japan, P&G's powder detergent in Europe, McDonald's menus from around the world, and Dell. Which of these companies do you think follow a global strategy? Explain. International Strategy.pdf
The multinational companies Walmart, Kit Kat, P&G, McDonald's, and Dell have adopted international strategies. Global strategy is an approach to product development and marketing that considers the whole world as a single market and sells the same product in the same manner across all geographical regions.
When compared to a localized approach that concentrates on local markets, this is more expensive, but it is also more profitable. A global strategy would include standardizing a company's product offering, distribution channels, and advertising methods across the globe. Of all the firms mentioned in the report, Walmart appears to be following a global strategy.
Walmart is the world's biggest retail company, with over 11,000 locations in 27 countries. Walmart is a well-known brand worldwide, and its retail approach and operating style are similar across the globe.
Walmart's standardized global approach has enabled it to reduce operating expenses, decrease time to market, and achieve efficiency and consistency in its operations across various markets. Walmart was a latecomer to China, having only established a foothold there in the 1990s.
Walmart began by establishing relationships with local vendors in China and providing them with the necessary knowledge and skills to improve their production capabilities. Walmart now operates 432 stores in China and is one of the country's biggest supermarket chains.
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Difference between Transactional and relational marketing
Difference between Consumer-generated content and Firm generated content
Difference between Brand Image and Brand Position
Transactional marketing focuses on one-time sales transactions, while relational marketing emphasizes building long-term relationships with customers.
Transactional marketing is a short-term approach that focuses on individual sales transactions. It aims to maximize immediate sales and profits by emphasizing promotional tactics such as discounts, coupons, and limited-time offers. The primary goal of transactional marketing is to persuade customers to make a purchase and complete a transaction. However, it doesn't prioritize building long-term relationships with customers.
On the other hand, relational marketing takes a more strategic and long-term perspective. It aims to establish and nurture strong relationships with customers over time. Relational marketing focuses on customer satisfaction, loyalty, and retention. It involves activities such as personalized communication, customer service, and loyalty programs. By prioritizing customer relationships, relational marketing aims to create repeat business and generate customer advocacy.
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Occam industrial machines issued 160,000 zero coupon bonds 5 years ago. The bonds originally had 30 years to maturity with a yield to maturity of 6. 3 percent. Interest rates have recently decreased, and the bonds now have a yield to maturity of 5. 4 percent. The bonds have a par value of $2,000 and semiannual compounding. If the company has a $83. 4 million market value of equity, what weight should it use for debt when calculating the cost of capital?
The bonds have a par value of $2,000 and semiannual compounding. If the company has an $83. 4 million market value of equity, 0.163, weight should it use for debt when calculating the cost of capital.
Given information:
PV = FV / (1 + r)nWhere:PV = present valueFV = future value (par value of the bond)r = interest raten = number of periodsPV = FV / (1 + r)n
PV = $2,000 / [tex](1 + 0.054/2)^{50}[/tex]
PV = $637.79
Debt market value is equal to $160,000 divided by $102,046.40.
Debt market value as a whole is $16,327,424
Total market debt value divided by (Total market debt value plus Market value of equity) yields the weight of debt.
Debt burden equals $16,327,424 divided by ($16,327,424 plus $83,400,000).
16.3% of the debt's weight, or 0.163,
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On March 1, 2018, Fresh Corp. declared a dividend of $3,000. The record date is March 20, 2018, and the payment date is April 1, 2018. The journal entry required on April 1, 2018, will include which of the following entries? (Select all that apply.) Check all that apply. Credit cash $3,000. Debit retained earnings $3,000. Debit dividends payable $3,000. Credit dividends payable $3,000. Debit cash $3,000.
The correct entries for the journal entry on April 1, 2018, are:
- Credit cash $3,000
- Debit retained earnings $3,000
- Credit dividends payable $3,000
The journal entry required on April 1, 2018, will include the following entries:
1. Credit cash $3,000: This entry reflects the payment of the declared dividend. The company is reducing its cash balance by $3,000.
2. Debit retained earnings $3,000: This entry decreases the retained earnings account by $3,000. Retained earnings represent the accumulated profits of the company that have not been distributed as dividends.
3. Credit dividends payable $3,000: This entry reduces the dividends payable account by $3,000. Dividends payable is a liability account that represents the amount of dividends declared by the company but not yet paid to the shareholders.
Therefore, the correct entries for the journal entry on April 1, 2018, are:
- Credit cash $3,000
- Debit retained earnings $3,000
- Credit dividends payable $3,000
The other options (debit dividends payable $3,000 and debit cash $3,000) are not included in the correct journal entry for April 1, 2018. The debit dividends payable entry would be recorded on the declaration date, and the debit cash entry would be recorded on the payment date.
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Generally, the is the best measure of central tendency when outiers are present.
The median is generally the best measure of central tendency when outliers are present.
When a dataset contains outliers, the mean can be heavily influenced by these extreme values and may not accurately represent the central tendency of the majority of the data. The median, on the other hand, is less affected by outliers because it is simply the middle value when the data is sorted in ascending or descending order. This makes the median a more robust measure of central tendency in the presence of outliers.By using the median, we focus on the value that divides the data into two equal halves, disregarding the extreme values that might skew the mean. This provides a more representative measure of the typical or central value within the dataset, even if there are outliers present. However, it is still important to consider the nature of the data and the specific context when selecting the appropriate measure of central tendency.
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A building is acquired on January 1 at a cost of $870,000 with an estimated useful life of eight years and salvage value of $78,300 Compute depreciation expense for the first three years using the double-declining-balance method. (Round your answers to the nearest doller.)
Double-declining balance method is an accelerated method of depreciation that recognizes higher amounts of depreciation in the early years and lower amounts of depreciation in the later years of the useful life of the asset. It is a method of depreciation that allows for the recovery of cost at twice the rate of straight-line depreciation.
Depreciation expense for the first three years using the double-declining-balance method for a building that was acquired on January 1 at a cost of $870,000 with an estimated useful life of eight years and salvage value of $78,300 is shown below:
Given that the cost of the building is $870,000 and its salvage value is $78,300, we can calculate its depreciable cost as follows: Depreciable cost = cost - salvage value= $870,000 - $78,300= $791,700For double-declining balance method, the depreciation rate is calculated as follows:
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Which of the following is true about leadership trait theories? Trait theories focus on how organizational situations influence leader effectiveness. Trait theories focus on the personal characteristics of a leader. Trait theories focus on how the leader can be substituted or neutralized. Trait theories focus on how leader behavior leads to effective leadership. Trait theories focus on theory X and theory Y.
Trait theories focus on the personal characteristics of a leader is the statement that is true about leadership trait theories. T
rait theory is one of the oldest theories of leadership, dating back to the early 20th century. It is an extension of Great Man Theory and it is based on the idea that there are certain traits that are inherent in leaders which are responsible for their success.
This theory emphasizes the personal characteristics of a leader, such as intelligence, physical appearance, social skills, communication skills, and other personal attributes that contribute to the effectiveness of a leader.
Trait theories are widely used in various fields, such as business, psychology, and sociology. However, it has its limitations. Some of the limitations of trait theories are as follows:
Trait theories are highly subjective, as different people may have different opinions about what traits are necessary for leadership.
Trait theories fail to explain how leaders acquire the necessary traits.
Trait theories do not take into account the situational factors that may affect leadership.
Trait theories focus more on the individual traits of a leader and not on the behavior of the leader or the followers.
Trait theories do not take into account the differences in culture, gender, and race that may affect leadership.
In conclusion, trait theories focus on the personal characteristics of a leader and how these traits contribute to effective leadership. It is one of the oldest theories of leadership, but it has its limitations and is not a complete explanation of leadership effectiveness.
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Your firm sells industrial equipment and recognizes revenue in accordance with GAAP. The December 31, 2020 year-end is quickly approaching, and your commission is computed at a rate equal to 10 percent of sales. You know that in January 2021, your best customer, a strong firm with no payment problems, is going to release a $3.5 Million purchase order for previously quoted equipment. You feel since you did all the work in 2020, the sale should be recognized in 2020 and included in your 2020 commission computation. Your customer sends their truck to your location and picks up the equipment on December 31, 2020.
After taking out a loan and spending your anticipated commission on your New-Year’s vacation, a new car and a vacation condo, and you return to work in January only to learn the that firm’s financial VP refused to record any revenue related to the December 31 shipment and will pay no commission related to that sale. Explain in a few sentences why, under GAAP, no revenue was recorded.
The notion of the revenue recognition criteria serves as the basis for revenue recognition under GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles).
This principle states that revenue should be recognised as soon as it is earned and is either realised or realisable. Since the customer has not yet released the purchase order for the equipment, the essential requirement for revenue recognition is not satisfied in this instance as of December 31, 2020. The revenue cannot be recognised until the requirements for realisation, or realisable and earned, are satisfied, even though the equipment was physically picked up on December 31. Therefore, in accordance with GAAP, no revenue can be reported for this particular sale in 2020, and as a result, no commission can be paid or recorded for 2020.
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Earl buys a fishing license and goes fishing. He catches a trout, cleans it, cooks it, and eats it. Earl's acquisition of the trout is by a. possession. b. purchase. c. gift. d. production.
Earl's acquisition of the trout can be classified as "d. production."
The term "production" refers to the process of creating or obtaining goods or resources through one's own effort or activity. In this scenario, Earl catches the trout himself through fishing, which involves his personal effort and activity. He takes an active role in obtaining the trout by using his fishing skills and techniques. On the other hand, the options of "possession," "purchase," and "gift" do not accurately describe Earl's acquisition of the trout in this context. Possession typically refers to having physical control or ownership of an item, but it does not account for the active process of obtaining the item. Purchase implies a transaction involving the exchange of money for the item, which is not mentioned in the scenario. Lastly, a gift involves receiving an item from someone else voluntarily, which does not apply here as Earl catches the trout himself.
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: An insurance company sells policies in New York and New Jersey. It is incorporated in New York. In New Jersey, this insurance company is a(n): Domestic Insurer Neighboring Insurer Foreign Insurer Alien Insurer
An insurance company is the business of providing coverage to customers for various risks such as life insurance, auto insurance, and health insurance, among others.
The policies and regulations that govern an insurance company are different in each state in the United States of America (USA).
The regulatory framework in each state defines various categories of insurance companies.
These categories include domestic insurers, foreign insurers, alien insurers, and neighboring insurers.
A domestic insurer is a company incorporated in a particular state and is authorized to sell policies in that state.
In contrast, foreign insurers are companies incorporated in a different state and are authorized to sell policies in the state they are registered.
Neighboring insurers are insurers registered and incorporated in the adjoining states.
Alien insurers are the ones that are not incorporated or registered in the USA but are authorized to do business within the country with proper legal permission and licensure.
given the insurance company is incorporated in New York and sells policies in New Jersey,
in New Jersey, this insurance company is a foreign insurer.
A foreign insurer is a company that is incorporated in another state and is authorized to sell policies in another state.
Such an insurance company must be registered with the Department of Financial Services in the state it seeks to do business in.
a foreign insurer can offer insurance products and services in other states apart from the one it is incorporated in,
as long as it adheres to the regulatory frameworks set by the Department of Financial Services.
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Consider the fiat currency system and the recent developments in the decentralized form of money creation. Discuss such developments in the monetary system and their effects on classifying currency as an asset class (e.g., Bitcoin). Should countries consider digital currencies powered by distributed consensus mechanisms over the legal tender system? Support your arguments.
The fiat currency system is a monetary system that has been in operation for several decades and has had its fair share of advantages and disadvantages. One of the major benefits of this system is the fact that it is easy to use and has a high degree of liquidity.
There are several arguments to support the classification of digital currencies as an asset class. Firstly, digital currencies are created through a complex and decentralized process that involves several parties. This process is designed to ensure that the currency is not controlled by any one entity or individual, making it more transparent and secure.
In conclusion, countries should consider digital currencies powered by distributed consensus mechanisms over the legal tender system. Digital currencies offer several advantages over traditional fiat currencies, including increased transparency, security, and decentralization.
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The ongoing search by savers for high returns leads the bond and stock markets to direct funds to the uses that appear. Multiple Choice to have no risk most likely to be productive. O least likely to be productive O to have the least risk.
The ongoing search by savers for high returns leads the bond and stock markets to direct funds to the uses that appear most likely to be productive.
When savers are seeking high returns on their investments, they look for opportunities that offer the greatest potential for profitability. As a result, the bond and stock markets play a crucial role in allocating funds to investments that are perceived to have a higher likelihood of generating productive returns.
In these markets, investors assess various investment options and allocate their funds based on their perceived level of productivity. They aim to invest in assets or projects that have the potential to generate significant returns on their investment, whether it be through interest payments on bonds or dividends and capital appreciation in the stock market.
While there is always some degree of risk associated with investments, savers are generally willing to accept a certain level of risk in pursuit of higher returns. Therefore, the bond and stock markets direct funds to investments that are considered most likely to be productive, offering a balance between risk and potential reward.
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find the definition of each one of those key terms:
gross investment
net investment
exports
(please type this answer)
imports
net exports
national income (NI)
personal income (PI)
disposable income (DI)
saving
Gross Investment: Gross investment is an economic term that refers to the amount of investment made by a company or government in capital goods, such as factories, equipment, and other productive assets, over a particular time period.
Gross investment is a measure of the total amount of capital invested, without accounting for depreciation. Net Investment: Net investment is the total amount of investment after accounting for depreciation. It is the difference between the gross investment and depreciation of capital goods.Exports: Exports are goods or services produced in one country that are sold and shipped to another country.
The revenue generated from exports contributes to the growth of the exporting country's economy.Imports: Imports are goods or services purchased by one country from another country. The importing country spends money to purchase goods or services from other countries.
Net Exports: Net exports is the difference between a country's total exports and total imports. When a country exports more than it imports, it has a positive net export, which contributes to economic growth.National Income (NI): National income is the sum of all the income earned by a country's citizens, including wages, salaries, profits, and interest.
It is an important economic indicator that reflects the overall health of a country's economy. Personal Income (PI): Personal income is the total income earned by an individual, including wages, salaries, and other sources of income. It does not include taxes or other deductions.
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Waterway Industries reported the following year-end information: beginning work in process inventory, $170000; cost of goods manufactured, $866000; beginning finished goods inventory, $232000; ending work in process inventory, $210000; and ending finished goods inventory, $254000. Waterway Industries's cost of goods sold for the year is? a.$844000. (beginning finish good inventory 232,000+866000 cost of good manufacture =1098000- (254000) ending finish good inventory= 844000 )
b.$826000.
c.$888000.
d.$612000.
correct answer:a
The correct option ' Waterway Industries' cost of goods sold for the year is' a.$844000. The cost of goods sold (COGS) is an accounting measure that represents the direct costs incurred in producing or acquiring the goods or services sold by a company
To calculate the cost of goods sold (COGS) for Waterway Industries, we need to use the formula:
COGS = Beginning Finished Goods Inventory + Cost of Goods Manufactured - Ending Finished Goods Inventory
Given:
Beginning Finished Goods Inventory: $232,000
Cost of Goods Manufactured: $866,000
Ending Finished Goods Inventory: $254,000
Using the formula, we can calculate the COGS:
COGS = $232,000 + $866,000 - $254,000
COGS = $1,098,000 - $254,000
COGS = $844,000
Therefore, Waterway Industries' cost of goods sold for the year is $844,000.
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Identify any organisation of your own choice with a number of departments interacting with each other. Imagine that the organisation has an open policy which enables employing and dealing with people who are both nationals and nonnationals. You are advised to take assumptions where necessary based on your experience with oracle database systems. QUESTION ONE a) Design the database using an enhanced entity relationship diagram (EERD). Make it as detailed as possible, reflecting; entity integrity, referential integrity, inheritance, and numeric multiplicity.
The database design for an organisation with multiple departments interacting with each other can be done using an Enhanced Entity Relationship Diagram (EERD) that includes entity integrity, referential integrity, inheritance, and numeric multiplicity.
An Enhanced Entity Relationship Diagram (EERD) can be used to design a database for an organization that includes multiple departments interacting with each other. This type of diagram is an extension of the traditional Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) and includes additional features such as entity inheritance and subtypes. It also includes additional constraints such as entity integrity and referential integrity.
Entity Integrity is a type of constraint that ensures that each entity in a table has a unique identity. This means that there are no duplicate entries in the table. It can be enforced by using a primary key or a unique key constraint.
Referential Integrity is a type of constraint that ensures that the relationships between entities are maintained. This means that when a record in one table is updated or deleted, all related records in other tables are also updated or deleted. It can be enforced by using foreign keys.
Inheritance is a type of relationship between entities that allows one entity to inherit the attributes and relationships of another entity. This is useful when there are common attributes or relationships between entities that can be reused in other entities.
Numeric Multiplicity is a type of constraint that specifies the minimum and maximum number of instances of an entity that can be related to another entity. It can be enforced by using cardinality notation such as 1:1, 1:N, N:M.
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The Helix TMT Fund sells Class A shares with an expense ratio of 1.0% annually, charged on end of year asset values and Class B shares with a front-end load of 8% and no expense ratio.
If you plan to sell the fund after 9 years, are Class A or B shares the better choice?
Assume assets of the fund grows 12% annually, and no distributions are paid to investors.
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. There is no difference
4. There is insufficient information given
The Helix TMT Fund offers two share classes; Class A shares with an annual expense ratio of 1.0%, charged on end of year asset values and Class B shares with a front-end load of 8% and no expense ratio.
The question is which is the better choice if the investor wants to sell the fund after 9 years, given that the fund grows at a rate of 12% annually and no distributions are paid to investors.Class A shares are subject to the annual expense ratio of 1.0% charged at the end of the year, but Class B shares have no expense ratio. Hence, Class B shares would be the better choice. This is because an 8% load charge is much less costly than the 1.0% annual expense ratio over nine years. An 8% charge equals just 0.888% of the overall cost each year, as 8% divided by 9 years equals 0.888% per year.
This is much lower than the 1.0% charged on the Class A shares each year. However, because the annual expense ratio of Class A shares is charged on the asset value at the end of the year, the cost will continue to increase each year along with the asset value of the fund. Hence, Class B shares are more profitable than Class A shares. Therefore, Class B shares are the better choice if the investor wants to sell the fund after 9 years with the given assumptions. Note: Although no details are provided on the sale charges on Class A shares, it is assumed that they do not have a load charge.
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Looking at the table below for Round 1, the 'Low End' segment center has a Performance (Pfmn) specification of 3 and a Size specification of 17 Now we look at the bottom of the table to see how much the ideal spot is offset from the center of the segment, and we see that the Low End ideal spot is offset by −0.8 for Pimn and +0.8 for size So, we can calculate that the Round 1 ideal spot for my product in the Low End segment is Use the segment centers in the table above to calculate the new ideal spots for the segments. Once you have successfuly entered the correct ideat spots for Rounds 0 and 1 (open fields), the rest of the table will fil in automatically. If you have entered any answers incorrectly, a ine should appear through your answer and a pop bubble will appear.
In order to calculate the ideal spot for Round 1 for a product in the Low End segment, we need to use the segment centers in the given table.
The table shows that the Low End segment center has a Performance (Pfmn) specification of 3 and a Size specification of 17. From the table, we also know that the Low End ideal spot is offset by −0.8 for Pimn and +0.8 for size.
Therefore, we can calculate the Round 1 ideal spot for the product in the Low End segment as follows:
Ideal spot for Pfmn = Low End segment center + offset for Pfmn
[tex]= 3 - 0.8= 2.2[/tex]
Ideal spot for Size = Low End segment center + offset for Size
= [tex]17 + 0.8= 17.8[/tex]
Therefore, the Round 1 ideal spot for the product in the Low End segment is Pfmn = 2.2 and Size = 17.8.
Once the correct ideal spots for Rounds 0 and 1 are entered, the rest of the table will automatically fill in. If any answers are entered incorrectly, a line will appear through the answer along with a pop-up bubble.
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Facts you have discovered: Debits to the Cash account were $2,640; credits to the Cash account were $2,150. Amy Hall (customer) paid $15, but this was not updated in Accounts Receivable. A purchase of office equipment for $105 on account was never recorded in the ledger. Professional Fees (revenue) was understated in the ledger by $180. Show how the trial balance will indeed balance once these items are corrected. Tell Ranch Company how it can avoid this problem in the future.
To ensure that the trial balance balances after correcting the discovered facts, the following adjustments need to be made:
1. Adjust Accounts Receivable for the payment made by Amy Hall:
Debit: Accounts Receivable ($15)Credit: Cash ($15)
2. Record the purchase of office equipment on account:Debit: Office Equipment ($105)Credit: Accounts Payable ($105)
3. Adjust Professional Fees to reflect the correct revenue amount:Debit: Professional Fees ($180)Credit: Revenue ($180)After making these adjustments, the trial balance will balance because the debits and credits will be equal. The corrected amounts will be reflected in the appropriate accounts, ensuring accuracy.
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In a market, the private supply curve is given by P=2+3.1Q and the private demand curve is given by P=71−4.8Q. The socially optimal quantity is 6 . What is the value of the marginal external benefit / cost? In case of a marginal external cost, report a negative number.
The value of the marginal external benefit / cost is -21.6. Since it is a marginal external cost, the value is negative.
In a market, the private supply curve is given by
P = 2 + 3.1Q
and the private demand curve is given by
P = 71 − 4.8Q.
The socially optimal quantity is 6. Let’s find out the value of the marginal external benefit / cost.
First, we need to calculate the marginal social cost (MSC) and marginal private cost (MPC).
We know that
MSC = MPC + Marginal External Cost (MEC)
Let’s calculate the value of MSC:
MSC = 2 + 3.1Q + MEC
Also, the marginal social benefit (MSB) is given by
MSB = 71 − 4.8Q
The socially optimal quantity is 6,
so substitute Q = 6 in MSB to find out the value of MSB when Q = 6:
MSB = 71 − 4.8(6)
MSB = 71 − 28.8
MSB = 42.2
Now, we need to find the value of Q where
MSB = MSC.
42.2 = 2 + 3.1Q + MEC
40.2 = 3.1Q + MEC
Now, we need to find the value of MEC when
Q = 6.40.2 = 3.1(6) + MEC
40.2 = 18.6 + MEC
MEC = 21.6
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According to the Securities Act of 1933, which of the following is illegal during the waiting period? A. Soliciting buyers for a company's securities. B. Receiving offers to buy a company's securities. C. Selling security subject to the act. D. Soliciting through the use of a summary prospectus.
According to the Securities Act of 1933, during the waiting period, it is illegal to engage in certain activities related to the sale of securities. The waiting period is the time between when a company files its registration statement with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and when the SEC declares the registration statement effective. During this period, the following activities are generally prohibited:
C. Selling securities subject to the act: It is illegal to sell or offer to sell securities that are subject to the Securities Act of 1933 during the waiting period. This is to ensure that investors have access to all the necessary information and disclosures before making investment decisions.
A. Soliciting buyers for a company's securities: Actively seeking or soliciting potential buyers for securities during the waiting period is also illegal. This includes any form of communication or marketing efforts to generate interest in the securities.
D. Soliciting through the use of a summary prospectus: Using a summary prospectus or any other document that summarizes the key information of the securities offering to solicit buyers is prohibited during the waiting period. Investors should have access to the full prospectus with detailed information before making investment decisions.
B. Receiving offers to buy a company's securities: Although it is not explicitly stated as illegal during the waiting period, receiving offers to buy a company's securities without an effective registration statement can be problematic. It is generally advisable to wait until the registration statement is declared effective before accepting offers to ensure compliance with the law.
Overall, during the waiting period, it is crucial to adhere to the regulations set forth by the Securities Act of 1933 to protect investors and ensure a fair and transparent securities market.
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Which two variables rank as marketing's most important contributions to strategic
management?
A) Diversification and budgeting.
B) Marketing penetration and competition.
C) Competition and collaboration.
D) Product development and market development.
E) Market segmentation and product positioning.
The two variables that rank as marketing's most important contributions to strategic management are market segmentation and product positioning.
Market segmentation is the process of dividing a broad target market into smaller, more specific segments based on characteristics such as demographics, psychographics, and behavior. It helps companies identify and understand their target customers, tailor their marketing strategies, and effectively reach their desired audience.
Product positioning, on the other hand, refers to the way a product is perceived by consumers in relation to competing products in the market. It involves creating a unique and favorable image for the product in the minds of the target customers. Effective product positioning helps differentiate a company's offerings from competitors and creates a competitive advantage.
These two variables are crucial for strategic management because they enable companies to identify and target specific customer segments, understand their needs and preferences, develop products that meet those needs, and position those products effectively in the market to gain a competitive edge. By focusing on market segmentation and product positioning, companies can align their marketing efforts with their overall strategic goals and enhance their chances of success in the marketplace.
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Your boss made a purchase and paid immediately by a handwritten cheque, what should you do?
O Enter the cheque in a Manual Payment batch and print and post the cheque
O Create a System Generated Payment batch and print and post the cheque
O All the above
O None of the abov
If your boss made a purchase and paid immediately by a handwritten cheque, then you should enter the cheque in a Manual Payment batch and print and post the cheque. Therefore, option A "Enter the cheque in a Manual Payment batch and print and post the cheque" is the correct option.
A manual payment batch is a collection of payments entered manually for various vendors or payees. It enables you to quickly make payments and keep track of all transactions. Manual payments must be entered, reviewed, and accepted before being made. A manual payment batch is created to accommodate one-time or infrequent payments. The manual payment batch function can be accessed by going to Accounts Payable > Transactions > Manual Payment Batch. A batch can be added to the system by clicking on the plus sign in the upper right corner of the page. The accounts payable (AP) department maintains a manual payment batch, which is used to record outgoing checks in the event of payment by check. This batch is used to monitor who was paid, how much, and when. Therefore, when your boss makes a purchase and pays immediately with a handwritten check, you should enter the check in a manual payment batch.
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True or False: Credit default swaps are good substitutes for corporate bonds because CDS react to both interest rate risk and credit risk in the same way as traditional bonds of the same issuer or index.
False. Credit default swaps (CDS) are not good substitutes for corporate bonds as they do not react to interest rate risk and credit risk in the same way as traditional bonds of the same issuer or index.
Credit default swaps (CDS) are financial derivatives that provide protection against the default risk of a particular debt issuer. While they are related to credit risk, they are not necessarily good substitutes for corporate bonds. CDS and corporate bonds have different characteristics and functions. Corporate bonds represent direct ownership in debt issued by a company and provide fixed interest payments over a specific period. On the other hand, CDS are contracts between two parties where one party makes periodic payments to the other in exchange for protection against a credit event, such as default. CDS do not involve direct ownership of the underlying debt. Additionally, CDS and corporate bonds may not react to interest rate risk in the same way, as CDS primarily focus on credit risk mitigation rather than interest rate fluctuations. Therefore, the statement that CDS are good substitutes for corporate bonds because they react to both interest rate risk and credit risk in the same way is false.
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Whisca oele of these statensents Fs corretf? A. All overseas operations present the same amount B. The value of an investment by a firm depends of the investment's cash flows. C. When selecting one of two projects, managers st from each. D. Most investors peefer greater risk over fess risk. E. Accountants record sales and expenses after the 24. The average squared difference between the actual r the: A. volatility return. B. variance. C. standard deviation. D. risk premium. E. excess return. 25. Which one of the following types of securities has icnded to produce the lowest real rate of return for the period 1926 through 2014 ? A. U.S. Trcasury bilk B. long-1erm government bonds C. small company stocks D. large company stocks E. Iong-tern corporale bonds 26. Which one of the following as a correct stafement conceming risk premium? A. The greater the volatility of returns, the greater the risk premaum. B. The lower the volatility of returns, the greater the risk p C. The lower the average rate of tetum, the greater the riv D. The risk premium is not correlated to the awerage rate o retum. E. The risk permium is not affected by the volatility of reti A. All overseas opcrations present the same announl B. The value of an investaent by a firm depends or: the investmert's cash flows. C. Whea selecting one of two projects, managers st froms cach. D. Most investors prefer greater risk over less risk. E. Accenutants record sales and expenses after the 24. The average squared difference between the actual r the: A. volatility return. B. variance. C. standard deviation. D. risk premium. E. cxcess refum. 25. Which one of the following types of securities has tended to produce the lowest real rate of return for the period 1926 through 2014 ?
The value of an investment by a firm depends on the investment's cash flows. The statement "The value of an investment by a firm depends on the investment's cash flows" is a correct statement.
This statement states that the value of investment by a company is directly proportional to the cash flows of the investment that the firm has made. A firm will evaluate its investment decision in terms of the present value of the expected cash flows associated with that investment.
This statement has significant practical implications as it will help in the effective decision making by the company. Following are the other answers for the given questions. U.S. Treasury bills26. The greater the volatility of returns, the greater the risk premium.
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